The parts of the patient's history of present illness that were obtained include the location of the pain, duration of pain, onset of pain, and chief complaint.
The patient reported feeling intermittent chest pain that started about a month ago, lasting about 10 minutes, with a pain rating of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10. The patient pointed to the center of their chest as the location of the pain and mentioned that it mainly occurs after exercising.
However, the nurse did not ask about stress and anxiety as a possible trigger for the chest pain. It is important to obtain a thorough history to determine the underlying cause of the chest pain and provide appropriate treatment. This could include further tests such as an electrocardiogram (ECG) or imaging studies to rule out any cardiac issues, as well as exploring any potential lifestyle or behavioral factors that may be contributing to the chest pain.
Therefore, the parts of the patient's history of present illness that were obtained include the location of the pain, duration of pain, onset of pain, and chief complaint.
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38. A pregnant client experiences persistent severe headaches and unexplained spells of dizziness during training, what should the trainer do?
Answer:
The coach should immediately stop physical activity and then take your blood pressure.
Explanation:
Many pregnant women tend to suffer from preclampcia, which is high blood pressure during pregnancy, which is very careful since it is risky for the mother and the baby.
High blood pressure in pregnant women can cause detachments of the placenta, interruption of pregnancy or spontaneous abortion.
It is very risky not to perceive these signs or said pathology, those pregnant women who are diagnosed with high blood pressure should do strict rest and monitoring.
Pregnant women bear the weight and physiological conditions of the baby and child. The trainer should immediately halt the training and check for the vitals of the women.
The trainer should do the following:
1. The trainer should immediately stop the training if the woman is experiencing dizziness and persistent severe headaches.
2. The symptoms could indicate the cause of preeclampsia, which is one of the most common complications of pregnancy. It has symptoms of high blood pressure, damage to the organ systems, and dizziness.
3. The trainer should immediately check for the vitals and measure the blood pressure of the pregnant women. The trainer should immediately contact the medical physician for monitoring and checking of the pregnant women.
Thus, the trainer should stop exercising and check the blood pressure.
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As an MT, you are the ______________ line of defense in risk management.
Answer:
First
Explanation:
How is ur day every body cuz mine is terrible
Answer:
I am sooo sorry.. if you don't mind me asking what happened
Explanation:
Answer:
my day was horrible too i didnt know i didnt have school today and i woke up extra early super tired just to find out we have no school now im having trouble going back to bed so im staying up and im super tired
You are told to order 3 bottles of Septra suspension. Each bottle has 480 mL. What is the total liters you are
ordering?
The 3 vials of Septra suspension. Each bottle has 480ml. the total liters you are asking for is 1,440 liters.
What is septra?This medication is a combination of two antibiotics: sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim. It is used to treat a wide variety of bacterial infections (such as middle ear, urine, respiratory, and intestinal infections). It is also used to prevent and treat a certain type of pneumonia (pneumocystis-type).
With these informations, we can conclude that the 3 Septra suspension bottles. Each bottle has 480ml. the total liters you are asking for is 1,440 liters.
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Which of the following is a function of the digestive system?
a) Nerve conduction
b) Locomotion
c) Acid-base balance
d) Elimination of waste
Answer:
elimination of waste
plese mark me brainliest
Explanation:
your patient suffered a severe electrical burn injury. in your emergency care, you should always:
If your patient suffered a severe electrical burn injury, in your emergency care, you should always prioritize safety and take steps to protect yourself and others before providing care to the patient.
Electrical burns can cause significant tissue damage and may pose a risk of electrical shock or electrocution to anyone in contact with the patient or the source of the electrical current. Therefore, the first step in providing emergency care for a patient with an electrical burn injury is to ensure that the source of the electrical current has been turned off or the patient has been removed from it safely.
This will help prevent further injury to the patient and reduce the risk of electrocution to you or other healthcare providers. After ensuring that the scene is safe, you can begin to assess the patient's injuries, stabilize any life-threatening conditions, and provide supportive care, such as administering fluids and pain medications. It is important to remember that electrical burns may cause deeper tissue damage than is visible on the surface, so close monitoring of the patient's condition and prompt referral to a burn center may be necessary.
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Over-the-counter medications cannot be purchased or used without a doctor's instructions
True/False
False: Over-the-counter (OTC) medications can be purchased and used without a doctor's prescription or instructions.
What are over-the-counter (OTC) medications?
Over-the-counter (OTC) medications are available for purchase at a pharmacy or drugstore without a prescription from a doctor.
Antihistamines, decongestants, pain relievers, and cough suppressants are among the most common OTC medications.
OTC medications are typically safe when taken according to the package instructions, but they can cause harm when taken in larger doses than recommended or when taken with other medications that interact with them.
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Following a motorcycle crash, a 29-year-old man has pain and deformity to both of his femurs. He is conscious but confused, and his
vital signs indicate shock. EMTs are en route to the scene. You should:
Answer:
You should secure his legs together with cravats
Explanation:
which term refers to the process of reviewing known vulnerabilities and threats
The term that refers to the process of reviewing known vulnerabilities and threats is called "Risk Assessment" or "Risk Analysis."
Risk analysis is the process of identifying potential risks, assessing their potential impact, and developing plans to mitigate or avoid those risks. This process involves identifying potential hazards or threats, determining the likelihood of those risks occurring, assessing the potential impact of those risks, and developing strategies to manage or mitigate those risks.
Risk analysis is an important part of risk management, which is the process of identifying, assessing, and controlling risks in order to minimize their potential impact on an organization or project. By conducting a risk analysis, organizations can better understand the potential risks they face and develop plans to reduce or eliminate those risks.
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symptoms of aplastic anemia
Answer
Anemia symptoms include fatigue, shortness of breath, headaches, bruising, malaise
What are the possible consequences of maintaining the ban on asbestos?
A 50-year-old male patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain. He is taken to the cardiac cath lab for a coronary angiogram and left ventriculogram. The cardiologist discovers a lesion in the left main coronary artery branch and orders an immediate CABG. Why does the location of this lesion make it more dangerous than lesions in other locations?
Answer:
The LAD supplies a significant area of the heart. If this are of the heart dies the patient dies.
Explanation:
Vacuum molding can be used for all of the following techniques, expect
A) bleaching mouth guards
B) custom trays
C) nightguards
D) lost wax process
( please provide a explanation for answer)
( also the answer IS NOT option c or b)
#dentalassiantintraining
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
1. Amoxicillin label a. What is the total volume of the container? b. What diluent will you use? c. How much diluent will you use? d. What is the concentration (dosage strength) of the reconstituted solution? c. Route(s) of axiministration? f. How long with the reconstituted medication maintain its potency?
The specific information regarding the total volume of the container, diluent, amount of diluent, concentration, and route of administration for amoxicillin is not provided in the question. The duration of potency or shelf life of the reconstituted medication is typically mentioned on the label or packaging instructions and should be followed according to the manufacturer's recommendations.
a. The total volume of the container is not provided in the question. It would typically be mentioned on the label or packaging of the specific amoxicillin product.
b. The diluent used for reconstitution of amoxicillin can vary depending on the specific product. Common diluents include sterile water, distilled water, or a specified diluent provided with the medication.
c. The amount of diluent to be used for reconstitution is also product-specific and should be indicated on the label or packaging instructions. It is typically mentioned in milliliters (mL) or as a specific volume.
d. The concentration or dosage strength of the reconstituted solution depends on the specific product and dilution instructions. It is typically indicated as the amount of amoxicillin per volume (e.g., mg/mL)
e. The route(s) of administration for amoxicillin can include oral (PO), intravenous (IV), or other routes depending on the formulation and intended use.
f. The duration of potency or shelf life of the reconstituted medication is typically mentioned on the label or packaging instructions. It can vary depending on the product and should be followed according to the manufacturer's recommendations.
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What is a contract allowable?
when planning pain control for a client with terminal gastric cancer, a nurse should consider that:
When planning pain control for a client with terminal gastric cancer, the nurse should consider various factors such as the type and severity of pain, the client's age, weight, and overall health status, as well as their individual preferences and cultural beliefs. The nurse should also consider the potential side effects and interactions of the medications used to manage pain, as well as the risks associated with certain routes of administration (e.g., intravenous vs. oral).
In general, the nurse should work closely with the client and their healthcare team to develop a comprehensive pain management plan that incorporates a range of approaches, including pharmacological and non-pharmacological interventions, as well as palliative care and supportive services. This may involve using opioid and non-opioid medications, as well as complementary therapies such as massage, acupuncture, and relaxation techniques, to help alleviate pain and improve the client's overall quality of life. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's pain level and adjust their pain management plan as needed to ensure that they are comfortable and receiving the best possible care.
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which legislation governs nursing registration in nursing?
Answer:
The Nurse Practice act it is known as your nursing rulebook.
Explanation:
The Nurse Practice Act ensures that all registered nurses are qualified and competent of doing their job to the best.
"The Nurse Practice Act that you must learn, know and live by when working as a registered nurse in the USA."
The most common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is?
A five-month-old infant is ordered acetaminophen q6h for a high temperature. The usual adult dose is 325 mg q4-6h. The available acetaminophen is 160 mg/5 mL. What volume of medication should the infant receive every six hours? a) 3.2 mL b) 0.28 mL child's dose ) 0.34 mL child's dose d) 1.6 mL
Answer: .34 ML
Explanation: Your welcome :)
The volume of acetaminophen medication the infant should receive every six hours is 3.2 mL.
To calculate the appropriate volume of medication for the infant, we need to determine the correct dosage based on the adult dose and adjust it for the infant's weight.
The adult dose is 325 mg, to be taken every 4-6 hours. However, for infants, the dosage is usually adjusted based on their weight or age. In this case, the infant is five months old.
The available acetaminophen concentration is 160 mg/5 mL. We need to calculate the appropriate volume of medication to provide the desired dosage.
The child's dose is usually a fraction of the adult dose, based on weight or age. Without specific weight information provided, we can assume the child's dose is a fraction, such as 1/2 or 1/4, of the adult dose.
Based on the available options, the volume of medication that aligns with a child's dose is 3.2 mL. This would correspond to a child's dose that is approximately 1/2 of the adult dose (325 mg).
Therefore, the main answer is 3.2 mL.
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postoperative clinical outcomes of balloon kyphoplasty treatment: would adherence to indications and contraindications prevent complications?
Adherence to indications and contraindications in balloon kyphoplasty treatment can help prevent complications and improve postoperative clinical outcomes.
Balloon kyphoplasty is a minimally invasive surgical procedure used to treat vertebral compression fractures. Adherence to indications and contraindications is crucial to ensure the appropriate selection of patients for the procedure and minimize the risk of complications.
Indications for balloon kyphoplasty typically include painful vertebral compression fractures due to osteoporosis, cancer, or trauma. Contraindications may include active infection, severe osteoporosis, or spinal instability.
By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can identify patients who are likely to benefit from the procedure while avoiding potential risks. This adherence helps ensure that the procedure is performed on suitable candidates, leading to better outcomes and reduced complications.
Complications associated with balloon kyphoplasty can include cement leakage, adjacent-level fractures, nerve injury, and infection. Adhering to indications and contraindications can help minimize these complications by selecting appropriate candidates and avoiding procedures in patients with higher risks.
In summary, adherence to indications and contraindications in balloon kyphoplasty treatment plays a crucial role in preventing complications and improving postoperative clinical outcomes.
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How old do you need to be to sign up for Medicare in Oregon?
Answer:
65
Explanation:
People who are younger than 65 may also be Medicare eligible if they've been receiving Social Security disability check for at least 24 months or have end-stage renal disease. Medicare enrollment in Oregon accounts more than 830,000 Oregonians currently enrolled in Medicare.
Medicare eligibility starts at age 65. Your initial window to enroll is the seven-month period that begins three months before the month of your 65th birthday and ends three months after it. Seniors are generally advised to sign up on time to avoid penalties that could prove quite costly over the course of retirement.
Which of the following is in compliance with
medical ethics?
A doctor tells a patient about the side effects
before starting a new treatment.
A doctor starts a new treatment before telling
the patient about its side effects.
A doctor tells a patient that there is no point
in giving informed consent, since the patient
needs the treatment to live.
DONE
Answer:a
Explanation:
The physician has written an order for a Heparin bolus of 60 units/kg IV. Your patient's weight is 80 kg. What would be the appropriate dose for this patient?
Answer:
4800 units
Explanation:
60 units/kg x 80 kg = 4800 units
To find the appropriate dose of Heparin bolus for this patient, follow these steps:
1. Note the physician's order: 60 units/kg IV Heparin bolus.
2. Obtain the patient's weight: 80 kg.
3. Multiply the physician's order by the patient's weight to calculate the appropriate dose.
Calculation: 60 units/kg x 80 kg = 4800 units
The appropriate dose for this patient would be 4800 units of Heparin bolus IV as per the physician's order.
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which of the following best describes an environmental problem associated with hydrological fracturing or fracking?
The need to dispose of wastewater and the depletion of water supplies are the two most serious issues at fracking sites.. Air pollution and water contamination caused by the toxic chemicals used in hydraulic fracturing are the biggest worries at fracking sites.
Methane, a greenhouse gas that absorbs 25 times more heat than carbon dioxide, is one of the primary pollutants emitted during the fracking process. According to studies by the International Energy Agency, the oil and gas sector in the United States produces 16.9 million metric tons of methane annually.
Some of this methane is unintentionally released into the atmosphere between extractions or intentionally vented due to defective equipment. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), the United States emits more methane than all 164 other countries combined.
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a client with hiv has been prescribed haart. what is the best description that can provide to the client regarding the goal of this therapy?
The best description to provide to the client regarding the goal of this therapy when a client with HIV has been prescribed HAART is to explain that this therapy is aimed at reducing the viral load as close as possible to an undetectable level. This will help in preventing the progression of the disease and reduce the likelihood of opportunistic infections occurring.
Antiretroviral therapy (ART) for HIV is also known as highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). It involves using a combination of medications to slow the progression of the virus in the body. The goal of HAART is to suppress the virus, decrease the viral load, and increase the CD4 cell count. It is important to educate the client that this medication needs to be taken exactly as prescribed. It is important to inform the client that the medication does not cure the disease, but it can help reduce the symptoms and prevent the transmission of the disease to others.The best description to provide to the client regarding the goal of this therapy when a client with HIV has been prescribed HAART is to explain that this therapy is aimed at reducing the viral load as close as possible to an undetectable level. This will help in preventing the progression of the disease and reduce the likelihood of opportunistic infections occurring.
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A mixture of 0.20M acetic acid and 0.30M sodium acetate is given. Calculate the pH of the medium if the pKa of the acetic acid is 4.76.
A victim is pulled from a swimming pool, unresponsive. You have checked the scene and checked the victim for responsiveness. You have activated 911. For which of the following reasons would you give 1 rescue breath every 5 seconds instead of chest compressions?
a. You check the pulse and there is none.
b. The victim is not breathing but has a pulse.
c. The victim is not breathing.
d. The victim moves and gags.
Answer: The correct option is B (The victim is not breathing but has a pulse).
Explanation:
FIRST AID can be defined as the immediate and correct help rendered to a victim of accident or sudden illness which involves using the materials available and application of correct techniques before he/she is taken to hospital. The type of first aid to be given to a patient will depend on the present emergency situation.
Rescue breathing is a type of first aid rendered to victims of:
--> Near drowning
--> Overdose or poisoning
--> Choking
--> Carbon monoxide poisoning
-->Severe asthma attack
Rescue breathing is carried out if the person is not breathing but has a pulse, give 1 rescue breath every 5 to 6 seconds or about 10 to 12 breaths per minute.
Rescue breathing in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) may be accompanied with chest compressions IF there is no pulse or heart beat. But if the victim is not breathing but has a pulse, only 1 rescue breath every 5 seconds without chest compressions is given.
Help with a reflection piece on adult safeguarding in the United Kingdom
Adult safeguarding is the process of protecting adults who are at risk of abuse or neglect. Abuse can happen to anyone, regardless of age, gender, race, or social status.
What is adult safeguarding about?There are many different types of adult abuse, including physical abuse, emotional abuse, financial abuse, and sexual abuse. Physical abuse is any act that causes physical harm to an adult. Emotional abuse is any act that causes emotional harm to an adult, such as threats, insults, or isolation. Financial abuse is any act that takes advantage of an adult's financial resources, such as stealing money or property. Sexual abuse is any sexual act that is forced or unwanted.
In the United Kingdom, adult safeguarding is the responsibility of a number of different agencies, including local authorities, the NHS, and the police. These agencies work together to identify and protect adults who are at risk of abuse.
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Match the term with the definitions below. A.A study plan on which all clinical trials are based B.Any of the treatment groups in a randomized trial C.The process of learning the key facts about a clinical trial before deciding whether or not to participate D.A modification of the effect of the drug when administered with another drug E.None of the above
Answer:
A. Protocols.
B. ARM.
C. Informed consent.
D. Drug interaction.
Explanation:
A. Protocols: A study plan on which all clinical trials are based. This study plan should be designed carefully in order to protect the participant's health while addressing specific research questions.
B. ARM: Any of the treatment groups in a randomized trial. Thus, it is typically the different segments of study.
C. Informed consent: The process of learning the key facts about a clinical trial before deciding whether or not to participate.
D. Drug interaction: A modification of the effect of the drug when administered with another drug.
Between which two numbers is the quotient of 88 ÷ 5?