The most important consideration when issuing a clinical practice recommendation for a preventive service across a large population is that the preventive services causes no harm.
What are preventive services?Screenings, check-ups, and patient counselling are all part of routine health care is referred to as preventive services.
Preventive care can significantly increase your lifespan because it allows you to detect problems early and treat them more effectively.
For example, if one practices weight management and lose excess weight/keep it off, you will live longer and avoid serious diseases such as type 2 diabetes and heart disease.
Thus, the most important consideration when issuing a clinical practice recommendation for a preventive service across a large population is that the preventive services causes no harm.
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A patient has been admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. She seems a little testy and complains of headaches and a stomachache. She also says she has not been sleeping well. She is waking up in the wee hours of the morning and is not able to go back to sleep. She says it’s making her very tired and is wearing her out. What do the symptoms signal? What are some factors that cause this condition in older adults? How will you discuss guidelines and community resources with your patient?
Streptococcus sp. as well as respiratory viruses are the major agents that may cause pneumonia in older adults.
What is pneumonia?Pneumonia is a condition associated with difficulties to breath when infections can inflame air sacs in the lungs.
Pneumonia may lead to severe states of health and even death when it is not treated properly.
In conclusion, Streptococcus sp. and respiratory viruses are agents that may cause pneumonia in older adults.
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A bundle of skeletal muscle fibers enclosed by a perimysium forms a _____ within a muscle.
A bundle of skeletal muscle fibers enclosed by a perimysium forms a fascicle within a muscle. Fascicles are surrounded by connective tissue layers that provide support and protection to the muscle fibers. This organizational structure allows for coordinated movement and efficient force generation within the muscle.
Within a muscle, individual muscle fibers are grouped together into bundles called fascicles. Each fascicle is surrounded by a layer of connective tissue known as perimysium. The perimysium serves as a protective sheath, enclosing and holding together the muscle fibers within the fascicle. It also provides structural support to the muscle, allowing for efficient force transmission.The fascicles themselves are surrounded by another layer of connective tissue called epimysium. The epimysium covers the entire muscle, binding the fascicles together and providing further support. Together, the perimysium and epimysium form a network of connective tissue that maintains the integrity and shape of the muscle.This hierarchical organization of muscle fibers into fascicles, and fascicles into muscles, allows for efficient coordination of movement. As muscle fibers within a fascicle contract, the force generated is transmitted to the other fibers within the same fascicle. This arrangement enables the muscle to generate a strong and coordinated contraction, facilitating various functions such as movement, stability, and force generation.
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After a signal binds to a signal receptor, the next step is transduction. Why is the signal transduction step necessary?.
Cells respond to environmental effects through signal transduction, which promotes healthy cell growth and normal cell function.
Why is the signal transduction step necessary?
The reason why after a signal binds to a signal receptor, we need the next step is as follows:
For the purpose of triggering an appropriate cellular response, living creatures have evolved a vast range of intricate procedures to send signals from the outside to the inside. These molecular pathways can develop flaws that result in a variety of ailments, including diabetes, cancer, and psychotic conditions. It is the mechanism by which a cell responds to the stimuli it receives from the environment by diffusion of those signals to its internal compartments. Signal transduction is the process by which a cell translates a given signal or external stimulus into another signal or specific response. First, a particular receptor on the cell's membrane or cytoplasm must be activated by a signaling molecule (also known as a ligand). transduction.Ligand-receptor binding is extremely specific; it can be compared to a lock and key. Second messengers are chemicals that enable intracellular signal amplification after a signal has been received. A ligand's interaction to a receptor may result in the production of hundreds of second messenger molecules, which may then change thousands of effector molecules to cause a variety of reactions. Signal transduction enables cells to perceive, interpret, and react to various environmental signals, enabling them to carry out their usual functions.To learn more about signal transduction visit:
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stored form of sugar in the human body
Answer:
glucose? or maybe insulin.
Explanation:
Answer: glycogen
Explanation:
Glucose is the main source of fuel for our cells. When the body doesn't need to use the glucose for energy, it stores it in the liver and muscles. This stored form of glucose is made up of many connected glucose molecules and is called glycogen.
To assign an ICD-10 code to a diagnosis in the medical chart, first you must identify and locate
the
which describes the condition, disease, reason for a visit or eponym.
ICD-10 diagnosis code is used for medical claim reporting. When assigning the ICD-10 code one must identify and locate the correct documentation with details of condition, disease and reason for the visit.
Why to assign an ICD-10 code?ICD0-10 coding enhance the quality of data for tracking public health condition, improve data for epidemiological research etc. It also supports the medical need for the service and inform the payer about the services performed.
Thus, to assign ICD-10 code it is necessary to identify and locate the correct documents describing the condition, disease and reason for the visit.
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To assign a ICD-10 code it is necessary to describe the condition, location, disease and the reason for the visit.
ICD stands for International Statistical Classification of Disease and Health related problems. It provides information about the extent, causes and consequences of the human disease and death worldwide by the data which is coded with ICD code.
ICD-10 code contains all the codes about the signs, symptoms, health problems, circumstances, abnormalities and external causes of the injuries or diseases.
Assigning of the ICD 10 code increases the quality of the data. It become easier to track the health condition of the people and epidemiological researches. This allows the data to be shared and compared between the countries consistently and standardly.
Thus, to assign a ICD-10 code it is very important to know about the condition, location and reason for visit.
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On May 1, 2010, the total number of residents of Oklahoma who had been diagnosed with asthma was A.
The population on June 30, 2010, was B.
During the same year, the number of new cases of asthma was C.
Which of the following expressions represents the incidence rate of asthma (per 100,000)?
a.(c/b) x 100,000
b.(b/c) x 100,000
c.(a/b) x 100,000
Incidence rate can be calculated as the number of new cases of a disease or condition in a specific population during a specific time period. This rate is typically expressed as a ratio, with the numerator representing the number of new cases and the denominator representing the population at risk.
To express the rate per 100,000, the ratio is then multiplied by 100,000. The formula for incidence rate is:(Number of new cases / Population at risk) x multiplier.
In this case, the number of new cases of asthma is C, and the population at risk is B.
Therefore, the incidence rate of asthma can be expressed as:(C/B) x 100,000, which is option a.
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if digoxin has a half-life of 35 hours, how long will it take for a toxic plasma concentration of 8ng/ml to decline to a therapeutic asthma concentration of 2ng/ml?
Answer:
70 hours
Explanation:
8 ng/ml to 4ng/ml: 1 half-life
4ng/ml to 2ng/ml: 1 half-life
=> 8 to 2: 2 half-lives
35 hrs x 2 = 70 hrs
a nurse is caring for a client in the pacu after surgery requiring general anesthesia. the client tells the nurse, "i think i’m going to be sick." what is the primary action taken by the nurse?
The instructions will be reviewed by the nurse with the client. The instructions will include any activity restrictions, diet, and pain medication.
What exactly are general anesthesia nursing interventions?
These are critical nursing interventions performed in patients under general anesthesia: When the patient is unable to maintain respiration due to CNS depression, prepare emergency equipment to maintain the airway and provide mechanical ventilation.
Immediate post-anesthesia nursing care focuses on keeping the patient ventilated and circulated, monitoring oxygenation and level of consciousness, preventing shock, and managing pain.
Therefore, the nurse should frequently evaluate and document respiratory, circulatory, and neurologic functions.
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What section of pathology chpater of CPT will a coder find codes for FISH test?
The FISH test codes can be found in the Molecular Pathology section of the Pathology chapter in CPT.
The FISH test, which stands for Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization, is a type of molecular diagnostic test that uses fluorescent probes to detect and map specific DNA sequences in cells. As such, it falls under the category of Molecular Pathology testing in the CPT code set. To find the appropriate codes for FISH testing, a coder would need to look in the Molecular Pathology section of the Pathology chapter in CPT.
This section includes codes for a variety of molecular diagnostic tests, including FISH testing, as well as guidance on how to properly report these tests for billing and reimbursement purposes. This section is dedicated to molecular diagnostic procedures, including FISH tests, which involve analyzing DNA, RNA, and other molecular structures.
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Who usually preps IV tubing on a chemotherapy medication bag?
Select one:
Chemotherapy nurse
Medical assistant
Oncologist
Pharmacy technician
The responsibility of prepping IV tubing on a chemotherapy medication bag typically falls on the chemotherapy nurse.
These nurses are highly trained and specialized in administering chemotherapy drugs to cancer patients. They work under the guidance and supervision of an oncologist, who is a physician specialized in the diagnosis, treatment, and management of cancer patients. Chemotherapy nurses are responsible for ensuring that the chemotherapy drugs are prepared and administered safely and accurately. This includes preparing the medication bag, attaching the IV tubing, and monitoring the patient's response to the treatment. They also educate patients about the potential side effects of chemotherapy and provide support throughout the treatment process.
While medical assistants may assist with administrative tasks in a medical setting, they are not typically involved in the preparation or administration of chemotherapy drugs. Pharmacy technicians may be involved in the preparation of chemotherapy drugs, but their role is primarily focused on ensuring the accuracy and safety of the drug dosage and labeling. Overall, the responsibility for prepping IV tubing on a chemotherapy medication bag falls on the highly trained and specialized chemotherapy nurse, who works closely with an oncologist to provide the best possible care for cancer patients.
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Time management is a crucial part of being a successful student and a successful medical assistant. What are some methods Shawna can implement to help her manage her time as effectively as possible?
Answer:
BY PLANNING HER DAILY ROUTINE
Explanation:
One of the methods that Shawna can implement to help her manage her time effectively is the planning and prioritizing method. This will help her attend the important and the urgent tasks in her studies first to avoid late submission of assignmen
What could happen if the Repackaged medication is stored improperly
Answer:
It could loose its propeties and not work or in some cases hurt you or even poisen you
Explain the difference between a genotype and phenotype.
A client asks the nurse what the difference is between a durable power of attorney for health care and a living will. What should the nurse teach the client to differentiate the two components of advanced directives?
A. Suggested Leadership Learning Activity: Advance Directives
B. Describe the steps a nurse should take when preparing to administer a blood transfusion.
C. The nurse is discharging a client with dementia. What teaching should the nurse provide to the family?
D. A nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child and receives the following prescription: ceftriaxone IV, 100 mg/kg/day q 12 hours.
E. The medication on hand contains 40 mg/mL and the child weighs 40 lbs. The medication is mixed in 100 mL of normal saline and administered via IVPB over 1 hour with microdrip tubing. Calculate the amount of medication to be administered per dose and calculate the drip rate (round to the nearest whole number).
Define the delivery system, functional nursing.
Activity: Health Care Delivery Systems-RN Focus
In a living will, a person can specify what medical treatments they would want or not want in specific situations.
In order to differentiate the two components of advanced directives, durable power of attorney for health care and living will, the nurse should teach the client about their differences in a number of ways. The nurse should explain to the client that a durable power of attorney for health care is a document that allows a person to choose an individual to act as their health care agent if they are unable to make their own decisions regarding medical treatment. On the other hand, a living will is a document that allows a person to communicate their wishes regarding medical treatment if they are unable to make decisions. In a living will, a person can specify what medical treatments they would want or not want in specific situations.
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The Half Life of a drug given to an average adult is 3 days. How long will it take for 95% of the original dose to be eliminated from the body of an average adult patient, assuming exponential.
behavior for the elimination?
It will take approximately 37.45 days for 95% of the original dose to be eliminated from the body of an average adult patient, assuming exponential behavior for the elimination.
The Half-Life of a drug given to an average adult is 3 days. It is necessary to determine the time required for 95% of the original dosage to be removed from the body of an average adult patient by using the following information:
Half-Life = 3 days
The formula to calculate the time taken for a drug to be eliminated is:
Time = Half-Life × 2n
Where n is the number of half-lives completed by the drug.
Exponential behavior of the elimination of the drug is assumed. When 95% of the original dose has been eliminated from the body, only 5% of the original dose remains.
To find the number of half-lives, use the following formula:
Remainder = Original Amount × (1/2)²n
Where,
Remainder = 0.05
(as 95% of the original dose has been eliminated)
Original Amount = 1
(100% of the original dose)
Now substitute the values in the above formula
0.05 = 1 × (1/2)²n
Solving this equation for n:
n = 4.32 half-lives
To find out the time required for 95% of the original dose to be eliminated from the body of an average adult patient, substitute the value of n in the formula for time:
Time = Half-Life × 2n
Time = 3 days × 24.32
= 37.45 days
Hence, it will take approximately 37.45 days for 95% of the original dose to be eliminated from the body of an average adult patient, assuming exponential behavior for the elimination.
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dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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In what situation can an individual be held liable for harm no what their mental state was?
Strict Liability is the situation where an individual can be held liable for harm no what their mental state was.
Strict liability refers to instances in which someone can be held accountable for injuries they create regardless of their mental condition.
Strict liability occurs when a defendant is held accountable for an activity regardless of his or her purpose or state of mind at the time the conduct was committed in both tort and criminal law.
Strict liability offenses in criminal law include crimes of possession and statutory ra/pe. Simply put, strict liability, also known as absolute liability, refers to the legal need to pay for losses or injuries even when the party held legally liable was not at fault or careless.
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Hat modifier is used for medically-directed crna services?
This is because no is the correct explanation of no.
Which of the following is not a goal of psychology
A. Measurement
B. Prediction
C. Control
D. Intellectualism
Answer:
I THINK IT IS A OR B
Explanation:
Answer:
D. Intellectualism
a 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. she is conscious and alert, but anxious. her blood pressure is 144/84 mm hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. she took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. you should: a. recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects. b. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. c. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. d. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.
You should keep in mind that older people frequently have slower absorption and excretion rates, which may call for adjusting a drug's dosage. Therefore, choice A is the right response.
Because they may be dealing with many illnesses or other health issues concurrently, adults 65 and older typically take more medications than adults in any other age group. For people who are confined to their homes or reside in remote places, managing various prescriptions can be costly, time-consuming, and challenging.
The existence of a concomitant condition, which is typical in the elderly, can also impact renal function. Older patients may need lower or less frequent dosages due to reduced medication clearance caused by decreased renal function.
We can therefore draw the conclusion that You should be aware of the fact that older individuals typically have slower rates of absorption and excretion, which may necessitate changing a drug's dosage.
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List a minimum of five guidelines for the administration of parental medication
Explanation:
One of the recommendations to reduce medication errors and harm is to use the “five rights”: the right patient, the right drug, the right dose, the right route,and the right time
a client has been prescribed a new medication that is costly and not fully covered by the client's insurance plan. what can the nurse suggest to the client to address the concern?
When a client found a new medication as costly and not covered in their insurance plan, the nurse can suggest to the client to look into assistance programs or coupons from the drug manufacturer that may help offset the cost of the medication. Additionally, the nurse can advise the client to explore generic brands or other therapeutic alternatives that may be more affordable.
Healthcare insurance is a form of financial protection that helps to cover the cost of medical care. It can help pay for hospital visits, doctor visits, tests, medications, and other health-related expenses. It can also help cover the costs of preventive care, such as annual check-ups and vaccines. Healthcare insurance can be provided through an employer, a government program, or purchased privately. The type and cost of healthcare insurance can vary greatly depending on where it is obtained.
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what best describes most therapists' views of repressed memories
Answer:-Which of the following statements best reflects the current view of the repressed memories controversy? We should be extremely careful about accepting recovered memories of abuse in the absence of convincing corroboration. Repressed memory occurs when trauma is too severe to be kept in conscious memory, and is removed by repression or dissociation or both. At some later time it may be recalled, often under innocuous circumstances, and reappears in conscious memory.
Despite the controversy surrounding repressed memories, some people offer repressed memory therapy. It's designed to access and recover repressed memories in an effort to relieve unexplained symptoms. Practitioners often use hypnosis, guided imagery, or age regression techniques to help people access memories An adult suffers a nasty spider bite as a child and develops an intense phobia of spiders later in life without any recollection of the experience as a child. Because the memory of the spider bite is repressed, he or she may not understand where the phobia originates.
Albuterol Inhaler 17 g: Use two puffs TID. The product
insert states that each Albuterol canister contains 200
inhalations. What is the day supply?
Psychologist __________ believed that behaviors were learned through positive and negative consequences.
A.
Albert Bandura
B.
B. F. Skinner
C.
Sigmund Freud
D.
Carl Rogers
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
A
B
C
D
Answer:
b f. skinner believed that
Psychologist B. F. Skinner believed that behaviors were learned through positive and negative consequences. Therefore, option B is correct.
What is psychology?The scientific study of the mind and behavior is called psychology. Psychologists are actively interested in researching and comprehending how the mind, the brain, and behavior work.
Psychology is a science that serves society and improves our quality of life. Psychology studies the connections between brain activity and behavior as well as the environment and behavior, using what they discover to further our understanding and make the world a better place.
Psychology comes in many forms, including cognitive, forensic, social, and developmental psychology. Psychologist B. F. Skinner believed that behaviors were learned through positive and negative consequences. Therefore, option B is correct.
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A patient with a diagnosis of chronic sphenoidal sinusitis undergoes a bilateral sinusotomy. While the provider examines the diseased sphenoid sinus, she takes a biopsy of the sphenoid masses and removes the mucosa with several polyps. Transseptal sutures are placed and the intraoral incision is closed in a single layer. The nose is packed and external nasal dressings are placed. What cpt® and icd-10-cm codes are reported?
The CPT and ICD-10-cm codes are reported in 31050 and 31051. 31051 is appropriate for the reporting of biopsies taken in the sphenoids as well as the removal of mucosa and polyps. The procedure was an open procedure it was not performed endoscopically.
Surgical sinusoscopy includes sinusotomy if appropriate and diagnostic endoscopy. Codes 31295-31297 describe tissue displacement, and dilation of the ostium by any method and may include fluoroscopy. Codes 31233-31297 are used to report unsolicited procedures unless otherwise stated.
Coding Separate Procedures Within the code for endoscopic nasal surgery are the codes 31231 Nasal endoscopies diagnostic unilateral or bilateral separate procedures, and 31237 Nasal, sinus endoscopy surgical There are two separate procedures of surgery. In a separate procedure than biopsy polypectomy or debridement.
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"Health reform has leveraged Medicaid for a significant part of the expansion. Is this good public policy? Why or why not?"
Answer:
Yes it’s a good policy
Explanation:
Medicaid is an insurance program which has additional healthcare services such as home care. Medicaid is run by private insurance companies to ensure the common man has access to basic health care.
Health reform leveraging on Medicaid for a significant part of the expansion will help to provide more affordable healthcare services to the citizens.
While playing softball, Gina is struck in the superior medial portion of her left zygomatic bone by a wild pitch. Which of the following complaints would you expect her to have?
Answer:
swelling, bruising, tenderness, dizy, migraine etc...
Explanation:
the nurse is caring for a client following a total hip replacement. the client has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. the nurse instructs the client to increase intake of which foods? select all that apply
If the patient has been identified as having iron deficiency anemia, the nurse should advise the patient to consume more foods high in iron, such as clams, mussels, lean beef, and chicken liver.
A prevalent kind of anemia, in which the blood does not contain enough healthy red blood cells, is iron deficiency anemia. Oxygen is delivered to the body's tissues via red blood cells.
Insufficient iron is the cause of iron deficiency anemia, as the name suggests. Your body cannot make enough of a component in red blood cells that allows them to carry oxygen if you don't get enough iron (hemoglobin). You could feel exhausted and out of breath as a result of iron deficiency anemia.
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The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis. Which assessment findings indicate that the client has deficient vitamin K absorption caused by this hepatic disease?
a) Gynecomastia and testicular atrophy
b) Ascites and orthopnea
c) Purpura and petechiae
d) Dyspnea and fatigue
c) The nurse caring for a client with cirrhosis would identify deficient vitamin K absorption caused by this hepatic disease through assessment findings such as Purpura and petechiae.
These symptoms are related to impaired blood clotting due to reduced vitamin K absorption in the liver.
Purpura and petechiae, Deficient vitamin K absorption can lead to decreased production of clotting factors, which can result in bleeding disorders such as purpura and petechiae.
Gynecomastia and testicular atrophy are associated with hormonal imbalances, ascites is fluid accumulation in the abdomen, and orthopnea is difficulty breathing while lying down.
Dyspnea and fatigue are non-specific symptoms that may be present in many different conditions.
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