Answers
Work place violence is part of the nursing profession and includes all of the following except d. Rude behavior by a staff after a bad day.
Work place violence in nursing profession refers to any behavior that is meant to harm, intimidate, threaten, or injure the staff or patients. It includes physical violence, verbal abuse, bullying, sexual harassment, and any other form of aggressive behavior.
Intimidation to overpower a staff, harassment of new employees, and physical and verbal aggressive patients are all examples of work place violence in nursing.
However, rude behavior by a staff after a bad day is not considered a form of work place violence as it is not intentional or directed towards causing harm or intimidation. It may still be considered unprofessional and inappropriate behavior that can affect the work environment, but it is not a type of work place violence.
Therefore, the correct answer is option d.
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Related Questions
which parental statement would the nurse recognize as a sign that an infant may need to be evaluated for cerebral palsy? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Answers
The parental statements that may be signs that an infant may need to be evaluated for cerebral palsy are my baby doesn't make eye contact, my baby was able to turn from front to back by 2 months of age, and all of my other children were sitting alone by this age, this baby doesn't seem to be anywhere near sitting alone, the correct options are 1, 2, and 5.
The statement indicates a lack of social interaction, which can be a red flag for developmental delays, including cerebral palsy. It indicates early achievement of a milestone that may suggest hypertonia, a symptom of cerebral palsy.
It indicates a delay in the achievement of a milestone, which is also a red flag for developmental delays. Early identification and intervention are crucial for improving outcomes for infants with cerebral palsy, the correct options are 1, 2, and 5.
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The complete question is:
Which parental statements would the nurse recognize as signs that an infant may need to be evaluated for cerebral palsy (select all that apply)
1. My baby doesn't make eye contact
2. My baby seems to have a voracious appetite
3. My baby was able to turn from front to back by 2 months of age
4. I've noticed that this baby clings to me more than other children of the same age
5. All of my other children were sitting alone by this age. This baby doesn't seem to be anywhere near sitting alone
1. What psychological disorder are you researching? 2. What is the definition of protectionism? What might be physical/noticeable characteristics of protectionism? 3. What are potential risk factors that may lead to this illness "causes" of protectionism? Are there certain "types" of people who are prone to protectionism and if so, why? 4. What are prevention suggestions and strategies pertaining to protectionism? (Hint: Look at risk factors/causes, can you prevent the severity of the disorder, can you prolong the age of onset, etc.) 5. What are the common warning signs/symptoms that may lead you to believe someone may be suffering from protectionism? 6. How is protectionism specifically treated (medication name, symptoms treated, etc.)? Is it curable? How? 7. What is the science behind protectionism? What does the research say about the physiology or the psychology of this disorder-what's going on inside the body cause this? 8. How can you help a friend who may be suffering from protectionism? Is there a way to "help" yourself? 9. List at least 5 statistics pertaining to protectionism. (National, state, city, school, etc., how many people this illness affects, teenage stats vs. adult stats, men vs, women, differences between races, etc.) 10. What are common myths and the respective facts pertaining to perfectionism?
Answers
Answer:
sorry po need lang po ng points
Value: 1
When caring for a resident, it is best to avoid the use of restraints whenever possible. If a restraint is ordered and
must be used, which practice is not recommended?
O a. Observe the resident frequently.
O b. Maintain a calm environment.
O c. Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect.
O d. Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident.
Answers
The weird option that sounds is the statement number 4. Option 4 is the correct answer.
What is the best thing that is done in this situation ?In this situation the best things that is done to keep calm and handle the situation peacefully.
Observe the resident again and again to check the response that is given by the body so that a problem has not occured in the fractions of the time. Maintaining a calm and peaceful environment is very important as the haste makes up the waste.
Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect to avoid any kind of panic situations that can happen. Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident sounds wrong because it is not wise to directly experiment without having much of the ideas.
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5
Select the correct answer.
Which of the following vessels derive from the aortic arch?
OA. Right common carotid artery
OB. Right subclavian artery
OC. Brachiocephalic trunk
OD. All of the above
Answers
Answer:
All of the above
Explanation:
the point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the:
1. Minimum adverse effect level
2. Peak of action
3. Onset of action
4. Therapeutic range
Answers
The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the Onset of action.
The term "therapeutic effect" refers to the response(s) after any type of therapy, the outcomes of which are deemed beneficial or good. This is true whether the outcome was anticipated, unanticipated, or an unforeseen consequence. An unpleasant impact (including nocebo) is the opposite and refers to a negative or unwanted response (s). What defines a therapeutic impact vs a side effect depends on the nature of the circumstance as well as the treatment aims. There is no intrinsic distinction between therapeutic and undesirable side effects; both are behavioral/physiologic changes that occur as a result of the treatment method or drug.
To optimise therapeutic outcomes (desired) while minimising side effects (undesired), the therapy must be recognised and quantified in several dimensions. In the case of focused pharmacological treatments, a mix of medicines is frequently required to obtain the intended outcomes.
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With a diagnosis of right rib fracture and closed pneumothorax, the client should be placed in which position?
Answers
Answer:
closed pneumothorax and rib fracture position
Explanation:
someone in the doctor's office told me since i had a broken bone near my back
3.2 Adding up the two equivalent fractions
Add the two equivalent fractions which now have a common denominator
Combine the numerators together, put the sum or difference over the common denominator then reduce to lowest terms if possible:
2 • (x-6) - (6 • 3) 2x - 30
——————————————————— = ———————
3 3
Answers
Answer:14
Explanation:
In the opening vignette, Ryan B. undergoes neurosurgery to remove a portion of his _______ in order to treat his worsening epilepsy.
a. cerebellum
b. limbic system
c. medial temporal lobe
d. amygdala
e. parietal lobe
Answers
In the opening vignette, Ryan B. undergoes neurosurgery to remove a portion of his medial temporal lobe in order to treat his worsening epilepsy. Hence option C is correct.
The medial temporal lobe is a part of the brain that is involved in memory and emotion. It is also a common site for the onset of epilepsy. In the opening vignette, Ryan B. undergoes neurosurgery to remove a portion of his medial temporal lobe in order to treat his worsening epilepsy.
The other options are incorrect. The cerebellum is involved in motor coordination. The limbic system is involved in emotion and memory. The amygdala is part of the limbic system and is involved in fear and aggression. The parietal lobe is involved in sensory perception and spatial awareness.
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Which of the following is NOT part of a virus structure?
Answers Central nucleic acid
Cell wall containing peptidoglycan
Capsid protein coat
Envelope
Answers
I hope this helped you!
Possession of opium, morphine, or heroin without a prescription was made a crime by: the 1906 Pure Food and Drugs Act. the 1986 Anti-Drug Abuse amendments. the 1970 Controlled Substances Act. a 1915 Supreme Court decision.
Answers
Possession of opium, morphine, or heroin without a prescription was made a crime by various laws and decisions. The 1906 Pure Food and Drugs Act was one of the first federal laws to regulate drugs and require accurate labeling of ingredients.
It did not make possession of these substances without a prescription a crime but laid the groundwork for future drug control legislation.The 1915 Supreme Court decision in United States v. Doremus upheld the constitutionality of the Harrison Narcotics Tax Act, which required doctors and pharmacists to register and pay a tax to prescribe and dispense opioids. This decision allowed the government to regulate and control the production, distribution, and use of these drugs.The 1970 Controlled Substances Act (CSA) replaced previous drug laws and established a schedule of controlled substances based on their medical use, potential for abuse, and safety. Possession of opioids without a prescription is illegal under the CSA, and penalties vary depending on the drug's schedule and the amount in possession.The 1986 Anti-Drug Abuse amendments increased penalties for drug offenses, including possession of opioids without a prescription. These amendments also established mandatory minimum sentences for drug offenses, leading to the mass incarceration of drug offenders and disproportionately affecting communities of color.In summary, possession of opioids without a prescription was made a crime by the 1970 Controlled Substances Act, which established a schedule of controlled substances and regulated their production, distribution, and use. The 1986 Anti-Drug Abuse amendments increased penalties for drug offenses, including possession of opioids without a prescription, while the 1906 Pure Food and Drugs Act and the 1915 Supreme Court decision laid the groundwork for future drug control legislation.For more such question on heroin
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EMS stands for -
EMS consists of -
4 steps in the EMS System
Step 1.
Unusual
Unusual
Unusual
Unusual
Step 2.
Why Not:
Step 3.
Step 4.
Question
If a person does not give consent what should you do?
You see a person collapse in front of you and they are clearly unconscious, what should you do?
When are 3 times you should move an injured person?
1.
2.
3.
Notes
Emergency Action Steps (3Cs things you should do in ANY Emergency)
C
C
C
------
Checking a Conscious Person (6 steps)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Checking Conscious choking Adult
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Shock-
How to treat shock
Answers
Hai noroc deluta sa te iau in sphada
Question 47 (1 point) Starting a resident on medication for depression involves staff members outside of nursing 1) True 2) False Question 48 (1 point) More than half of the nursing facilities in the
Answers
The given statement "Starting a resident on medication for depression typically involves staff members outside of nursing." is true
This process usually involves a multidisciplinary approach where healthcare professionals, including psychiatrists, psychologists, and pharmacists, are involved in assessing the resident's condition, determining the appropriate medication, prescribing the medication, and monitoring the resident's response to treatment.
Nurses may play a role in administering the medication and monitoring the resident's vital signs and side effects, but the decision-making process and prescription typically involve staff members outside of nursing.
Therefore, the given statement is true.
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The complete question is:
Starting a resident on medication for depression involves staff members outside of nursing. 1) True 2) False
1. Barbara chooses a baked potato for dinner. The potato weighs 7.95 oz. How many calories is her potato? ________________ calories
Answers
Answer: Your answer to your question is 1739.0625 calories.
Explanation: Hope my answer helped you! Plz, mark my answer Brainliest! Thank you!
Food labels depict the nutritional information that the item contains with its calories. A potato weighing 7.95 oz has 1739.0625 kcal.
What are calories?Calories are defined as the measurement unit of the energy a person consumes from the food they eat or drink. Calories intake depends on the age and the profession given in the Dietary Guidelines.
Given,
Weight of potato = 7.95 oz
As it is known, 1 oz = 218.75 kcal
Then, 7.95 = 7.95 × 218.75
= 1739.0625 kcal
Therefore, 1739.0625 kcal is present in the potatoes.
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A 36 year old female patient arrives at the office for her appointment to determine the cause of her frequent vaginal bleeding not associated with her menstrual cycle. As she is checking in at a the reception desk,she faints and falls to the floor. The receptionist immediately calls the medical assistant from the back office to come to manage the situation. What immediate action should the medical assistant take
Answers
Answer:
They need to check and see if she is pregnant or see if thier is a tumor on the ovaries
Explanation:
This can be caused with a miscarriage or a tumor, the tumor can put pressure on the ovaries causing bad pains and bleeds. Hope this helps!
The medical assistant should first check the patient's vital signs, particularly her pulse and breathing, and call for emergency medical assistance if necessary.
In this situation, the medical assistant should take the following immediate actions:
Check Vital Signs: The medical assistant should quickly approach the patient and check her vital signs, starting with her pulse and breathing. This will help determine if the patient is conscious, breathing adequately, and has a stable heart rate.
Call for Emergency Assistance: If the patient is unresponsive or has an unstable vital sign, such as no pulse or difficulty breathing, the medical assistant should call for emergency medical assistance immediately by dialing emergency services or asking a colleague to call for help.
Position the Patient: If the patient is unconscious but breathing, the medical assistant should carefully position her on her back and ensure that her airway is clear and unobstructed.
Provide Comfort and Reassurance: While waiting for emergency medical help, the medical assistant should provide comfort and reassurance to the patient and any other individuals present in the vicinity.
Gather Information: If possible, the medical assistant should gather relevant information about the patient's medical history and the reason for her visit to share with the emergency medical responders.
It is crucial for the medical assistant to remain calm and act swiftly in this situation. The patient's fainting episode could be due to various underlying medical conditions, and prompt action is essential to ensure her safety and well-being. Calling for emergency medical assistance if necessary will ensure that the patient receives appropriate medical care and evaluation by healthcare professionals who can determine the cause of her fainting episode and address her concerns about frequent vaginal bleeding.
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please help me I am stuck
Answers
Answer:
D looks fine
Explanation:
10
51:27
Advancements in technology include the development of new or better processes, techniques, equipment, and
systems. Which is a technological advance involving geneticists?
alteration of DNA to control crop development
creation of vaccinations for diseases, such as polio
invention of diagnostic imaging equipment
establishment of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
Answers
These technologies function similarly to scissors, cutting the DNA at a specified location. The DNA can then be removed, added to, or replaced where it was cut.
what is the history of genome editing ?
In the late 1900s, the first genome editing tools were created. CRISPR, a revolutionary genome editing technique created in 2009, has made it easier than ever to modify DNA. CRISPR is easier, quicker, less expensive, and more accurate than previous genome editing technologies. CRISPR is being used by many scientists that do genome editing.
Scientists can use genome editing technology to modify DNA, resulting in changes in physical features such as eye colour and illness risk. Scientists employ several tools to do this. These technologies function similarly to scissors, cutting the DNA at a specified location. The DNA can then be removed, added to, or replaced where it was cut.
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Chen is trying to determine why he usually skips breakfast. He writes the following notes in his journal:
I have several healthy foods available.
I wake up well before I have to leave in the morning.
My parents rarely eat breakfast.
My doctor says breakfast provides the energy I need to start the day right.
Which item from his notes is most likely the reason Chen skips breakfast?
I have several healthy foods available.
I wake up well before I have to leave in the morning.
My parents rarely eat breakfast.
My doctor says breakfast provides the energy I need to start the day right.
Answers
Answer:
Im pretty sure the answer is C
Based on the given notes, the most likely reason Chen skips breakfast is that his parents rarely eat breakfast.
Based on the notes provided, it is impossible to determine why Chen skips breakfast.
The fact that his parents rarely eat breakfast, on the other hand, may indicate that he has not developed a habit of eating breakfast due to a lack of parental influence.
Furthermore, Chen's doctor's recommendation for breakfast suggests that he is aware of the benefits of eating breakfast but may not prioritise it for other reasons.
Thus, "My parents rarely eat breakfast." is the answer.
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A nurse is planning care for a client who has multiple wounds. During the initial stage of woundhealing. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Answers
A nurse who is planning care for a client who happens to have a multiple wounds. Then, during the initial stage of wound healing, the nurse should apply oxygen at 2 L/min through nasal cannula.
The correct option is option d.
A casualty can have multiple wounds as a result of an accident or any other harm. After an acute injury, the body is able to respond best by increasing the oxygen in order to improve perfusion, which is very crucial in the process of healing.
It is very common to observe a delay in the resolution of inflammatory phase of the chronic wounds in the clients who have a deficiency of oxygen or have a poor perfusion. Enough amount of oxygen can be provided to the client by applying oxygen at 2 L/min using a nasal cannula.
--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"A nurse is planning care for a client who has multiple wounds. During the initial stage of wound healing, which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?
a. Leave nonbleeding wounds open to the air.
b. Administer a corticosteroid medication.
c. Initiate mechanical debridement.
d. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula"--
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a client has a radical neck dissection to treat cancer of the neck. the nurse develops the care plan and includes all the following diagnoses. the nurse identifies the highest priority diagnosis as
Answers
A client has a radical neck dissection to treat cancer of the neck and the nurse develops the care plan with the highest priority diagnosis as ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by mucus.
Radical neck dissection is when all the tissue on the aspect of the neck from the jawbone to the bone is removed. The muscle, nerve, duct gland, and major vessel during this space are all removed. changed radical neck dissection. this can be the foremost common kind of neck dissection.
Mucus is a common temporary nasal obstruction. It will accumulate within the sinus cavities and result in nasal congestion and shrunken air flow. Generally, nasal obstructions caused by mucous secretion are temporary and can flee on their own with time.
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Dr. Swartz, a general practitioner, is usually late for all his appointments, and patients have to wait for hours to see him. At present, he has open office hours. He wants to shorten the waiting time but still be assured that he has patients to see throughout the day. Why do you think that patients would prefer appointments? Why not?
Answers
rh incompatibility is a concern when an rh-positive woman is pregnant.a. trueb. false
Answers
It is FALSE that Rh incompatibility is a concern when an Rh-positive woman is pregnant.
When a mother who is Rh-negative is carrying a Rh-positive child, the condition known as Rh incompatibility can develop. The mother's immune system may create antibodies against the baby's Rh-positive red blood cells if the mother's blood becomes exposed to the baby's Rh-positive blood. In severe situations, this might result in hemolytic illness of the infant, a disorder that can cause anaemia, jaundice, brain damage, and even death. Rh-negative moms are frequently injected with Rh immunoglobulin during pregnancy to stop the formation of Rh antibodies in order to avoid this.
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Romans developed surgical tools such as scalpels and retractors. Which of the following career fields evolved around the development of these devices?
A: Genetic medicine
B: Medical sales representative
C: Medical instrument engineering
D: Biochemistry
E: Pharmacy
Answers
The career that evolved for the development of these tools was medical instrument engineering (Option C). This field allows the development of different medical devices.
Medical instrument engineeringMedical instrument engineering refers to the techniques and strategies aimed at developing new tools in medicine.
Currently, this field (medical instrument engineering) is aimed at designing, developing and repairing electronic medical devices and medical tools.
The devices can be used for improving the overall health of patients in clinical settings, as well as for developing new medical strategies.
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memory t cells targeting oncogenic mutations detected in peripheral blood of epithelial cancer patients. t/f
Answers
The statement "memory T cells targeting oncogenic mutations detected in peripheral blood of epithelial cancer patients" is true. Memory T cells are a type of immune cell that are capable of "remembering" previous encounters with specific pathogens or antigens. They play a crucial role in the immune response against infections and cancer.
In the context of epithelial cancer, which includes various types of cancers that arise from the epithelial tissues (such as lung, breast, or colon cancer), memory T cells can recognize and target oncogenic mutations. Oncogenic mutations are genetic alterations that can lead to the development and progression of cancer.
The detection of memory T cells targeting oncogenic mutations in the peripheral blood of epithelial cancer patients indicates that these immune cells are actively involved in recognizing and attacking cancer cells carrying these mutations. This finding is significant because it suggests that the immune system can mount an immune response against cancer-specific mutations, potentially providing a basis for developing immunotherapies or personalized cancer treatments.
It is important to note that the detection of memory T cells targeting oncogenic mutations in peripheral blood does not necessarily indicate successful cancer eradication or guarantee a positive clinical outcome. However, it does provide valuable insights into the role of the immune system in cancer surveillance and may have implications for the development of future immunotherapeutic strategies.
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Mr. Jackson was admitted after
suffering a stroke. He has right side
hemiparesis and needs help rolling over
in bed. He is also incontinent of urine.
He is a most risk for developing
Answers
Mr. Jackson, who was admitted after suffering a stroke, is at most risk for developing pressure ulcers.
What is the pressure ulcers?Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, are sores that develop on the skin when it is not properly cared for. They are most common in people who are bedridden or who have limited mobility.
Mr. Jackson is at risk for developing pressure ulcers because he has right side hemiparesis, which means that he has weakness on the right side of his body. This makes it difficult for him to move around and change positions in bed, which can lead to pressure ulcers.
Mr. Jackson is also incontinent of urine, which means that he cannot control his bladder. This can also increase his risk for developing pressure ulcers, as urine can irritate the skin and make it more susceptible to breakdown.
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the association between night shift work and nutrition patterns among nurses: a literature review.
Answers
The relationship between night workers' eating habits and diet quality is that it has an temporal brain side impact on how food is distributed in time.
The night laborer's must remain up the entire night if we are talking about them. This explains why we would expect to see a variety of eating patterns in them. Their daily schedule differs from that of typical day workers as well.
Typically, their shift ends at six in the morning. They would then go to bed for a sound sleep or would get ready, eat a little meal, and then take a siesta. Additionally, their bedtimes varied. As a result, food is ingested at the wrong time.
Our digestion process will change if food is ingested slowly and takes longer than usual. Only in the afternoon will heavier foods be a part of their diet. Some people follow a diet that involves eating until their stomachs are empty both during the day and at night.
They will have different nutritional habits since they will eat more carbohydrates. Others consume a diet that includes fibre, proteins, and carbohydrates.
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"Health reform has leveraged Medicaid for a significant part of the expansion. Is this good public policy? Why or why not?"
Answers
Answer:
Yes it’s a good policy
Explanation:
Medicaid is an insurance program which has additional healthcare services such as home care. Medicaid is run by private insurance companies to ensure the common man has access to basic health care.
Health reform leveraging on Medicaid for a significant part of the expansion will help to provide more affordable healthcare services to the citizens.
Explain the positive and negative aspects of the living arrangements for the elderly listed below. Be sure to thoroughly evaluate each option. Living in own home Living with their children Assisted living facility Nursing home with intermediate care Nursing home with skilled nursing care and make recommendations for healthy and disabled elderly
Answers
Answer:
See explanation below
Explanation:
Living arrangements for the elderly refers to the composition and organization of the living environment of elderly people.
There are various kinds of living arrangements available for the elderly and they are:
1.) Living in own home: This is a preferred option for most elderly people. It involves them living in their own homes with occasional assistance. The positive side to this is that they maintain and enjoy the comfort of their homes and also the sense of independence that comes with it. The negative aspect is the cost of having a paid caregiver and the constant support from family and friend. Living in own homes can also have mental effects on them - they may lonely and start overthinking.
2.) Living with Children: Elderly ones that have good relationships with their children are advised to live with them. It is a very good economic decision because the cost of having and maintaining a different house and catering for a cared giver will be eliminated. There is also the advantage of companionship and reduced stress because family is around to help. The negative side to this is the tightness of the house for families with small houses.
3.) Assisted Living Facility: This is a facility that offers personal care services to the elderly such as: transportation, meals, bathing and dressing. It is like a community with active adults who need personal care services. The positive side to this is the feeling of having a community, the daily activities that keep them occupied. The major negative side is the cost of living in an assisted living facility. Another is the loss of flexibility and privacy.
4.) Nursing Home with Intermediate Care: This is very similar to the Nursing Home with skilled nursing cares. It is usually regarded as a lower level skilled nursing care facility. The difference is that residents of an intermediate care facility require less assistance with their daily lives. 8 hourly supervision is enough for a day. The advantages and disadvantages are also the same with the skilled nursing care facility.
5.) Nursing Home with Skilled Nursing Care: This is a facility licensed to offer personal as well as medical services. They are usually a 24-hour care facility with nurses and licensed medical professionals around. The downside to this kind of facility is the unsatisfaction because the facility may be understaffed and there may be so many people that need to be attended to. And also the cost of both personal and medical services.
RECOMMENDATIONS
There are things to consider in choosing a living arrangement for elderly ones. They include: financial budget, medical. physical and emotional needs. It is also important to speak with a doctor first.
Healthy Elders are healthy and have no issues and can live in their own homes may opt to hire caregivers if they want
Disabled Elders should register in assisted living facilities where they have access to enough personal care services.
what is hygiene in medical term
Answers
Answer:
Hygiene: The science of preventive medicine and the preservation of health. Also commonly used as a euphemism for cleanliness and proper sanitation.
Explanation:
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What is the complication of chronic granulomatous disease?
Answers
The complication of chronic granulomatous disease is recurrent bacterial and fungal infections.
Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) is a genetic disorder that affects the immune system's ability to fight off bacterial and fungal infections. People with CGD have a defect in certain immune system cells called phagocytes, which are responsible for killing harmful bacteria and fungi. As a result, these individuals are more susceptible to infections, particularly of the skin, lungs, and digestive tract.
The recurring nature of these infections is the main complication of CGD. Despite treatment with antibiotics and antifungal medications, infections often return and can become chronic. In addition, people with CGD may develop abscesses and granulomas (small, firm, raised areas of inflammation) in various parts of the body, such as the skin, liver, and lymph nodes.
In summary, the complication of chronic granulomatous disease is a high risk for recurrent bacterial and fungal infections, leading to chronic infections, abscesses, and granulomas.
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Traction splints are used primarily to immobilize and secure fractures of the: Femur. Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood
Answers
Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to 1000 mL of internal blood
What is meant by Femoral shaft?The femoral shaft is the name given to the long, straight portion of the femur. A femoral shaft fracture occurs when any point along this length of bone breaks. Almost always, this kind of fractured limb needs surgery to recover. The femoral shaft extends from the area below the hip to the knee, when the bone starts to expand.
The femoral shaft extends from the area below the hip to the knee, when the bone starts to expand.
Patients are typically advised not to put any weight on the leg for about 8 weeks if the femur fracture does not require surgery and is instead treated with a cast or removable brace.
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