The false statement concerning the exchange of fluids and solutes between capillaries and the tissues is (a) oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, plasma.
Capillaries exchange oxygen, carbon dioxide, and small solutes such as glucose and waste products between blood and tissues. Nitrogen is not actively exchanged between capillaries and tissues. Plasma, which is the liquid component of blood, does not pass through the capillary walls. It remains within the blood vessels and helps maintain the proper volume and composition of the blood. Therefore, the statement (a) is false because nitrogen and plasma are not exchanged between capillaries and tissues. The false statement concerning the exchange of fluids and solutes between capillaries and the tissues is (a) oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, plasma.
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what does the fourth character of an icd 10 cm diagnosis code capture
The fourth character of an ICD-10-CM diagnosis code captures additional details about the diagnosis, such as the etiology, anatomical location, severity, or other specific characteristics.
The fourth character of an ICD-10-CM diagnosis code is known as the "severity" character. It is used to provide additional information about the diagnosis beyond what is captured in the first three characters. This character allows for further specification of the condition, including details such as anatomical location, etiology (cause or origin), severity, and other specific characteristics.
By including this level of detail, the fourth character helps healthcare providers to accurately document and classify diagnoses, aiding in effective communication, research, and billing. The fourth character is an essential component of ICD-10-CM coding, ensuring comprehensive and precise representation of a patient's diagnosis.
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Describe how to calculate the Rf value for a spot on a TLC plate.
Answer:
In thin-layer chromatography, the retention factor (Rf) is used to compare and help identify compounds. The Rf value of a compound is equal to the distance traveled by the compound divided by the distance traveled by the solvent front (both measured from the origin).
Explanation:
learned about it in school
Prescription Terminology
Explaining Prescription Abbreviations
Why are abbreviations used in prescriptions? Check all that apply.
a. to prevent patients from understanding the directions
b. to prevent a consistent meaning for terms
c. to save time in writing prescriptions
d. to save time in reading prescriptions
e. to save patients time using prescriptions
Answer:
B. To prevent a consistent meaning for terms
C. To save time in writing prescriptions
D. To save in reading prescriptions
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Congenital Galactosemia typically appears only in infants because with maturation, most children develop another enzyme capable of metabolizing galactose. Its incidence is about 1 per 18,000 births. If the infant does not receive treatment then there is a 75% chance of death. Thus, in the United States infants are screened for galactosemia. Galactosemia can be confused with lactose intolerance but galactosemia is a considerably more serious condition because consumption of galactose can cause permanent damage to their bodies. What dietary changes should be made
Answer: The dietary changes that should be made is that milk and milk containing products should be avoided in diets.
Explanation:
Congenital Galactosemia is an autosomal recessive disorder due to galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase(Gal-1-PUT).
Galactose is necessary for the formation of cerebrosides, of some glycoproteins and , during lactation, of milk. Excess is rapidly converted into glucose by Gal-1-PUT. The symptoms of galactosemia only become apparent if the infant is taking milk or milk containing products. This will lead to a rise in plasma galactose concentration.
Its incidence is about 1 per 18,000 births. Since it's a condition that occurs at or before birth, infants are screened by identification of galactose with thin layer chromatography and by demonstrating a deficiency of Gal-1-PUT activity in erythrocytes.
If the infant does not receive treatment then there is a 75% chance of death. Therefore, dietary changes should be made which is that milk and milk containing products should be avoided in diets.
A patient comes to see a provider complaining of left calf and ankle pain. You note a general edema and redness of the left
calf and ankle. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A.an ulcer
B. serous exudate
C. cellulitis
D. sinus
Choose the correct answer regarding utilization of triglycerides for energy.
Question 7 options:
A-Triclycerides must go through glycogenolysis to hydrolyze into glycogen and fatty acids
B- Beta oxidation is required in the mitochondria to transform the fatty acids to acetyl-CoA
C- The breakdown of fat is less efficient than CHO therefore fewer ATP are generated from fat catabolism for energy
D- Skeletal muscle is only able to utilize fat stored within the muscle to produce energy while all other body cells are able to utilize fat from adipose cells
Choose the correct answer regarding utilization of triglycerides for energy.
Question 7 options:
A-Triclycerides must go through glycogenolysis to hydrolyze into glycogen and fatty acids
B- Beta oxidation is required in the mitochondria to transform the fatty acids to acetyl-CoA
C- The breakdown of fat is less efficient than CHO therefore fewer ATP are generated from fat catabolism for energy
D- Skeletal muscle is only able to utilize fat stored within the muscle to produce energy while all other body cells are able to utilize fat from adipose cells
The correct option regarding utilization of triglycerides for energy are: Triglycerides must go through glycogenolysis to hydrolyze into glycogen and fatty acids. Thus, the correct options are A, B, C, and D.
What are triglycerides?A triglyceride is an ester derived compound from glycerol and three fatty acid molecules. Triglycerides are the main constituents of the body fat in humans and other vertebrates, as well as the vegetable fat.
Triglycerides must go through the glycogenolysis to hydrolyze into glycogen molecule and fatty acid molecules. Beta oxidation is required in the mitochondria to transform the fatty acid molecules to acetyl-CoA molecules. The breakdown of fat is less efficient than that of CHO therefore, fewer ATP molecules are generated from the fat catabolism for energy. Skeletal muscle is only able to utilize fat which is stored within the muscle to produce energy while all the other body cells are able to utilize fat from the adipose cells.
Therefore, the correct options are A, B, C, and D.
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a 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. she is conscious and alert, but anxious. her blood pressure is 144/84 mm hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. she took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. you should: a. recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects. b. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. c. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. d. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.
You should keep in mind that older people frequently have slower absorption and excretion rates, which may call for adjusting a drug's dosage. Therefore, choice A is the right response.
Because they may be dealing with many illnesses or other health issues concurrently, adults 65 and older typically take more medications than adults in any other age group. For people who are confined to their homes or reside in remote places, managing various prescriptions can be costly, time-consuming, and challenging.
The existence of a concomitant condition, which is typical in the elderly, can also impact renal function. Older patients may need lower or less frequent dosages due to reduced medication clearance caused by decreased renal function.
We can therefore draw the conclusion that You should be aware of the fact that older individuals typically have slower rates of absorption and excretion, which may necessitate changing a drug's dosage.
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how high is the chance of getting pregnant with straight parents
Answer:
You tell me...
Explanation:
Answer:
30 percent get pregnant within the first cycle (about one month). 60 percent get pregnant within three cycles (about three months). 80 percent get pregnant within six cycles (about six months). 85 percent get pregnant within 12 cycles (about one year).
the fact that 6-month-olds will look for long periods of time at toys they previously had only been able to touch suggests that infants
The fact that 6-month-olds will look for long periods of time at toys they previously had only been able to touch suggests that infants have developed object permanence.
Which is the understanding that objects still exist even when they are out of sight. This cognitive milestone is an important part of infant development and sets the stage for more complex cognitive processes such as problem-solving and spatial reasoning. The fact that 6-month-olds will look for long periods of time at toys they previously had only been able to touch suggests that infants are developing object permanence and are integrating their sensory experiences. This demonstrates their cognitive growth and ability to recognize and remember objects through different sensory inputs.
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serious medical complications of purging can include a. erosion of dental enamel b. electrolyte imbalance c. colon damage d. all of the above
Dehydration may result from frequent purging. Extreme exhaustion and weak muscles are the results of this. Additionally, it might stress your heart and upset the equilibrium of your electrolytes.
What is Purging?
In order to affect body weight or "make up for" absorbing calories, it alludes to the act of compensating for or expelling food intake. Purging can also result from overexertion, the improper use of laxatives, diet medications, and diuretics, as well as self-inflicted vomiting.
This may result in an irregular heartbeat (arrhythmia), and in more extreme circumstances, a weakened heart muscle and cardiac failure. Purging can also cause erosion of dental enamel due to the repeated induced vomiting. Purging can also cause colon damage because of the severe usage of laxatives.
Therefore, the correct option is D
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Blockage of the flow of bile into the duodenum interferes with the digestion of which of the following?
a. carbohydrates only
b. lipids only
c. proteins only
d. carbohydrates and lipids only
e. carbohydrates and proteins only
Blockage of the flow of bile into the duodenum interferes with the digestion of lipids only (b).
Bile, produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, plays a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of dietary fats (lipids). When we consume a meal that contains fats, bile is released into the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine) to aid in the digestion process.
Bile contains bile salts, which help emulsify fats by breaking them down into smaller droplets. This emulsification process increases the surface area of the fat molecules, allowing pancreatic lipase (an enzyme) to efficiently break them down into fatty acids and glycerol.
If there is a blockage in the flow of bile into the duodenum, such as in cases of gallstones or a blockage in the bile duct, the digestion of lipids becomes compromised. Without sufficient bile, the emulsification of fats is impaired, making it difficult for pancreatic lipase to access and break down the fat molecules effectively. As a result, the digestion and absorption of lipids are hindered, leading to potential malabsorption and related digestive issues. The digestion of carbohydrates and proteins, on the other hand, is not directly dependent on the presence of bile and would not be significantly affected by the blockage.
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DNA is the material within the chromosomes that encodes the genes that are located at specific sites on the chromosome. The DNA carries all of the genetic information necessary for cellular functions. Discuss what you know about DNA and genes?
According to the research, the correct option is that all cells in an organism have the same set of genes, but DNA houses the data for protein synthesis in each cell.
What are DNA and genes?Genes refers to the chain of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), a structure that is constituted as a functional unit in charge of the transfer of hereditary traits.
In other words, genes are a series of nucleotides that store the information required to synthesize a macromolecule that has a specific cellular role, and this DNA sequence is essential to ensure that functional RNA can be synthesized.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is that all cells in an organism have the same set of genes, but DNA houses the data for protein synthesis in each cell.
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State the difference between immunoglobulin and immunogin in a tabular form
The quantity of immunoglobulins in your blood is determined by this test. Antibodies are another name for immunoglobulins. Immune system produces antibodies, which are proteins, to combat pathogens like viruses and bacteria.
What are Immunoglobins?
Three primary immunoglobulin (Ig) antibody types that serve diverse functions to safeguard your health are often measured by an immunoglobulins test.
An immunogen is any substance that, when exposed to a host organism, causes B-cell (humoral/antibody) and/or T-cell (cellular) adaptive immune responses. Antigens are immune-stimulating agents that produce antibodies ("antibody-generating").
After being processed and presented by host antigen-presenting cells, immunogens that stimulate T-cell production are indirectly bound by host T-cells.
Therefore, The quantity of immunoglobulins in your blood is determined by this test. Antibodies are another name for immunoglobulins. Immune system produces antibodies, which are proteins, to combat pathogens like viruses and bacteria.
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Q3) Which description most accurately defines EEG frequency and amplitude?
O Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz) and is defined as the number of times a wave oscillates per second. The
amplitude is the time of the waveform measured from 0 seconds. Amplitude is measured in macro-volts (UV).
O Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz) and is defined as the number of times a wave peaks per second.
Frequency is also known as a measure of EEG power. The amplitude is the height or peak measurement of the
cycle measured from time 0 seconds. Amplitude is measured in macro-volts (uV) and reflects EEG control.
O Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz) and is defined as the number of times a wave peaks per second. The
amplitude is the circumference of the waveform as measured from the baseline. Amplitude is measured in
micro-volts (UV) and typically divided into alpha, beta, gamma and theta.
O Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz) and is defined as the number of times a wave peaks per second. The
amplitude is the height or peak measurement of the cycle as measured from the baseline. Amplitude is
measured in micro-volts (UV) and also known as power.
O All of the above
Answer:
O. Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz) and is defined as the number of times a wave peaks per second. Frequency is also known as a measure of EEG power.
The amplitude is the height or peak measurement of the cycle measured from time 0 seconds. Amplitude is measured in macro-volts (uV) and reflects EEG control.
Explanation:
EEG frequency is a term commonly used in the medical field to measure the pulse rat of the brain as well as to diagonise epilepsy. This could be found through the abnomalities in the EEG readings when taken.
O. Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz) and is defined as the number of times a wave peaks per second. Frequency is also known as a measure of EEG power whereas the amplitude is the height measurement of the cycle measured from time 0 seconds. Amplitude is measured in macro-volts (uV) and reflects EEG control.
The electroencephalogram (EEG) is the representation of the electrical activity occurring at the surface of the brain. Frequency is a main characteristic that is used to define normal or abnormal EEG rhythms. Amplitude is measured in macro-volts (uV) and reflects EEG control.
While on the other hand, he amplitude of the EEG pattern is the strength of the pattern represented in microvolts of electrical energy. The amplitude of the EEG increases as the frequency decreases so we can conclude that frequency is measured in hertz whereas amplitude is measured in macro-volt.
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witch of the fallowing is an advantige of synthetic fiber rope
Answer:
It's safer, lighter, faster and easier.
Explanation:
Candidate genes for the inherited components of mood disorders affect _____________________ .
Candidate genes for the inherited components of mood disorders affect "various aspects of the disorder".
These genes play a role in influencing the risk and development of mood disorders such as depression and bipolar disorder. They can affect neurotransmitter systems, such as serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine, which are involved in mood regulation.
Additionally, candidate genes can impact the functioning of brain regions associated with mood, such as the prefrontal cortex and amygdala. Furthermore, these genes can influence the response to stress and the regulation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis, which is involved in the body's stress response.
In summary, candidate genes for mood disorders affect neurotransmitter systems, brain regions, stress response, and the HPA axis.
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yolanda has been having bouts of tension headaches. her physician has not found any medicine that prevents future attacks. which option is most likely to be effective in treating tension headaches?
Answer:
According to Dr. Merle Diamond, “stress relievers such as exercise, relaxation techniques, and biofeedback are often effective in preventing tension headaches.” Additionally, Dr. Neil Kline suggests that “regular sleep patterns, stress reduction, and maintaining hydration” can also help prevent tension headaches. Therefore, non-pharmacological interventions such as stress reduction techniques, regular exercise, and maintaining healthy sleep habits may be the best approach for treating tension headaches when medication is not effective.
The most likely option to be effective in treating tension headaches among the choices provided is B) biofeedback.
Biofeedback is a non-invasive technique that involves using electronic devices to measure and provide information about physiological processes in the body, such as muscle tension, skin temperature, heart rate, and blood pressure. By providing real-time feedback about these physiological responses, biofeedback can help individuals become more aware of their body's reactions and learn to control them.
Biofeedback is a specific therapeutic technique that directly targets the physiological component of tension headaches by helping individuals learn to control their muscle tension, making it the most likely option to be effective in treating tension headaches. It's important to note that treatment for tension headaches should be tailored to the individual's specific condition and medical history, and consulting with a healthcare provider is recommended for appropriate diagnosis and treatment planning.
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The complete question is:
Yolanda has been having bouts of tension headaches. Her physician has not found any medicine that prevents future attacks. Which of the following is most likely to be effective in treating tension headaches?
A) emotion-focused coping
B) biofeedback
C) perceived control
D) depression and anxiety
Which drug will most likely cause the client's eyelids to itch and eyes to burn as side effects?A. Ketorolac B. Ofloxacin C. Diclofenac D. Vidarabine
Answer:
A Ketorolac
Explanation:
the primary role of fluoride is to prevent dental caries throughout life t/f
True the primary role of fluoride is to prevent dental caries throughout life
The primary role of fluoride is to prevent dental caries or cavities throughout life. Fluoride helps to strengthen the tooth enamel, making it more resistant to acid attacks from bacteria in the mouth. It also helps to reverse early stages of tooth decay. Fluoride can be found in many sources such as toothpaste, mouthwash, and community water fluoridation.
Fluoride is a naturally occurring mineral that is found in soil, water, and certain foods. It has been shown to be effective in preventing dental caries or cavities, which is why it is commonly added to toothpaste, mouthwash, and even community water supplies. Fluoride works by strengthening the tooth enamel, making it less susceptible to decay. It can also reverse the early stages of tooth decay, known as demineralization. Regular use of fluoride-containing products, along with good oral hygiene practices, can help to prevent tooth decay and maintain good dental health throughout life.
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een LOUIS
W18. Most health care provider orders are good for one
Answer:
what?
Explanation:
I dont understand
what are the structures of nitrogenous Bases
Answer:
Nitrogenous bases are cyclic, organic molecules that contain a carbon-nitrogen ring structure and act as a Lewis base. Nitrogenous bases are an important part of the genetic material of the cell, DNA and RNA. There are two types of nitrogenous bases, purines with two rings, and pyrimidines with one ring.
people tend to pattern their behavior on the perceived expectations of others, which is a form of a self-fulfilling prophecy.
People indeed tend to pattern their behavior based on the perceived expectations of others. A self-fulfilling prophecy refers to a belief or expectation that influences individuals' behavior in a way that ultimately confirms the initial belief or expectation.
When individuals perceive certain expectations from others, they internalize those expectations and may adjust their behavior accordingly. This adjustment can result in actions and choices that align with the perceived expectations, leading to outcomes that reinforce the original belief or expectation.
For example, if someone is told they are not good at public speaking and they internalize this belief, they may approach public speaking situations with anxiety and lack of confidence. This behavior can hinder their performance, thereby confirming the initial belief of not being good at public speaking.
On the other hand, positive expectations from others can also shape behavior in a self-fulfilling manner. If someone is consistently praised for their creativity, they may develop a strong belief in their creative abilities, leading them to actively seek creative opportunities and perform well in creative endeavors.
Understanding the impact of perceived expectations is crucial as it highlights the power of social influence and the potential for individuals to fulfill or defy expectations placed upon them. It emphasizes the need for positive and supportive environments that promote growth, as well as the importance of challenging negative beliefs to break the cycle of self-fulfilling prophecies.
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the physician has prescribed a thiazide diuretic for a client. the nurse anticipates that the medication will:
A thiazide diuretic has been prescribed by the doctor for a patient. The drug is expected to prevent salt from being reabsorption in the tubules, according to the nurse.
When taking diuretics, what should you avoid?They'll probably advise you to consume less salt and adhere to a low-sodium diet while taking diuretics. You may need to consume additional foods like bananas, sweet potatoes, spinach, and lentils or take a potassium supplement because some diuretics also remove potassium from your body.
What risks are associated with using diuretics?It should come as no surprise that frequent urination is one of the negative effects of water pills that is most frequently seen. Muscle cramps, weariness, gastrointestinal disturbances, and lightheadedness are further potential adverse effects. Occasionally, erectile dysfunction can affect men.
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4. Your dentist has a habit of "getting behind" with patients. You have worked with this dentist for 12 years, and you know
exactly what steps are taken for every procedure. Because he is behind schedule, the dentist asks you to go ahead and take
the final impression while he sees the next patient. He notes that by the time you get the tray in, he will be in the room to
take the impression out. Do you feel confident in following through? What do you think about this request by the dentist?
LATI
Answer and Explanation:
I would feel confident in completing the procedure because I have been working on these procedures for twelve years, as shown in the text above. These twelve years created a great experience and that experience would give me confidence. In addition, the presence of the dentist, watching what I do, would give me more security, as I know he would interfere if I started doing something wrong and would help me with any doubts I had.
I think the dentist's request was made to assess my knowledge and see how resourceful I was in completing a task on my own. Probably, the dentist is testing my knowledge and plans to give me greater activities within the work, which will enhance my knowledge and my professionalism.
1. HOW DO YOU SHOW RELIABILITY IN YOUR DEALINGS WITH YOUR INTERNAL CUSTOMER?
example: • Co-workers (Assistants) or Supervising Pharmacists
Answer:
Set clear expectations. Always keep customers informed on progress. Get to know your teammates. Try your best to make the easiest understandings and expectations.
Explanation:
i had to look this up but i tried to summarize it for you. hope it helps!!
An infant with a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as ______ of blood is lost. Group of answer choices
An infant with a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as 80 mL of blood is lost. This represents a loss of 10% of their total blood volume, which is a significant amount for an infant and can result in symptoms such as rapid heart rate, low blood pressure, and poor perfusion.
It is important to seek medical attention immediately if an infant is showing signs of shock, as it can quickly become a life-threatening condition.A condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to maintain normal cellular functions; also called shock hypoperfusion. A condition in which low blood volume, due to massive internal or external bleeding or extensive loss of body water, results in inadequate perfusion hypovolemic shock.
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medical prescription: aminophylline 50 mg orally 8/8 hours. available: 5% aminophylline solution - 50ml bottles. how many ml should be given?
Answer:
To calculate how many mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given, we need to use the formula:
(amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available = volume of medication to be administered
Using this formula, we can calculate the volume of the aminophylline solution to be given as follows:
(amount of medication needed) = 50 mg (concentration of medication available) = 5% (volume of medication available) = 50 mL
First, we need to convert 50 mg to grams by dividing by 1000:
50 mg / 1000 = 0.05 g
Next, we need to calculate the amount of aminophylline solution required. We can do this by rearranging the formula as follows:
(volume of medication to be administered) = (amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available
(volume of medication to be administered) = (0.05 g / 0.05 g/mL) x 1 mL
(volume of medication to be administered) = 1 mL
Therefore, to administer 50 mg of aminophylline orally every 8 hours, 1 mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given.
Explanation:
When should the emt most likely expect to hear wheezes in a patient complaining of shortness of breath secondary to an asthma attack?
Answer:
while breathing out
Explanation:
FILL IN THE BLANK. in 1993, Purdue Pharmaceuticals of Stamford, Conn. applied for the first in a series of patents on Oxycontin, a painkiller. The U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (PTO) granted those patents based on the manufacturer's contention that the drug contained a novel innovation: It had been engineered so that only a very small dose was required for the drug to be effective for 90 percent of patients. Seven years later, a generic drug maker, Endo Pharmaceuticals, applied to the FDA for permission to sell its own, lower-priced version of Oxycontin. Purdue's patents acted as a(n) ____________________ and prevented Endo from entering the market.
Seven years later, a generic drug maker, Endo Pharmaceuticals, applied to the FDA for permission to sell its own, lower-priced version of Oxycontin, Purdue's patents acted as a barrier to entry and prevented Endo from entering the market as presented in Option A.
What are patents?Patents can be a type of barrier to entry because they provide a legal monopoly to the patent holder, and in the case of Purdue Pharmaceuticals' Oxycontin, the company had obtained a series of patents for the drug, and the patents acted as a barrier to entry for other firms, such as Endo Pharmaceuticals.
Hence, Purdue's patents acted as a barrier to entry and prevented Endo from entering the market, as presented in Option A.
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The question is incomplete, complete question is below
FILL IN THE BLANK. in 1993, Purdue Pharmaceuticals of Stamford, Conn. applied for the first in a series of patents on Oxycontin, a painkiller. The U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (PTO) granted those patents based on the manufacturer's contention that the drug contained a novel innovation: It had been engineered so that only a very small dose was required for the drug to be effective for 90 percent of patients. Seven years later, a generic drug maker, Endo Pharmaceuticals, applied to the FDA for permission to sell its own, lower-priced version of Oxycontin. Purdue's patents acted as a(n) ____________________ and prevented Endo from entering the
A) barrier to entry
B)facilitates entry
C)help the entry
Which one of the following is not a true principle of dressing and bandaging?
A) Ask the victim how the bandages feel; if it's too tight, loosen it, and make it comfortable but snug
B) Bandages should not be too loose; neither dressing nor the bandage should shift or slip.
C) The original dressing should be removed and replaced if blood soaks through.
The original dressing should be removed and replaced if blood soaks through is not a true principle of dressing and bandaging. The correct answer is option C).
Options A and B are true principles of dressing and bandaging as they emphasize the importance of ensuring the bandage is snug but not too tight or loose to prevent further injury. However, option C is not a true principle as removing the original dressing and replacing it if blood soaks through can cause further trauma and delay the healing process.
It is recommended to reinforce the existing dressing with additional bandages or apply pressure to the affected area to control bleeding. Only a medical professional should remove and replace a dressing if necessary.
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