When Steve woke up, his temperature was 82 F. 2 hours later it was 20 F lower. What was his temperature then?

Answer:5.97

Step-by-step explanation.  

you have to look at the question.

you have to look around the question

The very last step is you have to answer it  

Answer:

For 1,000 bricks, the amount charged will be the same

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the number of bricks for which they charge the same amount be $x

Thus;

The total cost from the first company will

be;

250 + 0.2(x) = 250 + 0.2x

The second will charge;

400 + 0.05(x) = 400 + 0.05x

Since the amount charged will be equal at x bricks, we need to equate both;

400 + 0.05x = 250 + 0.2x

400-250 = 0.2x-0.05x

150 = 0.15x

x = 150/0.15

x = 1,000

24 different orders in which the movie buff can watch the movies.

Permutation refers to the arrangement of objects or elements in a specific order. In mathematics, a permutation is a specific ordering of a set of items.

The number of permutations of a set of n items taken r at a time is denoted by P(n, r) or nPr.

The formula for calculating permutations is:

P(n, r) = n! / (n - r)!,

where n is the total number of movies and r is the number of movies to be watched.

In this case, we have:

P(4, 3) = 4! / (4 - 3)!

Simplifying the expression, we get:

P(4, 3) = 4! / 1!

P(4, 3) = 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 / 1

P(4, 3) = 24

Therefore, there are 24 different orders in which the movie buff can watch the movies.

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7.051 can be written as the fraction 7051/1000.

To express 7.051 as a fraction in the form of p/q, we need to identify the decimal places and convert them to the corresponding fractional parts.

Since 7.051 has three decimal places, we multiply it by 1000 to move the decimal point three places to the right, which gives us 7051.

Now, the numerator (p) of the fraction will be 7051, and the denominator (q) will be the corresponding power of 10, which is 1000.

Therefore, 7.051 can be expressed as 7051/1000.

To simplify this fraction, we can divide both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common divisor (GCD).

In this case, the GCD of 7051 and 1000 is 1, so the fraction is already in its simplest form.

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Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Hint #33 / 3

The equation is y=\dfrac{1}{2}x -2y=

2

1

​

x−2y, equals, start fraction, 1, divided by, 2, end fraction, x, minus, 2.

Step-by-step explanation:on kan

1 Chinese yuan could purchase $0.12 and $0.15 in the year 2010 and 2012 respectively.

For the year 2010; we can calculate as follows;

1 US dollar = 8.24 Chinese yuan

x US dollar = 1 Chinese Yuan

using cross multiplication to find x;

8.24x = 1 ×1

8.24x = 1

x = 1 / 8.24

x = $0.12

For the year 2012; we can calculate as follows;

1 US dollar = 6.64 Chinese Yuan

x US dollar = 1 Chinese Yuan

Using cross multiplication to find x;

6.64x = 1

x = 1 / 6.64

x = $0.15

Therefore, one Chinese yuan could purchase $0.12 in 2010 and $0.15 in the year 2012.

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The angle of least nonnegative measure coterminal with θC​ = −π/40 is 79π/40.

To find the angle of least nonnegative measure coterminal with θC​ = −π/40, we first need to understand what coterminal angles are. Coterminal angles are angles that have the same initial and terminal sides but differ by a multiple of 2π (or 360 degrees). In other words, coterminal angles are angles that represent the same rotation.

Now, the given angle is θC​ = −π/40. To find its coterminal angle with the least nonnegative measure, we need to add 2π repeatedly to θC​ until we get an angle within the range of 0 to 2π. Let's calculate:

θC​ + 2π = −π/40 + 2π = (79π - π)/40 = 79π/40.

The angle 79π/40 is coterminal with θC​ = −π/40 and has the least nonnegative measure within the range of 0 to 2π.

Coterminal angles are angles that represent the same rotation in standard position. In this problem, we are given θC​ = −π/40 and asked to find the angle of least nonnegative measure that is coterminal with it. To do this, we add 2π repeatedly to θC​ until we get an angle within the range of 0 to 2π.

Starting with θC​ = −π/40, we add 2π to it:

θC​ + 2π = −π/40 + 2π = (79π - π)/40 = 79π/40.

The angle 79π/40 is coterminal with θC​ = −π/40 and has the least nonnegative measure within the range of 0 to 2π. Therefore, the answer to the problem is 79π/40.

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The type of transformation that shape A passed through to form shape B is

D. a 90° clockwise rotation

We find the transformation by investigating the image, we can see that the image made a clockwise rotation of 90 degrees

A 90° clockwise rotation refers to a transformation in which an object or coordinate system is rotated 90 degrees in the clockwise direction, which means it turns to the right by a quarter turn.

In a two-dimensional space, a 90° clockwise rotation can be visualized by imagining the object or points rotating around a central axis in the clockwise direction.

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The type of transformation which shape A undergo to form shape B include the following: D. a 90° clockwise rotation.

In Mathematics and Geometry, a rotation is a type of transformation which moves every point of the object through a number of degrees around a given point, which can either be clockwise or counterclockwise (anticlockwise) direction.

Next, we would apply a rotation of 90° clockwise about the origin to the coordinate of this polygon in order to determine the coordinate of its image;

(x, y)                →            (y, -x)

Shape A = (-1, 2)          →     shape B (2, 1)

Shape A = (-1, 4)          →     shape B (4, 1)

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The value of length of AC is,

⇒ AC = 8.25

We have to given that;

CD = 6.6 cm, DE = 3.4 cm, CE = 4.2 cm, and BC = 5.25 cm

Now, We can formulate;

BC / AC = EC / CD

Substitute the values we get;

5.25 / AC = 4.2 / 6.6

Solve for AC;

5.25 x 6.6 / 4.2 = AC

AC = 8.25

Thus, The value of length of AC is,

⇒ AC = 8.25

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Answer:

rate of change=101.75%

Step-by-step explanation:

New-Old/Oldx100

345-171/171 x 100

174/171 x 100

1.01754 x 100

101.75

Answer:

3/5

Step-by-step explanation:

3/5 is .6 and 1/2 is .5

.6 is the bigger number.

Answer:

SOHCAHTOA.

Step-by-step explanation:

acronym is an abbreviation formed from the initial letters of other words and pronounced as a word

The acronym for sin cosine and tangent is

SOHCAHTOA

Sine =Opposite over Hypotenuse

Cosine= Adjacent over Hypotenuse

Tangent= Opposite over Adjacent

Answer:

2+3

Step-by-step explanation:

The person that has a better performance is Puja Limbu.

From the information, Puja Limbu did 8 out of 10 math problem. This can be converted to percentage as:

= 8/10 × 100

= 80%

Raju Lama did 11 out of 15 similar math problem. This will be:

= 11/15 × 100

= 73%

Therefore, Puja has a better performance.

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Answer:

x=15

Step-by-step explanation:

5x+17+36=128

5x+53=128

5x=75

x=15

Answer:

750 mm²

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the area of the triangle, multiply the base and height and then divide the result by 2.

       \(\sf \boxed{\bf Area \ of \ triangle = \dfrac{1}{2}*base *height}\)

base = AC = 5 cm = 50 mm

height = DB = 30 mm

                                       \(\sf = \dfrac{1}{2}*50*30\\\\= 25 *30\\\\= 750 \mm^2\)

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

because average of 1 and 2 is 1.5 rounded is 2

The standard deviation of your revenues in a day is 14.

The square root of the variance is used to calculate the standard deviation, a statistic that expresses how widely distributed a dataset is in relation to its mean.

Let x be the revenue from hats.

And let y be the revenue from sunglasses.

And z be the total revenue.

Then according to the question:

z = 10x + 5y

You know the expected number of hats sold in a day is 10 with standard deviation 1.

σₓ = 1

σy = 2

Taking squares of both of the equation.

σₓ² = 1² = 1

σy² = 2² = 4

To find the standard deviation of your revenues in a day:

V(z) = (10)²σₓ² + 5²σy²

V(z) = (100)(1) + (25)(4)

V(z) = 200

Standard deviation,

σz² = √(200)

σz² = 10√(2)

σz² = 14.14

σz² ≈ 14

Therefore, the required standard deviation is 14.

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Answer: Elisa made the greater number of withdrawals

Step-by-step explanation:

140/20=7

270/45=6

As similarity theorem, the value of x that will make the triangles similar by SSS similarity theorem is 77.

Similarity theorem:

In math, similarity theorem refers the line segment splits two sides of a triangle into proportional segments if and only if the segment is parallel to the triangle's third side.

Given,

Here we need to find the t value of will make the triangles similar by the similarity theorem.

For example, we are told that the 2 triangles are similar by SSS theorem.

Here we know that, SSS means Side - Side -Side and it is a congruence theorem which states that the 3 corresponding sides of two triangles have same ratio, then we can say that the two triangles are congruent by SSS theorem

Therefore, in the triangles ,applying the SSS postulate gives;

=> x/35 = 44/20

Then by applying the multiplication property of equality, let us multiply both sides by 35 to get;

=> x = (44 * 35)/20

When we simplify this one then we get,

=> x = 77

Therefore, the value of x is 77.

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C

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is C because 18 is greater than 17.

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(2√5)/5

Explanation:

CHECK THE ATTACHMENT BELOW FOR DETAILED EXPLATION

From the question we can deduced that the vertical distance from the x-axis to a point on the perimeter of the circle is twice the horizontal distance, we can say that the y-coordinate, is twice of the horizontal, then let call the horizontal "y", the vertical would be 2y.

from the attachment the question on the unit circle is interpreted using a figure,then, hypotenuse was first calculated

Answer:

C, 2 sqrt 5 / 5

The temperature in degrees celcius in which bacteria cannot survive is greater than 3.66

This is a way of representing a variable with another

Given the inequality below;

q/5 C + 32 ≥ 120

Substitute C = 120oF

q/5(120) + 32  ≥ 120

24q + 32 ≥ 120

24q  ≥ 120 - 32

24q  ≥ 88

q ≥ 88/24

q ≥ 3.66

Hence the temperature in degrees celcius in which bacteria cannot survive is greater than 3.66

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Answer:

120

Step-by-step explanation:

it would be 3880

Step-by-step explanation:

The thickness of the non-reflective coating layer is 9.62 x 10¯⁸ m or 96.2 nm.

From the question we know that :

n = 1.30

λ = 500nm = 5 x 10¯⁷m

The non-reflective coating system is applied on glass and the refractive index of that system should be  nair < ncoating < nglass. The light travels across the air and is refracted by coating film and then refracted again by the glass. For preventing the light got reflected by glass, the thickness of the layer should obey this equation :

2nt = λ/2

t is the thickness of the layer, λ is the wavelength and n is the refractive index of the film.

By substituting the following equation we get

2nt = λ/2

t = 1/4 . ( λ / n )

t = 1/4 . ( 5 x 10¯⁷ / 1.3)

t = 9.62 x 10¯⁸ m

Hence, the thickness of the non-reflective coating layer is 9.62 x 10¯⁸ m or 96.2 nm.

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Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

-53 is a rational no.

Pls mark as brainliest

Answer: 10 × 8 × 14 = 1120 it think 1120 is the answer cause the solution is length × width × height

Hope this helps :)

And plz mark me brainiest!

Answer:

V(x)=x^2+9x^2-16x-144

Step-by-step explanation:

Here the height of the figure is 14 yd.  The base appears to be an isosceles triangle.  The volume is the height times the base area:

V = (14 yd)(1/2)(16 yd)(10 yd), or

V(x)=x^2+9x^2-16x-144

Answer:

x ≈ 8.4

Step-by-step explanation:

10

using the cosine ratio in the right triangle

cos64° = \(\frac{adjacent}{hypotenuse}\) = \(\frac{MN}{LN}\) = \(\frac{3.7}{X}\) ( multiply both sides by x )

x × cos64° = 3.7 ( divide both sides by cos64° )

x = \(\frac{3.7}{cos64}\) ≈ 8.4 ( to the nearest tenth )

The limit of the cost for a month as the number of hours approaches 10 is $55.

When a member uses the car for exactly 10 hours, the cost is covered by the $55 per month fee, which includes 10 hours of driving. Since the fee already covers the cost, there are no additional charges for those 10 hours.

To calculate the limit as the number of hours approaches 10, we consider what happens as the number of hours gets closer and closer to 10, but never reaches it. In this case, as the number of hours approaches 10 from either side, the cost remains the same because the fee already includes 10 hours of driving. Thus, the limit of the cost for a month as the number of hours approaches 10 is $55.

Therefore, regardless of whether the number of hours is slightly below 10 or slightly above 10, the cost for a month will always be $55.

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The mean should be set to 12.07 ounces, so that 1% of the cups will overfill.

12 + (0.07 * 2) = 12.14; 12.14 - (12.14 * 0.01) = 12.07

The mean amount of coffee to be dispensed should be set to 12.07 ounces in order to allow 1% of the cups to overfill. This is calculated by taking the normal value of 12 ounces, and adding the standard deviation of 0.07 ounce, resulting in 12.14 ounces. Then, 1% of that value is subtracted, giving 12.07 ounces. This amount will ensure that 1% of the cups will overfill, while the other 99% will be filled to the normal value of 12 ounces. This is beneficial for the customer, as it guarantees that no cup will be underfilled. It also ensures that the vending machine will not waste any coffee by overfilling the cups too much. Setting the mean to 12.07 ounces is the best solution for both the customer and the vending machine.

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