Which are responsibilities of public health agencies such as the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

- to protect the health of communities

- to conduct research to improve the treatment of diseases

- to prevent disease, illness, and injuries

- to detect outbreaks of disease and oversee a response to them


Related Questions

you are called to a nursing home for an​ 85-year-old patient complaining of abdominal pain. the patient has a history of dementia and cannot describe the pain to you. the nurse states the patient has been vomiting for about an​ hour, and the vomit looks like dark coffee grounds. his blood pressure is​ 90/40, pulse​ 100, and respiratory rate of 24. in what position should you transport the​ patient?

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Given the 85-year-old patient's complaint of abdominal pain, vomiting with dark coffee ground-like appearance, and vital signs indicating potential hypotension and tachycardia, the nurse should transport the patient in a semi-Fowler's or upright sitting position to alleviate discomfort and reduce the risk of aspiration.

Transporting the patient in a semi-Fowler's or upright sitting position helps promote better respiratory function by allowing the diaphragm to move freely, aiding in breathing. This position can also prevent complications associated with lying flat, such as decreased blood pressure and increased risk of aspiration. By maintaining an upright position, the patient's comfort and safety are prioritized during transportation. It is essential to consider the patient's specific medical condition, including the history of dementia and inability to describe pain, while ensuring appropriate positioning for their well-being.

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Mart Beth's sense of belonging and trust have been shaken since her second divorce. She is most often late for appointments and is very impulsive. What is Mary Beth's focus?

Answers

Answer:

Present time focus

Explanation:

Present-focused people are the people who are well known and focused on current life situations. They regularly find the activities, and relationship to get pleasures.

They have strong believe that if they involved in activities that give them spontaneous gratification, temporary payoffs.

So, The basic difference between the present and past focused people is that the past focused people are always thinking about their condition and experiences of the past.

Why aren’t the three rRNA genes of corn one another’s closest relatives?
A. Because corn is a hybrid of yeast, cyanobacteria, and E. coli
B. Endosymbiosis in the ancestor of corn gave it the ability to photosynthesize and respire
C. Endosymbiosis in the ancestors of eukaryotes, and again in photosynthetic eukaryotes led to the evolution of mitochondria and chloroplasts, which retain parts of their original genomes.

Answers

A. Because corn is a hybrid of yeast, cyanobacteria, and E. coli genes of corn one another’s closest relatives.

How do rRNA genes work?

Bi-somatic RNA Ribosomal ribonucleic acid (rRNA), which is the RNA component of the ribosome in molecular biology, is necessary for protein synthesis in all living things. It makes up the majority of the ribosome, which is made up of around 60% rRNA and 40% protein by weight.

The nucleolus, which is a specialised portion of the cell nucleus that appears as a dense area within the nucleus and includes the genes that encode rRNA, is where rRNA molecules are generated.

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A 56 year old woman with Left extremity weakness

A 56 year old woman with a past medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents with left extremity weakness.
The condition initially began in January with weakness in her left foot and ankle. This remained stable until motor vehicle accident in April. The patient was evaluated for whiplash injury.
Two to three weeks following the accident, the patient noticed that the weakness had progressed up the leg.

As of July, the patient had developed weakness of the left hand.
By October, the patient had started to use a walker and then a wheelchair to ambulate.
In December, the patient was unable to grasp objects with her left hand and presented with atrophy of the hand muscles

Review of Pertinent Symptoms

No bulbar symptoms
No sensory loss
No neck pain
No bowel/bladder dysfunction
Chronic lower back pain

Localize neurologic lesions
Cortex/subcortex
Brainstem
Spinal cord
Peripheral Nerve
neuromucular Junction
Muscle
Physical Exam
Mental status intact
Cranial nerves (CNS) Intact
Motor Function

Strength
Left upper extremity 3/5 strength, except 2/5 strength in the dorsal interossei
Left lower extremity 3+/5 strength to all muscle groups tested
Right upper extremity/right lower extremity 5/5 strength.

Bulk significant atrophy in the left hand
Reflexes 3+ throghout
Sensation: intact throughout
Fasciulations within the left arm in the multiple muscle groups and less frequently in the right arm

The patient has typical Combined UMN and LMN disease findings

Rule out Mimics

Creatine kinase: 53

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C- reactive protein WNL

Antinuclear antibodies: negative

Thyroid-stimulating hormone: 1:2
Serum protein electrophoresis without M spike
Free light chains WNL
Rapid plasma reagin RPR was Negative
Vitamin B12 level WNL (533 pg/mL)
Copper level WNL (119 mcg/dL)
Negative for Lyme disease test
Vitamin E WNL
Human Immunodeficiency virus HIV was negative

Electromyography (EMG) Nerve Conduction Velocity

Consistent with Motor neuron disease
Left median motor and ulnar motor responses revealed low amplitude
All sensory nerve studies were intact with normal values
Needle EMG showed abnormal spontaneous activity with obvious neurogenic pattern on activation in all four extremities

Diagnosis
Motor neuron disease
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

A 56 year old woman with Left extremity weaknessA 56 year old woman with a past medical history of hypertension

Answers

Based on the patient's clinical history, physical examination findings, and diagnostic tests, the most likely diagnosis for this 56-year-old woman with left extremity weakness is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as motor neuron disease.

What is ALS?

ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects the motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, leading to weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations in the muscles. The patient's symptoms of weakness initially starting in the left foot and ankle, and then progressing up the leg and involving the left hand, along with the atrophy of hand muscles and abnormal findings on electromyography (EMG) and nerve conduction velocity testing, are consistent with the diagnosis of ALS.

Other potential mimics of motor neuron disease have been ruled out through laboratory tests and imaging studies, and the patient's clinical presentation is characteristic of combined upper motor neuron (UMN) and lower motor neuron (LMN) involvement, which is typical of ALS. Further evaluation and management should be done by a neurologist specializing in motor neuron diseases.

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Answers

Answer:

A or b

Explanation:

Which serious reaction should the nurse be alert for when administering vaccines? a. Fever b. Skin irritation c. Allergic reaction d. Pain at injection site.

Answers

Answer: c hope this helps

When a client has poor motor control it increases his/her risk of joint pain and injury because of what two reasons

Answers

Answer: Poor motor control impairs;

--> the smoothness and

--> accuracy of joint movement.

Explanation:

The peripheral nervous system controls the motor system in vertebrates. The motor system also consists of two parts which includes:

--> The somatic nervous system and

--> The autonomic nervous system.

The motor neurones that carry instructions to voluntary muscles, that is, those muscles that we can control consciously, makes up the SOMATIC NERVOUS SYSTEM. These motor neurons are part of some of the spinal and cranial nerves. Their cell bodies are in the central nervous system; their nerve fibres extend all the way to the skeletal muscles

Impulses that speed along these fibres stimulate( excite) the muscles to being about the appropriate movements.

The somatic nervous system controls all skeletal movements. These movements include:

--> all voluntary actions like clapping ( which we can choose to do or not to do), and

--> control of the body equilibrium

Poor muscle control can occur due to injury, illness, or inherited disorder. An individual with poor muscle control is at a higher risk of joint pain and injury because of the damage to the motor neurones that innervates the skeletal muscles attached to joints. This is turn will lead to a decrease in the smoothness and accuracy of joint movement.

What is atrial flutter?

A) Top chamber beats slower than normal.
B) Left atrium beats faster than normal.
C) Right and left atrium beats faster then normal.
D) Right atrium beats slower than normal.

Answers

I believe the answer is D!!!

the one above os correct it is b

how much difference do a couple of weeks make for birth weight late preterm babies are born with 34 236

Answers

The difference in weight between a preterm baby (born within 34-36 weeks) and a term baby is 0.4Kg - 1.4Kg

A baby is considered preterm if it is born before 37 weeks of pregnancy.

Compared to kids born later, premature newborns may experience more health issues. These comprise issues with their heart, eyes, lungs, brain, and other organs.In order to get specialized medical treatment, certain premature babies may spend time in a hospital's newborn intensive care unit (commonly known as NICU).Some infants who are born prematurely may face long-term difficulties, such as intellectual and developmental problems.Premature infants receive regular check-ups to monitor their health after they leave the hospital.

Baby is born between 34 and 36 completed weeks of pregnancy if the pregnancy is late preterm.

A baby is born between 32 and 34 weeks gestation, which is considered moderate preterm.

Very preterm: the infant is delivered at a gestational age of fewer than 32 weeks.

Premature birth occurs at or before week 25 of pregnancy known as extreme preterm.

Despite frequently being the same size and weight as some term infants, late preterm infants have greater rates of morbidity and mortality than term infants (GA 37 weeks) because of their relative physiologic and metabolic immaturity.

how much difference do a couple of weeks make for birth weight late preterm babies are born within 34 to 36 weeks of pregnancy?

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How should Steve collect the evidence?
Steve is a forensic expert who has been called for investigating a murder case. While looking for evidence, Steve saw some bloodstains on a table. He knew that an analysis of this evidence may help solve the case.

In order to collect this evidence, Steve would have to use a cotton swab moistened with distilled (BLANK)

Answers

Answer:

sterile water

Explanation:

A parent of an 18-month-old boy tells the nurse that he says "no" to everything and has rapid mood swings. If he is scolded, he shows anger and then immediately wants to be held. The nurse's best interpretation of this behavior is included in which statement?a. This is normal behavior for his age.b. This is unusual behavior for his age.c. He is not effectively coping with stress.d. He is showing he needs more attention.

Answers

Answer:

a. This is normal behavior for his age

Explanation:

Toddlers use distinct behaviors in the quest for autonomy. They express their will with continued negativity and the use of the word "no." Children at this age also have rapid mood swings. The nurse should reassure the parents that their child is engaged in expected behavior for an 18-month-old. Having a rapid mood swing is an expected behavior for a toddler.

The nurse's best interpretation of this behavior is included in the statement "This is normal behavior for his age." (Option A).It is normal for an 18-month-old child to say "no" to everything and have rapid mood swings.

This is because they are going through a stage of development known as the "terrible twos" where they are learning to assert their independence and test boundaries. It is also common for them to show anger when scolded and then immediately want to be held as they are still learning how to regulate their emotions. This behavior does not necessarily indicate that the child is not effectively coping with stress or that they need more attention. It is simply a normal part of their development at this age.

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Cydney presents with a history of asthma. She has not been treated for a while. She complains of daily but not continual symptoms, greater than 1 week and at nighttime. She has been using her rescue inhaler. Her FEV1 is 60% to 80% predicted. How would you classify her asthma severity

Answers

Moderate Persistent

Which of the following statements is true? Multiple Choice An undercooked hamburger patty is the most likely source of giardia. In the United States, people rarely suffer from food-borne illnesses. A food's odor or appearance is not a reliable indicator of whether it's safe to eat. The United States Environmental Protection Agency is responsible for inspecting local restaurants and grocery stores to ensure they meet food safety standards.

Answers

Answer:

Giardiasis is an intestinal illness caused by infection with the parasite Giardia lamblia, which lives in contaminated water. Although the illness most often occurs in developing countries, giardiasis is also a common cause of waterborne illness in the United States. A person can remain infected with Giardia until the infection is diagnosed and treated. In developing areas of the world, it is common for more than 20% of a country's population to have ongoing Giardia infection. In the United States, only 1 or 2 out of every 10,000 people have Giardia in a typical year, but the infection is found in about 1 out of 3 people who have prolonged diarrhea symptoms if they have recently traveled to a developing country.

Explanation:

question please help​

question please help

Answers

Answer:

b.Neutrophills, lymphocytes and plasma cells .

Explanation:

i hope it is correct

When should you give a person a second dose of naloxone?
a) If you do not see any improvement 2 - 5 minutes after giving a first dose
b) If you are unwilling to perform CPR on the person
c) If the person beesomes responsive after receiving a first dose
d) If the person asks you for another dose

Answers

Naloxone, also known as Narcan, is an opioid reversal or opioid antagonist medication given to patients experiencing opioid overdose. Its route of administration is often IM, IV, subcutaneously, or nasally for patients that are unconscious and unresponsive. If the patient is responsive, they likely will not need this agent and can, instead, simply be transported to emergency services if there is concern over the amount of drug consumed.  If the first dose of naloxone seems ineffective after 2-5 minutes, a second dose can and should be administered.

CPR should not be optional if a patient needs CPR. If the patient is experiencing an overdose and an initial dose of naloxone has been administered, if they are still breathing and have a pulse, CPR is not required. If they are unresponsive with no breathing or pulse as a result of an overdose, CPR is not a choice -- it must be performed and the naloxone also administered. If the patient is unresponsive with no breathing or pulse and you are unaware if it is the result of an overdose, giving the initial and secondary doses of naloxone will not harm the patient; neglecting to perform CPR will. The takeaway here is Narcan is NOT a substitute for chest compressions and rescue breaths if the patient needs CPR!

If the patient becomes responsive after receiving a first dose, the second dose will not be necessary. Just like performing CPR, if the person becomes responsive, they do not need more CPR. However, in both cases they will requires immediate emergency services and monitoring; another dose of naloxone may be possibly be given then if needed.  

Lastly, the patient likely will not ask for another dose of naloxone. The medication blocks the effects of the opioid, usually by blocking the receptors they bind to, propelling the patient into withdrawal though free opioid molecules are still in their bloodstream. As a result, they will likely be irritated and combative, not necessarily asking for another dose. In the event that it does occur, you could tell them that no longer need the Narcan, and if they insist you can give them a second dose -- again, the medication is not harmful if given to a person not actively overdosing so if they need a nocebo effect to take place, so be it. This, however, is not an official indication for a second dose of naloxone to be administered.  

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer that completes each sentence. Buccal administration is placing the drug . Inhalation is taking in a drug in liquid, powder, or gas form through . administration is placing a drug in the mouth and swallowing. Sublingual administration is placing the drug .

Answers

Answer and Explanation:

1. It refers to placing the drug between the gum and the cheek. This is done so that the drug dissolves and is absorbed by the mucous membranes of this region that will mix it with the blood, causing it to enter the bloodstream in a

2. It consists of respiratory administration where the drug enters the human body through the airways and can be transported along with oxygen to the entire body. It is necessary that a device is used for this type of administration. This device is called an inhaler.

3. This is oral administration and is the most common form of medication administration, as it is cheap and easy to manipulate. Some people cannot be submitted to it, which means that other methods need to be analyzed.

4. Sublingual administration allows the medication to be placed under the tongue, where it will dissolve and be absorbed by the tissue of that region, which will mix it in the bloodstream.

After breakfast both patients are off the unit getting tests done. You discover that Mr. Needle forgot to give himself his breakfast injection of Apidra and Mr. Pumper forgot to reconnect his pump after showering. You have to leave the unit and deal with both situations.

Answers

unfortunate this is :;

Sue is admitted to the hospital after having a stroke. She is experiencing the following symptoms:
episodes of intense, unexplainable fear; blindness in her right eye; difficulty moving her right foot;
and always feeling hungry no matter how much she eats.
Explain how the following will be used to diagnose Sue.
MRI Scan
Explain how the following are related to Sue's symptoms.
Amygdala
Hypothalamus
Acetylcholine
Sensory neurons
thousing radio waves and magnetic fields of

Answers

MRI Scan will be used to diagnose the Sue through using it to examine the structures of the brian so as to note or ascertain damages to structures of the brain and also abnormalities to the brain structure as a result of the stroke.

The following relates to Sue's symptoms through;

Amygdala; Because the Amygdala is responsible for the control of the rage and fear responses, it may have been affected.

Hypothalamus; Because none of the symptoms Sue is presenting with involves hypothalamic functions, the hypothalamus of the patients probably wasn't affected.these hypothalamic functions: Endocrine control,body temperature,reward centers,hunger, thirst,

sexual behavior.

The possible connecting between the damages done to the hypothalamus and that patient's episodes of fear,will clearly indicate that these feelings might or will have connection to the endocrine control (the release of adrenaline,fight or flight response).

Acetylcholine; Acetylcholine as chief of the neurotransmitters, when there is excess accumulation of it at the neuromuscular junction or synapse,will bring about the above symptoms of Sue like blindness in her right eye, difficulty moving her right foot, and always feeling hungry no matter how much she eats.

Sensory neurons; As of result of Sue's stroke,there will be damage to the sensory neurons as well as damage to to the nerve cells in the brain tissue.there will be obvious impairment in relaying sensory impulse to the brain which will in-turn bring about the symptoms Sue is presenting with.

Magnetic waves and radio fields will be injured too,a break in transmission of waves will impair normal functioning and bring about the above symptoms of Sue.

What are the key features of this organ?
Name the organ.

What are the key features of this organ?Name the organ.

Answers

I am not sure but I think that could be the liver , nucleus , what part of the body is that it all depends

6. If a patient is diagnosed with secondary hypertension, this means that the:
A. Condition has worsened from essential hypertension.
B. Patient has the most serious form of hypertension.
C. Hypertension is associated with another disease.
D. Patient has the most common form of hypertension.

Answers

Answer:

C. Hypertension is associated with another disease.

Explanation:

secondary hypertension = high blood pressure caused by another medical condition.

(hypertension = high blood pressure)

So, "secondary hypertension" indicates that the high blood pressure / hypertension is associated with another disease

The nurse teaches the patient about lisinopril (Prinivil) and evaluates that additional teaching is required when the patient makes which statement?

Answers

The nurse teaches the patient about lisinopril (Prinivil) and evaluates that additional teaching is required when the patient makes a statement indicating they do not understand the dosing schedule or how to take the medication properly.

In this regard, we can take an example, if the patient says they are unsure about how often to take the medication or if they should take it with food or on an empty stomach, this would indicate a need for additional teaching.

The nurse should ensure the patient understands the importance of taking the medication as prescribed and any potential side effects or interactions to look out for.

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Selecting References for Prescription Substitution

A pharmacy ask the pharmacy technician to look information about possible prescription substitution. What references might have this information?
Check all that apply

a. the Orange Book
b. the Red Book
c. King Guide to Parenteral Admixtures
d. Facts and Comparisons
e. USP DI Volume 3

Answers

Answer:

A. The Orange Book

C. Facts and Comparisons

D. USP DI Volume

Explanation:

I calculated it logically

Answer:

A,D,E

Explanation:

i got it right on edge!

A nurse is collecting data on a client following a bronchoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?A. Blood-tinged sputumB. Dry, nonproductive cough C. Sore throatD. Laryngospasm

Answers

The nurse should report option D. laryngospasm as a finding following a bronchoscopy.

Laryngospasm is a severe complication that can occur after a bronchoscopy procedure. It involves the sudden closure of the vocal cords, resulting in airway obstruction. This is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention.

While blood-tinged sputum, a dry nonproductive cough, and a sore throat are common after a bronchoscopy and may not be alarming, laryngospasm is a critical finding that can compromise the patient's airway. Prompt reporting of laryngospasm to the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications.

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which of the following is a valid statement regarding a well-documented adverse effect causally related to a vaccine administration?

Answers

A well-documented adverse effect causally related to a vaccine administration means that there is a proven cause-and-effect relationship between the vaccine and the adverse effect.

This relationship has been extensively studied and documented by scientific research and clinical trials. It is important to note that not all adverse effects reported after vaccine administration are necessarily causally related to the vaccine, as there may be other factors at play. However, when a causal relationship is established, it is taken seriously and thoroughly investigated by health authorities.


It is also important to consider the risk-benefit ratio of vaccines. While vaccines can cause adverse effects, the benefits of preventing serious and potentially life-threatening diseases far outweigh the risks. Vaccines undergo rigorous testing and monitoring before they are approved for use, and ongoing surveillance is conducted to ensure their safety. In summary, a well-documented adverse effect causally related to a vaccine administration is a rare occurrence, but when it does happen, it is thoroughly studied and taken seriously by health authorities.

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an episiorrhaphy is a surgical incision of the perineum and vagina to facilitate delivery. t or f

Answers

Your vaginal opening will be made larger during this surgery to prepare for childbirth.

What portion of the uterus has a bulging, rounded portion above the fallopian tube entrance?

The root

The superior, spherical area above the fallopian tube opening is known as the fundus. The inferior exit that extends into the vagina is known as the cervix.

Is a cyst that forms in the epididymis filled with milky fluid and sperm?

The epididymis, a tiny, coil-shaped tube on the upper testicle that gathers and transmits sperm, is where spermatoceles (SPUR-muh-toe-seel) generate aberrant sacs (cysts). A spermatocele, which is noncancerous and typically painless, is typically filled with milky or transparent fluid that may include sperm

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How do moderate fevers help fight infection?; What is the benefit of a moderate fever?; How does a fever help the immune system?; How does a fever work?

Answers

When we have a moderate fever, the heat helps our immune system by bringing disease-fighting cells quickly to an infection.

Define moderate fever.

The term "moderate fever" refers to a fever that is over 102.2-104F or 39.1-40C.

Whether we're babies, teenagers, or adults, a fever might actually be (mainly) healthy for us. A recent study demonstrates how it moves infection-fighting cells faster to the areas where they will benefit the body.

When you have a fever, your body is attempting to eradicate the bacteria or virus that brought on the infection. When your body is at its normal temperature, the majority of those bacteria and viruses thrive. However, they have a harder time surviving if you have a fever.

Arousing the hypothalamic set point causes vasoconstriction, which reduces heat loss, and the shunting of blood from the periphery, which increases heat production. These processes continue until the blood bathing the hypothalamus reaches the new set point, which causes a fever to develop. Sweating and vasodilation are brought on by lowering the hypothalamic set point, as with antipyretic medications, for example.

Endogenous pyrogens, such as interleukin-1 (IL-1), tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), and IL-6 and other cytokines, which then activate cytokine receptors, or exogenous pyrogens that directly activate Toll-like receptors, are responsible for the development of fever. A crucial role seems to be played by prostaglandin E2 synthesis.

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Tomorrow i have an endocrine system exam, can anyone please help me with it ?? I really need help, plus I couldn’t study because of personal issues, i would really appreciate it.

Answers

Sure I can help you out

Which of the following drugs would be MOST effective when treating a patient with hypotension secondary to vasodilation?
a. Dopamine
b. Propranolol
c. Isoproterenol
d. Norepinephrine

Answers

D). The most effective drug for treating hypotension secondary to vasodilation would be norepinephrine.

This drug is an alpha-1 and beta-1 adrenergic agonist and works by increasing both systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output, which leads to an increase in blood pressure. Dopamine and isoproterenol are both beta adrenergic agonists and may increase heart rate, but they do not have the same vasoconstrictive effects as norepinephrine. Propranolol is a beta blocker and would be contraindicated in the treatment of hypotension as it can further lower blood pressure by blocking beta-1 receptors in the heart, decreasing cardiac output.


The most effective drug for treating a patient with hypotension secondary to vasodilation is option d, Norepinephrine. Hypotension refers to low blood pressure, and vasodilation is the widening of blood vessels. Norepinephrine, a powerful vasoconstrictor, works by constricting blood vessels, increasing vascular resistance, and raising blood pressure. It compensates for the vasodilation and restores blood pressure to normal levels.  

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Neurotransmitter can have a ______ or _______ effect

Answers

Answer:

positive or negative effect

Explanation:

hope this helps :D

how many restriction enzymes could be used to digest DNA sequence of CCGG​

Answers

Answer:

There exists over 3000 restriction enzymes that are studied in detail thus far, and more than 600 of these are commercially available (Roberts et al., 2007). Each enzyme is named after the bacterium from which the enzyme is isolated

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