A 45 keV xray photon interacts with a N-shell barium electron which has a binding energy 0f 0.3 keV. The electron is ejected out of the shell with 15 keV of energy. What amount of energy does the scattered photon possess?

Answer:

I hope this help:)

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

Velocity is a vector quantity, meaning it has size and direction, as opposed to speed, a scalar quantity which only has size.

An example is speed may be 30km/h, and an example of velocity is 30km/h East.

Therefore two people can have the same speed and different velocities because they can be traveling in different directions.

For example, you and your friend could be doing shuttles together but you started at one wall and they started at the other, so even though you are running at the same speed, you always have different velocities because they are running in the opposite direction as you.

Hope this helped!

Answer:

9×1/2×10=45J

Explanation:

\(w = f \times d \times \cot( \beta ) \)

f=9N

d=10m

cos(B)=1/2

The spring is compressed by 0.70 m.

The 67.97 kg student standing atop a spring in an elevator that is accelerating upward at 3.66 m/s2 has a spring constant of 2658 n/m. The amount the spring is compressed can be calculated using the formula:

F = kx,

where F is the force, k is the spring constant, and x is the amount of compression.

Therefore, we can calculate the amount of compression in the spring as follows:

x = F/k = (67.97 kg * 3.66 m/s2)/2658 N/m = 0.70 m

Therefore, the spring is compressed by 0.70 m.

To know more about Spring compression, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/12278394#

#SPJ11

Pepper particles can float on the water surface due to water cohesion. It is a natural property of water molecules.

Water cohesion refers to the property of water molecules associated with their sticking (i.e., water is attracted to water).

Pepper particles can float on the water surface because water molecules are highly cohesive.

Water molecules are arranged themselves in order to generate surface tension on the top of the water, thereby maintaining pepper particles floating on top.

Learn more about water cohesion here:

https://brainly.com/question/1724340

Answer:

a)  Q = 1.24 10⁻² pC,  b) Q = 8.68 10⁻² pC

Explanation:

a) the capacitance is defined

          C = \(\frac{Q}{\Delta V} = \epsilon_o \frac{A}{d}\)

           Q = ε₀  \(\frac{A}{d} \ \Delta V\)

let's calculate

           Q = 8.85 10⁻¹²  0.07 \(\frac{A}{d}\)

           Q = 0.6195 10⁻¹²  \(\frac{A}{d}\)

where a is the area of ​​the membrane

            A = d L

            Q = 0.6195 10⁻¹² Ll

            Q = 0.6195 10⁻¹² 0.02

             Q = 1.24 10⁻¹⁰ C

             Q = 1.24 10⁻² pC

B) the membrane is full of fat with k = 7

            C = \(\frac{Q}{\Delta V} = k \epsilon_o \ \frac{A}{d}\)

            Q = k ε₀  \(\frac{A}{d} \ \Delta V\)

             Q = k Q₀

            Q = 7   1.24 10⁻²

            Q = 8.68 10⁻² pC

To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, you should refer to the Area Forecast. The Area Forecast is a weather forecast that provides detailed information about the weather conditions that are expected to occur in a specific area.

The Area Forecast includes information about the temperature, wind, precipitation, and icing conditions that are expected to occur.

The freezing level is the altitude at which the temperature falls below freezing. Icing is the accumulation of ice on an aircraft's structure. Icing can be a serious hazard to aircraft, and it is important to be aware of the freezing level and areas of probable icing when planning a flight.

The Area Forecast can be found on the National Weather Service website. The Area Forecast is updated every 6 hours, and it is a valuable tool for pilots who are planning a flight.

Here are some additional tips for avoiding icing:

   Turn on your deicing and anti-icing systems.

If you are unsure about the weather conditions, it is always best to consult with a flight service specialist.

To learn more about  freezing level visit: https://brainly.com/question/31940132

#SPJ11

Answer:

use the mole concept

Explanation:

the mole to mole ratio

Answer:

B

Explanation:

The plasma membrane is a selectively premeable membrane that chooses what goes in and out of the cell. The cell wall is for support and the nuclear membrane decides what goes in and out of the nucleus

Answer:

Plasma membrane

Explanation:

The plasma membrane consists of a lipid bilayer that is semipermeable.The plasma membrane regulates the transport of materials entering and exiting the cell.So, it is selectively permeable membrane.

The typical speed for every leg of the excursion is 33 m/S

VA= 33 m/S

VB= 27.8 m/s

VC= 50 m/s

VD=66.7 m/s

VE=35.7 m/s

Thus, the Legs from the most noteworthy speed to the lower are:

D - C - E - A - B

we will utilize the speed recipe:

Speed = distance (m)/time (s)

at the point when D = 18 Km = 18000 m

furthermore, t = 9 min = 9*60 =540 s

So V = 18000m/540 S

= 33 m/S

Speed is the time rate at which an item is moving along a way, while speed is the rate and heading of an article's development. Put another way, speed is a scalar worth, while speed is a vector.

To know more about Velocity visit:

https://brainly.com/question/18084516

#SPJ4

Cell membrane - It acts as a barrier for the inner and out environments of the cell and it controls what goes in and what comes out of the cell.

Nucleus - It stores genetic code or the instructions on how the cell should work. It also controls the metabolic reactions inside the cell.

The force on an electron due to a magnetic field can be calculated using the formula F = qvB, where F is the force, q is the charge of the electron, v is the velocity of the electron, and B is the magnitude of the magnetic field.

Given:

Charge of the electron (q) = 1.60218 x 10^-19 C

Mass of the electron (m) = 9.10939 x 10^-31 kg

Magnitude of the magnetic field (B) = 0.259 T

To find the force on the electron, we need to determine the velocity of the electron after it has been accelerated across the potential difference.

The potential difference (V) is given as 82300 V, which can be used to calculate the final kinetic energy of the electron using the equation:

qV = (1/2)mv^2

Solving for v, we have:

v = sqrt((2qV)/m)

Substituting the given values, we find:

v = sqrt((2 * 1.60218 x 10^-19 C * 82300 V) / (9.10939 x 10^-31 kg))

v ≈ 5.47 x 10^6 m/s

Now, we can calculate the force on the electron due to the magnetic field:

F = qvB

Substituting the values, we get:

F = (1.60218 x 10^-19 C) * (5.47 x 10^6 m/s) * (0.259 T)

F ≈ 2.244 x 10^-15 N

Therefore, the force on the electron due to the magnetic field is approximately 2.244 x 10^-15 N.

To know more about magnetic field click this link -

brainly.com/question/19542022

#SPJ11

The minimum average speed must the car have in the second half of the event in order to qualify is 266.6km/hr.

Given the average speed of a race car (v) = 250km/hr

The total length of track (s) = 1600m = 1.6km

The initial average speed of car up to first half (v1) = 230km/h

Overall race duration divided by total average speed equals the amount of time that car can spend on the entire race.

total time(t) = 1.6/250 = 0.0064hrs

Let the time taken for first half = t1

such that t1 = 0.8/230 = 0.0034hr

The time left for second half = t2 = t - t1

t2 =  0.0064hrs - 0.0034hr = 0.003hr

The average speed for the second half of track = v2

then v2 = 0.8/t2 = 0.8/0.003 = 266.6km/hr

To learn more about speed click here https://brainly.com/question/28224010

#SPJ4

1.) Its angular speed is 6.28 rad/s.

2.) The speed of the tip of the hand 9.42 cm every second.

The angular speed of the second hand on a watch is calculated as the ratio of the circumference of the circle the hand follows to the total time taken to complete one rotation, typically measured in radians per second. The radius of the circle the second hand moves on is 1.5 cm. So, the circumference of the circle is 2π ×1.5 cm, which gives us 9.42 cm. Thus, the angular speed of the second hand is 6.28 rad/s.

The speed of the tip of the second hand can be calculated as the product of the radius of the circle it moves on and its angular speed. Thus, the speed of the tip of the second hand is equal to 9.42 cm/6.28s or 1.51 cm/s.

To express the answer in Angular Velocity, we would say the tip of the second hand has a rotational speed of 1.51 cm/s at an angular velocity of 6.28 rad/s. This means that the tip of the second hand spins around six times each second and covers a distance of 9.42 cm every second.

know more about speed here

https://brainly.com/question/17661499#

#SPJ11

Specific heat is quantity of heat required to increase the temperature of a substance by one degree celsius.

The formula to calculate heat energy is

Q=mc∆T

We know, Q=mc∆T

Where Q = heat energy

m = mass

c= specific heat capacity

∆T= change in temperature

Thus,

According to above formula

c= Q/m∆T

Here m= 2 kg

∆T= 5 degrees

Q= 2000 joules

c= 2000/2×5

c= 200

Thus, the specific heat capacity of the block is 200.

To know more about specific heat, click on:

brainly.com/question/27991746

#SPJ9

The room temperature is approximately 0.95°C.

Rt = Ro[1 + A(Tt - To) + B(Tt - To)2]

75,000 = Ro[1 + A(100 - To) + B(100 - To)2]

64,992 = Ro[1 + A(25 - To) + B(25 - To)2]

Dividing the two equations, we can eliminate the unknown constant Ro and obtain an expression for the ratio of A/B:

75,000 / 64,992 = [1 + A(100 - To) + B(100 - To)2] / [1 + A(25 - To) + B(25 - To)2]

Simplifying and rearranging, we get:

A/B = [1 + (100 - To)(64,992/75,000) - (25 - To)] / [(100 - To)2 - (25 - To)2(64,992/75,000)]

Using the given resistance values, we can evaluate the ratio of A/B to be approximately 0.00386.

63,000 = Ro[1 + 0.00386(0 - To) + B(0 - To)2]

Simplifying and solving for To, we get:

To ≈ 0.95°C

Resistance is a property of materials that opposes the flow of electrical current. It is a measure of the degree to which an object resists the passage of electrons through it. Resistance is caused by collisions between the electrons and the atoms that make up the material. These collisions cause the electrons to lose energy and slow down, reducing the flow of current.

The unit of resistance is the ohm (Ω), and it is defined as the ratio of voltage to current. Materials with high resistance have a low conductivity, while materials with low resistance have a high conductivity. This property is important in designing electronic circuits, where different components need to have different levels of resistance to perform specific functions. Resistors, for example, are components that are designed specifically to provide a certain level of resistance to a circuit.

To learn more about Resistance visit here:

brainly.com/question/30799966

#SPJ4

The acceleration of the bead in the viscous liquid at terminal speed is zero, from which the value of the constant b, can be determined.

Reasons:

The mass of the bead, m = 3.00 g

Time at which the mass is released, t = 0

Terminal velocity of \(v_T\) = 2.00 cm/s = 0.02 m/s

(a) The equation 6.2, obtained online is presented as follows;

\(\overrightarrow R = -b \cdot \overrightarrow v\)

Where;

\(\overrightarrow R\) = The resistive force = m·a

\(\overrightarrow v\) = The relative velocity of the object

a = The acceleration of the object

We get;

m·g - b·v = m·a

At the terminal velocity, \(v_T\), we have;

a = 0

Therefore;

m·g - b·\(v_T\) = m × a = 0

m·g = b·\(v_T\)

\(b= \dfrac{m \cdot g}{v_T}\)

Therefore;

\(b= \dfrac{0.003 \, kg \times 9.81 \, m/s^2}{0.02 \, m/s} = 1.4715 \, kg/s\)

b = 1.4715 kg/s.

(b) From, m·g - b·v = m·a, and \(a = \dfrac{dv}{dt}\), we have;

\(m \cdot \dfrac{dv}{dt}= m \cdot g - b\cdot v\)

Which gives;

\(\right. \dfrac{dv}{dt}= \mathbf{g - \dfrac{b}{m} \cdot v}\)

The expression for v obtained by differential equation is expressed as follows;

\(v = \dfrac{m \cdot g}{b} \cdot \left(1 - e^{-b \cdot t/m} \right)\)

Which gives;

\(v = \mathbf{v_T \cdot \left(1 - e^{-b \cdot t/m} \right)}\)

Therefore, when the bead reaches 0.632·\(v_T\), we get;

\(1 - e^{-b \cdot t/m}\) = 0.632

\(e^{-b \cdot t/m}\) = 1 - 0.632 = 0.368

\(t= \dfrac{ln(0.368)}{-\dfrac{1.4715}{0.003} } \approx 2.038 \times 10^{-3}\)

The time at which the bead reaches  0.632·\(v_T\), t ≈ 2.038 × 10⁻³ s.

(c) The value of the resistive force at terminal velocity, \(v_T\), is \(\overrightarrow F_R = -b \cdot v_T\)

Which gives;

\(\overrightarrow F_R\) = 1.4715 kg/s × 0.02 m/s = 0.02943 N.

Learn more here:

https://brainly.com/question/15124379

The force in member BD is 330 N, and the reaction at C consists of two components: 130 N along the x-axis and 200 N along the y-axis.

What is force?
A force is indeed an influence that really can alter an object's motion according to physics. A motion of an object to mass to accelerate when it changes its velocity, such as when it moves away from rest. An intuitive way to describe force is as a push or a pull. A force is a vector quantity because it has both direction and magnitude. It is calculated using the newton SI unit (N). Force is denoted by the letter F. (formerly P). The net force acting on an object is proportional to the frequency that its momentum changes over time, according to Newton's second law in its original formulation.

To learn more about force
https://brainly.com/question/12970081
#SPJ4

The impedance of a series circuit with a resistor and capacitor can be found using Z = sqrt(R^2 + (1/ωC)^2). The current through the resistor can be found using Ohm's Law, I = V0/Z.

In this problem, we have a series circuit consisting of a resistor and a capacitor connected to an AC generator. To solve this problem, we need to use the concepts of impedance, current, and voltage in AC circuits.

(a) The impedance of the circuit is given by Z = √(R^2 + (1/ωC)^2), where R is the resistance, C is the capacitance, and ω is the angular frequency of the AC source. Plugging in the given values, we get Z = √(400^2 + (1/(120π*4.0×10^-6))^2) = 509.9 Ω.

(b) The amplitude of the current through the resistor is given by I = V0/Z, where V0 is the amplitude of the AC voltage. Plugging in the values, we get I = 120/509.9 = 0.235 A.

(c) The current through the resistor is given by I = I0 cos(ωt - φ), where I0 is the amplitude of the current, ω is the angular frequency of the AC source, t is time, and φ is the phase angle. The amplitude of the current was calculated in part (b) as 0.235 A.

(d) The voltage across the resistor is given by VR = IR, where IR is the current through the resistor. Plugging in the value of IR from part (b), we get VR = 0.235 × 400 = 94 V. The voltage across the capacitor is given by VC = IXc, where Xc is the capacitive reactance, which is 1/(ωC). Plugging in the values, we get VC = 0.235 × (1/(120π×4.0×10^-6)) = 3.08 V.

To learn more about Ohm's Law click here: brainly.com/question/10006666

#SPJ11

Answer:

If you ring the doorbell and no one opens the door, you'll infer that no one is home rather than continuing to ring the doorbell to an empty house. Being able to understand this and look for another solution is another example of mental flexibility.

Explanation:

Explanation:

Distance 250m, displacement 50m

Answer:

You will reach both your arms out to break your fall and save your head.

Explanation:

It common sense you don't want your head injured. Do you?

The upward force by the cable is equal to the downward force of gravity.

In this scenario, the elevator is being lifted up an elevator shaft at a constant speed. Since all frictional effects are considered negligible, we can assume that there is no additional force acting on the elevator other than the tension force exerted by the steel cable and the force of gravity.

The force of gravity acts downward, pulling the elevator towards the Earth. This force is equal to the weight of the elevator, which is determined by the mass of the elevator and the acceleration due to gravity. According to Newton's third law of motion, for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. In this case, the reaction to the force of gravity is the upward force exerted by the steel cable.

To maintain a constant speed ascent, the upward force exerted by the cable must be equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the downward force of gravity. This ensures that the net force acting on the elevator is zero, resulting in balanced forces. As a result, the elevator moves upwards at a steady speed without any acceleration or deceleration.

To learn more about gravity, here

https://brainly.com/question/31321801

#SPJ4

Answer:

C.I dont know but that is my answer

Answer:

Pressure = ρgh

pressure (p) is measured in pascals (Pa)

density (ρ) is measured in kilograms per metre cubed (kg/m3)

The fore of gravitational field strength (g) is measured in N/kg or m/s 2

height of column (h) is measured in metres (m)

Answer = 235,200 Pa

Explanation:

Pressure = ρgh

Pressure = 1,000 x 9.8 x 24

Pressure = 235,200 Pa

The different types of WBCs with their description are as follows: neutrophil- polymorphonuclear (nucleus twisted and segmented), slightly pinkish granular cytoplasm, lymphocyte- large round nucleus takes up most of the space in the cell.

White blood cells (WBCs) are a major part of the body's immune system. They help the body in fighting infections and other related diseases. Different types of white blood cells include: granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils), monocytes, and lymphocytes (T cells and B cells).

Neutrophil are polymorphonuclear (nucleus twisted and segmented) and are slightly pinkish granular cytoplasm, lymphocyte are the large round nucleus that takes up most of the space in the cell and have a small cytoplasm ring around nucleus, monocyte are large cell, twice as big as red blood cell with the nucleus is bean or "C" shaped, eosinophil are the cells full of red-pink staining granules and the nucleus is bilobed, basophil are the cell which are full of dark-purple staining granules and nucleus is bilobed.

Learn more about WBCs here:

https://brainly.com/question/24126814

#SPJ1

a) About 48% of the solar energy is in the visible range (400-700 nm). The visible spectrum is the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that is visible to the human eye, and it covers most of the wavelengths emitted by the sun.

b) About 45% of the solar energy is at wavelengths shorter than the visible range (below 400 nm). This includes ultraviolet radiation, which is invisible to the human eye but can cause skin damage and eye damage.

c) About 7% of the solar energy is at wavelengths longer than the visible range (above 700 nm). This includes infrared radiation, which is invisible to the human eye but can cause heat transfer and can be felt as warmth. Infrared radiation is also used in infrared cameras and other devices that detect heat.

Know more about electromagnetic here

https://brainly.com/question/3427992#

#SPJ11

The work done along the x-axis, neglecting friction is 20.8 J.

The given details are: Mass, m = 4.0 kg Force, F = 8.0 N Distance, d = 3.0 m

Angle between force and displacement, θ = 30°

Work done can be calculated using the formula given below: W = Fd cosθ

Where, W = work done F = force applied d = distance coveredθ = angle between force and displacement

Substituting the values in the above formula, W = 8.0 N × 3.0 m × cos 30°W = 24.0 J × 0.866W = 20.8 J (approx)

Therefore, the work done along the x-axis, neglecting friction is 20.8 J.

For more questions on friction

https://brainly.com/question/30031223

#SPJ8