Pulmonary embolism and pulmonary thrombosis two distinct medical disorders, with the former frequently being the result of the latter.
In general, pulmonary embolism is caused by a blood clot, whereas pulmonary thrombosis occurs when a blood clot forms within the lungs. Pulmonary thrombosis is a medical disorder that occurs when a blood clot, or thrombus, forms within the pulmonary circulation. This disease has a variety of causes, including infection, injury, pregnancy, and surgery. Risk factors include a family history of blood clots, cancer, and obesity. Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a life-threatening condition that occurs when a blood clot travels from the leg or another part of the body to the lung. Pulmonary thrombosis can lead to pulmonary embolism, which is a medical emergency.
Symptoms of pulmonary embolism include chest pain, shortness of breath, coughing up blood, and a rapid heartbeat. Treatment of pulmonary thrombosis involves treating the underlying cause of the disorder. Blood-thinning drugs, such as warfarin and heparin, may be used to prevent blood clots from forming. In some cases, surgery may be required to remove the clot. Treatment of pulmonary embolism is similar to that of pulmonary thrombosis. Blood-thinning drugs, such as heparin, may be used to dissolve the clot and prevent further clots from forming.
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How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
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A researcher uses brain imaging techniques to study schizophrenia. This method is consistent with which approach to abnormal behavior?
O cognitive
O biological
O behavioral
O psychodynamic
Suppose the aggregate demand curve shifts leftward from ADO. Where does the economy move initially according to the rigid Keynesian view?
According to the rigid Keynesian view, if the aggregate demand curve shifts leftward from ADO, the economy will move initially along the same curve until it reaches a new equilibrium point with lower output and higher unemployment.
This is because in the short run, prices and wages are assumed to be sticky, and therefore, changes in demand will affect output and employment rather than prices. In the rigid Keynesian view, when the aggregate demand curve shifts leftward from AD0,
the economy initially moves to a point of lower output and higher unemployment along the horizontal portion of the aggregate supply curve. This is because the Keynesian model assumes that prices and wages are sticky and do not adjust immediately, leading to a short-term decrease in economic activity.
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What are the 6 positions for high performance teams in resuscitation?
The six positions for high-performance teams in resuscitation are: 1. Team Leader: Responsible for overall coordination, decision-making, and management of the resuscitation effort. 2. Airway Manager: Focuses on securing and maintaining the patient's airway, including intubation or other advanced airway techniques.
3. Chest Compressions Provider: Performs high-quality chest compressions to maintain blood flow during cardiac arrest. 4. IV/IO Access and Medication Administer: Establishes intravenous or intraosseous access and administers medications as directed by the team leader.5. Defibrillator Operator: Prepares and operates the defibrillator for rhythm analysis and shock delivery if needed. 6. Recorder/Timekeeper: Documents the resuscitation events, interventions, and vital signs, as well as monitors time intervals for interventions like chest compressions and medication administration.
The 6 positions for high performance teams in resuscitation are:
1. Team leader: responsible for overall management of the resuscitation effort, ensuring coordination and communication among team members, and making critical decisions.
2. Airway management specialist: responsible for ensuring that the patient's airway is secured and maintained during the resuscitation.
3. Defibrillator operator: responsible for delivering appropriate electrical shocks to the patient's heart to restore normal rhythm.
4. Chest compression specialist: responsible for providing high-quality chest compressions to ensure adequate blood flow to the patient's vital organs.
5. Medication administrator: responsible for administering appropriate medications to the patient during the resuscitation effort.
6. Recorder/documenter: responsible for documenting all aspects of the resuscitation effort, including interventions, medications administered, and patient response.
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What do the physical features of the Great Plains and the Gulf Coastal Plain have in common?
Answer:
Both have cold winters.
Explanation:
b) Julian likes to smoke in the morning and after meals. What happens inside of Julian's body as the nicotine takes effect? The release of adrenaline increases. His heart rate decreases. His skin temperature increases. The blood flow to his legs and feet increases.
Answer: The release of Julian's adrenaline increases as the nicotine takes effect inside of his body.
Explanation:
Julian likes to smoke in the morning and after meals. The release of adrenaline increases inside of his body as the nicotine takes effect.
Nicotine is a colorless, oily substance that is highly addictive and stimulates the nervous system. Tobacco plants produce this chemical to protect themselves from predators. Nicotine is found in tobacco products such as cigarettes, cigars, and chewing tobacco.
The release of adrenaline increases. As nicotine enters the body, it causes the release of adrenaline, which is a hormone that prepares the body for “fight or flight” situations. Adrenaline causes the heart rate to increase, blood pressure to rise, and the air passages in the lungs to open wider, allowing more air to enter the lungs.The blood flow to his legs and feet decreases. Nicotine also causes the blood vessels in the skin to narrow, reducing blood flow to the legs and feet.
This can lead to cold hands and feet, as well as other circulation issues over time.His skin temperature decreases. Nicotine causes the skin to feel cooler to the touch because it constricts blood vessels, which limits the amount of blood flow to the skin.
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which part of the cell contains the genetic information for replication
Answer:
the nucleus
Explanation:
The nucleus (plural, nuclei) houses the cell's genetic material, or DNA, and is also the site of synthesis for ribosomes, the cellular machines that assemble proteins. Inside the nucleus, chromatin (DNA wrapped around proteins, described further below) is stored in a gel-like substance called nucleoplasm.
why is it acceptable to make co2 in rbcs found in pulmonary capillary blood?
Because you can convert that CO2 back in to H+ & HCO3-
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A drug company developed a honey-based liquid medicine designed to calm a child's cough at night. To test the drug, 105 children who were ill with an upper respiratory tract infection were randomly selected to participate in a clinical trial. The children were randomly divided into three groups - one group was given a dosage of the honey drug, the second was given a dosage of liquid DM (an over-the-counter cough medicine), and the third (control group) received a liquid placebo (no dosage at all). After administering the medicine to their coughing child, parents rated their children's cough diagnosis as either better or worse. The results are shown in the table below: Diagnosis Treatment Better Worse Total Control 4 33 37 DM 12 21 33 Honey 24 11 35 Total 40 65 105 In order to determine whether the treatment group is independent of the coughing diagnosis, a two-way chi-square test was conducted. Suppose the p- value for the test was calculated to be p = 0.0016. What is the appropriate conclusion to make when testing at a = 0.05? There is insufficient evidence to indicate the treatment group is independent of the coughing diagnosis. There is sufficient evidence to indicate the treatment group is dependent on the coughing diagnosis. There is insufficient evidence to indicate the treatment group is dependent on the coughing diagnosis. There is sufficient evidence to indicate the treatment group is independent of the coughing diagnosis.
There is sufficient evidence to indicate the treatment group is dependent on the coughing diagnosis.
To begin, recall the following:-The null hypothesis and the alternative hypothesis can be defined as follows: H0: The treatment group and the coughing diagnosis are independent. HA: The treatment group and the coughing diagnosis are dependent (associated).-We will calculate the expected value for each cell using the formula (row total x column total) / sample size, as we have three rows and three columns.
For example, the expected frequency of the Better Control Cell is (37 x 40) / 105 = 14.1, and so on.-After that, the chi-square value is calculated using the formula Σ(Observed - Expected)2 / Expected.-With 2 degrees of freedom, this chi-square value has a p-value of 0.0016, which is less than the significance level of 0.05.-So, there is enough evidence to reject the null hypothesis and conclude that the treatment group is associated with cough diagnosis. Therefore, There is sufficient evidence to indicate the treatment group is dependent on the coughing diagnosis.
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A ______________ is employed at a Tricare Service center to provide information about using Tricare, and assist with other matters affecting access to health care.
A customer service representative is employed at a Tricare Service center to provide information about using Tricare, and assist with other matters affecting access to health care.
Who is a customer service representative?A customer service representative is a personnel that has a good communication skills and have under gone some training concerning the particular hiring organisation.
Therefore, a customer service representative is employed at a Tricare Service center to provide information about using Tricare, and assist with other matters affecting access to health care.
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which statement(s) regarding critical pathways is/are true? (select all that apply.) efficient for specific diseases or case types the same as medical plans standardized and enhanced quality care evaluated less frequently than care plans enhanced communication for a variety of health care providers
The correct options are:
Efficient for specific diseases or case typesThe same as medical plansStandardized and enhanced quality careEnhanced communication for a variety of health care providers.What is communication?
Communication is the exchange of information or ideas between individuals or groups. It is an essential part of human interaction and is necessary for successful relationships and achieving common goals. Effective communication involves both verbal and nonverbal elements, such as tone of voice, body language, and written or spoken language. Communication can occur in various settings, including personal relationships, social groups, business environments, and healthcare settings. Good communication skills are essential in building relationships, promoting teamwork, and achieving success in various aspects of life.To know more about communication, click the link given below:
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A client has a blockage of the passage of bile from a stone in the common bile duct. What type of jaundice does the nurse suspect this client has
The nurse suspect that the client us having Obstructive jaundice.
What is obstructive jaundice?
A specific form of jaundice called obstructive jaundice occurs when the pancreatic duct or bile duct becomes restricted or clogged, impairing the normal flow of bile from the bloodstream into the intestines. It is extremely uncommon and hardly ever seen when obstructive jaundice fatalities occur within the first several weeks of the condition's course. Patients with obstruction of the common bile duct, however, typically decline quickly and pass away after a period of four to six months.What are the symptoms?
Symptoms may include yellow eyes and skin, abdominal pain, fever and fatigue, dark urine, itchy skin, paleand foul smelling stools, blood in your vomit or stools, changes to your mental alertness, such as confusion, drowsiness, and agitation.
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1. A 70-year-old woman comes to you complaining of worsening low back pain. She can no
longer work in her garden because it hurts to bend over and pick out all of the weeds. She has a
history of multiple fractures and she swears that she is shrinking!
a. Differential diagnosis:
b. Diagnostic tool(s):
Answer: i think its b diagnostic tools
What is the advantage of nitro patches?
Nitroglycerin transdermal patches (nitro patches) are used to prevent angina (chest pain) caused by narrowing of blood vessels in coronary artery disease (CAD). It does not work to relieve the pain of an angina attack that has already started. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator; it works by relaxing the blood vessels (expanding the narrowed vessels) so that the heart does not need to work as hard.
Under what conditions can the
most oxygen be dissolved in the blood?
F. high blood pressure and high body
temperature
G. low blood pressure and low body
temperature
H. low blood pressure and high body
temperature
I. high blood pressure and low body
temperature
High blood pressure and high body temperature
The dissolve of oxygen in blood follows one law namely Henry lawIt's based upon partial pressure.So Blood pressure is must thingOption A
Answer:
it's B or G sense it's there good luck
A rate for a specific population subgroup (e.g. death rate for 40—50 year olds) is referred to as ...
A) mortality.
B) life expectancy.
C) the specific.
D) Years of Potential Life Lost [YPLL].
A rate for a specific population subgroup is referred to as the specific. The correct option is (C).
A specific rate refers to a rate for a particular population subgroup, which helps in understanding the differences in health status or risk among various subgroups within a larger population.
When analyzing population data, it is often important to look at specific subgroups to identify patterns and trends. A rate for a specific subgroup, such as the death rate for individuals between the ages of 40 and 50, is calculated by dividing the number of deaths in that subgroup by the total population in that subgroup.
This rate is known as the specific rate and provides insight into the health status and mortality risk of that particular population.
The specific rate can be used to compare mortality rates between different subgroups and to identify disparities in health outcomes. It is a useful tool for public health officials and policymakers in developing targeted interventions and policies to improve the health of specific populations.
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dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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Alice is 10 years old and over the past few years has had several fractures even though she is not an active child. A recent blood test indicated that her alkaline phosphatase level was highly elevated. What diagnosis is possible with her history and lab values? What are some treatment options if your diagnosis is correct?
Answer:
Paget's Disease? Order physical therapy and possibly bisphosphonates
Explanation:
Answer:
This can be treated by Increase in her calcium level
Explanation:
This case shows that alice is experiencing decrease in her calcium level and it is what is leading to these fractures. It is what is causing the increasing alkaline phosphatase. To treat this, calcium carbonate and calcium citrates can be used. Also vitamin d can be used for treatment. SERM modulatotors can be used also as treatment.
What are the 3 main regions of infrared?
Answer:
The three main regions of infrared radiation are near infrared, mid-infrared, and far infrared. Near infrared radiation has a wavelength of 0.7 to 1.3 micrometers, mid-infrared radiation has a wavelength of 1.3 to 3.0 micrometers, and far infrared radiation has a wavelength of 3.0 to 1000 micrometers.
Explanation:
A nurse is teaching the caregiver of a client who has advanced Alzheimer’s disease about home safety. Which of the following statements by the caregiver indicates an understanding of the teaching?
I will give his most recent photo to the police
I will place a sliding bolt lock just above the doorknob
I will ensure the bedroom is dark while he is sleeping at night
I will notify law enforcement within 2 hours if he cannot be found
Out of the options given, the statement that indicates an understanding of home safety for a client with advanced Alzheimer’s disease is "I will place a sliding bolt lock just above the doorknob." This is because Alzheimer's patients tend to wander and can easily become lost or injured, so securing the home is important.
A sliding bolt lock above the doorknob is a good safety measure as it can be easily locked and unlocked by the caregiver, but is difficult for the patient to manipulate. Additionally, notifying law enforcement within 2 hours if the patient cannot be found is also a good safety measure as it can help locate the patient quickly and prevent harm. However, giving the client's photo to the police may not be necessary and could be a breach of privacy.
Ensuring the bedroom is dark while the patient sleeps is also not directly related to home safety, but it may be beneficial for their sleep quality. Overall, securing the home and promptly notifying authorities in case of emergency are important steps in ensuring the safety of a patient with advanced Alzheimer’s disease.
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antibiotics that target the cell wall are an effective treatment against many pathogenic bacteria. TRUE or FALSE
True, Antibiotics that target the cell wall are an effective treatment against many pathogenic bacteria.
The cell wall is a protective structure that surrounds the cell membrane of bacteria and helps to maintain their shape and integrity. Antibiotics that target the cell wall interfere with the formation and maintenance of the cell wall, causing the bacteria to break down and die. This class of antibiotics, known as cell wall inhibitors, is particularly effective against gram-positive bacteria, which have a thick cell wall that provides a target for antibiotics. Examples of cell wall inhibitors include penicillin and related antibiotics, such as methicillin and oxacillin, which are commonly used to treat bacterial infections, such as streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat) and staphylococcal skin infections. However, it is important to note that the increasing prevalence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria has limited the effectiveness of antibiotics, including cell wall inhibitors, in some cases.
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Que funciones realiza el sistema circulatorio?
Answer:
El sistema circulatorio entrega oxígeno y nutrientes a las células y elimina los desechos. El corazón bombea sangre oxigenada y desoxigenada por diferentes lados. Los tipos de vasos sanguíneos incluyen arterias, capilares y venas. :)
A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse prepare a sterile field for a dressing change. Which of the
following actions by the newly licensed nurse requires Intervention by the charge nurse?
The newly licensed nurse places the cap of a bottle of sterile saline solution on the sterile field,
The newly licensed nurse places sterile objects 2.5 cm (1 inch) within the border of the field.
The newly licensed nurse holds the bottle of sterile saline outside the edge of the field when pouring
The sterile field is positioned at the level of the newly licensed nurse's waist.
PREVIOUS
CONTINUE
Answer:
The newly licensed nurse places the cap of a bottle of sterile saline solution on the sterile field
Explanation:
The action required by the newly licensed nurse intervention by the charge nurse is that the newly licensed nurse places the cap of a bottle of sterile saline solution on the sterile field. So, the correct option is A.
What do you mean by Sterile saline solution?Sterile saline solution is a mixture of salt and water. A normal saline solution contains 0.9% of salt, which is similar to the concentration of blood and tears.
During wet lab work, it is foremost required to keep the reagents, solvents, and their caps in a sterile environment in order to protect them from various contaminations. As a charge nurse, it is her responsibility to observe a new licensed nurse.
Therefore, the action required by the newly licensed nurse intervention by the charge nurse is that the newly licensed nurse places the cap of a bottle of sterile saline solution on the sterile field.
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The resulting pain due to pleural fluid being unable to prevent friction between opposing pleura surfaces is known as
The resulting pain due to pleural fluid being unable to prevent friction between opposing pleura surfaces is known as pleurisy or pleuritic pain.
What is the pain called?Pleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura, a thin membrane that covers the inside of the chest cavity and the outside of the lungs. A small amount of pleural fluid normally lubricates the pleura, enabling the lungs to move freely and painlessly during breathing.
However, pleural inflammation can disrupt or limit the generation of pleural fluid, which causes the inflamed pleural surfaces to rub against one another.
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a 58-year-old g3p1021 woman presents for a health maintenance examination. her final menstrual period occurred at age 54. her past medical history is significant for angina. she experienced a hip fracture 14 months ago when she tripped and fell while running after her grandson. she has not had any surgeries. she takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. she smokes ten cigarettes a day and drinks a glass of red wine at dinner. her father was diagnosed with colon cancer at the age of 72. physical examination revealed a blood pressure of 120/68, heart rate of 64 beats/minute, and bmi of 22 kg/m2. her heart, lung, breast, and abdominal examinations were normal. pelvic examination was consistent with vaginal atrophy and a small uterus. there was no adnexal tenderness and no masses were palpated. in addition tc obtaining bone mineral density scan, what is the best next step in he management plan for this patient?
it is recommended that the patient undergoes a colorectal cancer screening as a best next step in her management plan.
As per the given case, a 58-year-old g3p 1021 woman presents for a health maintenance examination. her final menstrual period occurred at age 54. her past medical history is significant for angina. She experienced a hip fracture 14 months ago when she tripped and fell while running after her grandson. She has not had any surgeries. She takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. She smokes ten cigarettes a day and drinks a glass of red wine at dinner. Her father was diagnosed with colon cancer at the age of 72. Physical examination revealed a blood pressure of 120/68, heart rate of 64 beats/minute, and BMI of 22 kg/m2. Her heart, lung, breast, and abdominal examinations were normal. Pelvic examination was consistent with vaginal atrophy and a small uterus. The American Cancer Society (ACS) recommends that women with an average risk of colorectal cancer begin screening at age 45, whereas other societies suggest screening from the age of 50, depending on the individual's risk factors. However, given the patient's family history of colon cancer, the ACS would recommend beginning screening at age 45 or earlier. Women and men aged 45 years and older at average risk for colorectal cancer should have an individualized discussion with their healthcare provider about the advantages and disadvantages of various colorectal cancer screening modalities before deciding on a screening approach. Therefore, it is recommended that the patient undergoes a colorectal cancer screening as a best next step in her management plan.
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Identify the stressors experienced by refugees both before leaving their country of origin and the stressors experienced here in their new home. Explain how the general adaptation syndrome applies to those experiences.
Answer:
Before leaving : loss of property, loss of means of livelihood/job, extreme fear, Malnutrition due to Famine
In their new home : Torture , robbery and betrayal, and Harsh environmental conditions, loss of family member in transit
Explanation:
The stressors experienced by refugees before leaving their country of Origin can be categorized into ( 2 )( i.e. physiological and psychological ). examples of such stressors are ; loss of property, loss of means of livelihood/job, extreme fear, Malnutrition due to Famine. while some of the stressors that might be experienced by refugees in their new home includes; Torture , robbery and betrayal, and Harsh environmental conditions.
The General adaptation syndrome is a series of reactions ( physiologic ) which causes a change in the equilibrium of a body system ( human ) in response to stressors ( i.e. stressors experienced by the refugees ) as regards the question above. once the stressors is dealt with by the body the equilibrium of the body system is been restored
explain why a scientist must conduct trials in humans before this procedure becomes a widespread medical treatment
Answer:
testing on animals and on humans are different
Explanation:
If the testing through animals and/or artificial means turns out well and safe, then it is safe for human testing to work out how it will affect humans since we have a different physiology from animals.
Answer:
Scientists need to repeat studies many times to prove their hypothesis. This single study only shows an effect in mice. The effect in humans may differ, so scientists need to conduct trials in humans to see whether the results are the same.
Explanation:
i got it from the official site where the question originated from, it was the sample answer, youre welcome, and thank you to the person below/above my answer, because their question is also right. <3Self-efficacy is especially important in which patient-centered communication function?
Group of answer choices
a: Exchanging and managing information
b: Validating and managing emotions
c: Making decisions
d: Enabling Patient Self- Management
Self-efficacy is especially important in enabling patient self-management. The correct option to this question is D.
Self-efficacy refers to a person's belief in their ability to perform a specific task or behavior.
In patient-centered communication, enabling patient self-management involves empowering patients to take an active role in managing their health.
This includes providing education, resources, and support to help patients make informed decisions, set goals, and follow through with treatment plans. Self-efficacy plays a crucial role in this process as it influences a patient's motivation and ability to engage in self-management behaviors.
In summary, self-efficacy is especially important in enabling patient self-management, which is a key function of patient-centered communication.
By fostering patients' belief in their ability to manage their health, healthcare providers can help improve patient outcomes and promote greater patient engagement in their care.
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What are the key skills and qualities that you need to be an effective nursing associate in your clinical area?
Answer:
Qualities That Make a Great Nurse
High Standards of Professionalism. Nurses need to be professional in their approach towards their work. ...
Never-Ending Diligence. ...
Exceptional Communication Skills. ...
Effective Interpersonal Skills. ...
Attention to Detail. ...
Quick Problem-Solving Abilities. ...
Action-Oriented. ...
To help ensure team well-being, CERT leaders may:
A Prevent volunteers from taking breaks
B Gradually phase out workers from high-stress to low-stress jobs
C Ask survivors to help hand out water
D Work for days without a nap
Answer:
deez
Explanation: