what explanation should a nurse give to a client who asks why it is important for her to stay off her back when the fetus is being monitored with electronic fetal monitoring?

Answers

Answer 1

A nurse should say that Fetal heart rate monitoring is a procedure used to evaluate the well-being of the fetus by assessing the rate and rhythm of the fetal heartbeat.

Counting the heart's beats per minute, also known as heart rate or pulse rate, allows us to determine how frequently our hearts beat (bpm). Numerous factors, including genetics, degree of physical fitness, stress levels, mental health, diet, medicines, hormonal state, environment, sickness, and illness, as well as the interactions between and among these elements, have an impact on heart rate. The heart rate can change depending on the body's basic demands, such as the need to breathe in oxygen and expel carbon dioxide. Any peripheral point's pulse is often equal to or extremely close to it.

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Related Questions

what is the unlisted diagnostic nuclear medicine code reported for cardiovascular procedures? cpt code: ___________________

Answers

The unlisted diagnostic nuclear medicine code reported for cardiovascular procedures is CPT code 78499.

CPT code 78499 is used for diagnostic cardiovascular nuclear medicine procedures that are not specified by any other code. This code is only used in rare cases when there is no other more specific code available to report the procedure.

When performing cardiovascular nuclear medicine procedures, it is important to use the most specific CPT code available. However, in some cases, there may not be a specific code available to describe the procedure. In these instances, the unlisted diagnostic nuclear medicine code, CPT code 78499, is used to report the procedure. This code should only be used when there is no other more specific code available to report the procedure. It is important to note that using the unlisted code may lead to increased scrutiny from payers, as it indicates that the procedure performed was not a commonly recognized service. Therefore, it is recommended to exhaust all efforts to find the most specific code possible before resorting to using the unlisted code.When a specific diagnostic nuclear medicine procedure related to cardiovascular system does not have a designated CPT code, you can use the unlisted code 76498 to report it. This code serves as a placeholder to ensure accurate documentation and billing. However, it is essential to provide a clear description of the performed procedure and its medical necessity, as insurance companies may require additional information for unlisted codes. Always consult the latest CPT codebook and guidelines for the most up-to-date coding information.

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can u intubate someone with a pen?? any surgeons here help

Answers

Yes you can but there are risks

Answer:

it only can be handled by the professional doctors

Explanation:

if a beginner tries it almost pushing the patient towards dead

u can replace straw

Among women aged (18 to 34) in a community wt is normally distributed with a mean of 52 kgm and standard deviation SD of 7.5 kgm what percentage % of women will have a weight over 59.5 kgm ?

Answers

Answer:

7.1 percentage % of women will have a weight over 59.5 kgm

Explanation:

hope it helps you dear

Individuals with diabetes have a difficult time metabolizing foods that are high in: _________

Answers

Individuals with diabetes have a difficult time metabolizing foods that are high in simple carbohydrates.

This is because your body does not produce enough insulin to break down carbohydrates into glucose and absorb it into the bloodstream. Without enough insulin, glucose cannot be used as an energy source, but instead enters the bloodstream and causes high blood sugar levels.

Tips for Diabetics to Control Simple Carbohydrate Intake

Diabetics can control their intake of simple carbohydrates by choosing high-fiber foods, such as fruits, vegetables and whole grains, instead of refined foods. These foods contain complex carbohydrates, which are healthier for diabetics because they provide slow-release energy.

This means that high-fiber foods release glucose gradually into the bloodstream, which helps keep blood glucose levels stable. Fiber-rich foods also provide other important nutrients, such as vitamins, minerals and antioxidants.

In addition, diabetics should avoid processed foods high in sugar. These foods include candy, cakes, cookies and soft drinks. These foods contain many simple carbohydrates and are rich in empty calories, which means they do not provide vitamins and minerals.

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An outside company, hired to review medical records has informed you that certain diagnosis codes previously submitted to Medicare were undocumented or unsupported. What are some of the next steps that should follow?

Answers

Answer:

Talk to the doctors about the situation and try to figure out what the medication/prescription was. You should also talk to the patient about how they prescription effected them. The symptoms could possibly figure out what the patient was prescribed to.

Explanation:

The symptoms of drug abuse ...
A. are consistent for all drugs.
B. are the same as for alcohol abuse.
C. will vary from one drug to the next.

Answers

Answer:

C i think

Explanation:

Chloe was raised in a family where they did not discuss mental health. When she experiences PTSD following a severe car accident, her parents imply she should just stop thinking about it. For this reason, Chloe did not seek treatment for nearly five years when she finally reached a breaking point and a friend took her to the doctor. Chloe’s experience is an example of...
a. a felt stigma.
b. stigma and illness.
c. an enacted stigma.
d. stigma expectations.

Answers

(C)Chloe's experience is an example of enacted stigma. Enacted stigma occurs when individuals experience discrimination, prejudice, or mistreatment as a result of their mental health condition. In this case, Chloe's parents' response to her PTSD implied that she should just stop thinking about it, which is a form of stigma and could have contributed to her reluctance to seek treatment. By failing to provide her with appropriate support and understanding, Chloe's parents may have unintentionally perpetuated the stigma around mental health in her family.

What would be the combining form for the terms Tachycardic, Gastritis, or Intercostal?

Answers

Answer:

i d k

Explanation:

Which is true about the food label

Answers

You did not put any options or a picture

The client states that prior to exams at school, the client has abdominal cramping and diarrhea. what does the nurse suspect is the trigger for these signs and symptoms?

Answers

The nurse should suspect a functional diarrhea disorder as a trigger for the symptoms.

What is functional diarrhea disorder?

Functional diarrhea (FD), one of the functional gastrointestinal disorders, is characterized by chronic or recurrent diarrhea not explained by structural or biochemical abnormalities.

The treatment of Functional diarrhea (FD) is intimately associated with establishing the correct diagnosis.

Thus, from the information given we can conclude that the client is describing functional diarrhea disorder where the diarrhea occurs as a result of stress or anxiety.

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13.The physician has ordered tetracycline 8 mg/kg IM every 8 hours for a patient. If the patient
weights 30 kg (66 lbs), how much tetracycline should the patient receive daily?

Answers

Answer:

720mg/daily

Explanation:

240 mg for his wt every 8 h

so 240 *3 = 720

T/F : The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is pulmonary disease.

Answers

The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension (high blood pressure) is not pulmonary disease. The statement is False.

Hypertension primarily affects the cardiovascular system, specifically the blood vessels and the heart.

It can lead to complications such as heart disease, stroke, kidney disease, and damage to other organs. Pulmonary disease, on the other hand, refers to a range of conditions affecting the lungs, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), asthma, or pulmonary fibrosis.

While hypertension can contribute to certain pulmonary conditions, it is not the most commonly recognized outcome.

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Shouldice Hospital in Canada is widely known for one thing-hernia repair! In fact, that is the only operation it performs, and it performs a great many of them. Over the past two decades this small 90

Answers

Shouldice Hospital in Canada is indeed widely known for its specialization in hernia repair. It is renowned for being the only operation it performs, and it has gained a strong reputation for its expertise in this area. The hospital has been focused on hernia repair for over two decades, during which it has conducted a significant number of these procedures.


The hospital's specialization allows it to provide specialized care and deliver exceptional outcomes for hernia repairs. By focusing solely on hernias, Shouldice Hospital has been able to refine its techniques, optimize its processes, and develop a highly skilled team of healthcare professionals who are experts in hernia repair.

One of the key factors that contributes to Shouldice Hospital's success is its unique approach to hernia repair. The hospital employs a technique known as the Shouldice method, which involves using a natural tissue repair method instead of mesh implants. This technique has proven to be highly effective, with low recurrence rates and high patient satisfaction.

Additionally, Shouldice Hospital prides itself on its patient-centered approach. The hospital provides a comfortable and welcoming environment for patients, with specialized facilities and amenities designed to enhance the overall patient experience.

Overall, Shouldice Hospital's specialization in hernia repair, its unique surgical technique, and its patient-centered approach have made it a trusted destination for patients seeking hernia treatment. Its focus on excellence in this particular area has allowed the hospital to establish itself as a leader in hernia repair surgery.

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a 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. she is conscious and alert, but anxious. her blood pressure is 144/84 mm hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. she took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. you should: a. recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects. b. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. c. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. d. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.

Answers

You should keep in mind that older people frequently have slower absorption and excretion rates, which may call for adjusting a drug's dosage. Therefore, choice A is the right response.

Because they may be dealing with many illnesses or other health issues concurrently, adults 65 and older typically take more medications than adults in any other age group. For people who are confined to their homes or reside in remote places, managing various prescriptions can be costly, time-consuming, and challenging.

The existence of a concomitant condition, which is typical in the elderly, can also impact renal function. Older patients may need lower or less frequent dosages due to reduced medication clearance caused by decreased renal function.

We can therefore draw the conclusion that You should be aware of the fact that older individuals typically have slower rates of absorption and excretion, which may necessitate changing a drug's dosage.

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What are the clinical features of Turner syndrome?

Answers

Treatment for Turner syndrome typically involves a multidisciplinary approach, with management of individual symptoms and regular monitoring for associated health problems.

Turner syndrome is a genetic condition that affects females and is caused by the complete or partial absence of one of the X chromosomes. Some of the clinical features of Turner syndrome may include: Short stature: Females with Turner syndrome are typically shorter than average, often with a height below the third percentile. Reproductive problems: Most girls and women with Turner syndrome have underdeveloped or absent ovaries, which means they are infertile. Cardiovascular problems: Turner syndrome is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular problems, including coarctation of the aorta, aortic dilation, and bicuspid aortic valve. Kidney problems: Some girls with Turner syndrome may have abnormalities in their kidneys, such as horseshoe kidneys or a single kidney. Hearing and ear problems: Ear infections and hearing loss are common in girls with Turner syndrome. Learning difficulties: Some girls with Turner syndrome may have learning difficulties or delayed development of speech and language skills. Other physical features: Girls with Turner syndrome may have a webbed neck, a low hairline at the back of the neck, a small jaw, and drooping eyelids. Social and emotional problems: Girls and women with Turner syndrome may experience social and emotional difficulties, such as shyness, anxiety, and low self-esteem.

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Perfect pitch is the ability to identify musical notes correctly without hearing another note as a reference. The probability that a randomly chosen person has perfect pitch is 0.0005.

Required:
a. If 20 students at Julliard School of Music art tested, and 2 are found 10 Moe perfect pitch, would you conclude at the .01 level of significance that Julliard students are more likely than the general population to have perfect pitch?
b. Show that normality of the sample proportion p should not be assumed.

Answers

Question:

Perfect pitch is the ability to identify musical notes correctly without hearing another note as a reference. The probability that a randomly chosen person has perfect pitch is 0.0005.

Required:

a. If 20 students at Julliard School of Music art tested, and 2 are found to have perfect pitch, would you conclude at the .01 level of significance that Julliard students are more likely than the general population to have perfect pitch?

b. Show that normality of the sample proportion p should not be assumed.

Answer:

See explanation below

Explanation:

Given:

Sample size, n = 20

Probability that a chosen person has perfect pitch = 0.0005

x

Level of significance = 0.01

a) Let's find the probability of 2 or more people with perfect pitch using bimonial distribution.

P(2 or more with perfect pitch ) =

P(x≥2) = 1 - P(x≤1)

P(x≥2 | n=20, p'=0.0005) = 0.00005

Since the probability of getting 2 or more people with perfect pitch, 0.00005, is significantly lower than the level of significance, 0.01, we conclude that Julliard students are more likely than the general population to have perfect pitch.

b) For normality to be assumed,  \( n * \pi _0 \) should be ≥5 for normal approximation.

Since \( n * \pi _0 \) is too small, normality cannot be assumed.

To ensure that the inferior margin of the abdomen is included on a KUB radiograph the technologist should palpate the:

Answers

To ensure that the inferior margin of the abdomen is included on a KUB radiograph the technologist should palpate the Greater trochanter or symphysis pubis

What is KUB radiograph?

Kidney, ureter, and bladder is referred to as KUB. An X-ray taken to examine the urinary system and the structures around is known as a KUB radiograph.

A KUB radiograph can be used to visualize the area between the superior poles of the kidneys and the pubic symphysis. Like other X-rays, this radiograph makes use of external electromagnetic beams to capture pictures of inside organs and tissues.

These beams project onto plates that have been pre-treated to produce a harmful image after passing through human tissues.

Therefore, the technologist should palpate the Greater trochanter or symphysis pubis

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Francis is worried about a patient who is showing signs of muscle atrophy. Which best describes what Francis should
do to prevent pressure and further muscle atrophy?
O use bed cradles and a special bed
O use daily range of motion and physical therapy
O use physical therapy and adjust the turn clock
O maintain proper body alignment and adjust the turn clock

Answers

Francis should use a daily range of motion and physical therapy to prevent pressure and further muscle atrophy. It is a genetic condition.

What is muscular atrophy?

Muscular atrophy refers to the progressive loss of muscular mass, which can be caused by a genetic condition.

The muscular atrophy and loss of muscle tissue may be caused by a genetically inherited condition (i.e., mutations).

Muscular atrophy may be delayed in these cases by a suitable program of physical exercises.

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Sensation can best be described as
A. Sensory thresholds
B. Bottom-up processing
C. Top-down processing
D. Accommodation

Answers

The answer is probably d

Loose, water-saturated sediments may undergo ____________________ during an earthquake. A) liquefaction B) subduction C) exfoliation D) wedging

Answers

Answer:

Liquefaction

Explanation:

The correct answer is A) liquefaction. Loose, water-saturated sediments can experience liquefaction during an earthquake. Liquefaction occurs when the ground shaking causes the water-saturated sediments to lose their strength and behave more like a liquid, resulting in the loss of their ability to support structures or objects on the surface. This phenomenon can lead to significant damage to buildings, infrastructure, and other structures built on such sediments.

A researcher uses brain imaging techniques to study schizophrenia. This method is consistent with which approach to abnormal behavior?
O cognitive
O biological
O behavioral
O psychodynamic

Answers

I’ll say behavioral because when someone has a schizophrenia disorder, their behavior is different to ours. Hope that helps

Mrs. Quinn has just turned 65, is in excellent health and has a relatively high income. She uses no medications and sees no reason to spend money on a Medicare prescription drug plan if she does not need the coverage. She currently does not have creditable coverage. What could you tell her about the implications of such a decision?

Answers

Answer:

If she does not sign up for a medicare prescription drug plan as soon as she is eligible to do so. The answer is (b).

Explanation:

It is correct.

Mrs. Quinn, as a healthy individual with a high income, you may be questioning the need for a Medicare prescription drug plan if you do not currently require the coverage.

However, there are a few important implications to consider before making a decision:

1. Late Enrollment Penalty: Medicare prescription drug plans (Part D) are voluntary, but if you choose to enroll later when you do need coverage, you may have to pay a late enrollment penalty. This penalty is added to your monthly premium and is calculated based on the number of months you were eligible for coverage but did not enroll.

2. Coverage Gap (Donut Hole): Medicare Part D plans often have a coverage gap, also known as the "donut hole." This refers to a temporary limit on what the plan will cover for prescription drugs. If your medication needs change in the future and you require expensive drugs, not having a Part D plan could result in higher out-of-pocket costs during this coverage gap.

3. Future Medication Needs: While you are currently not taking any medications, it's important to consider that health circumstances can change over time. Even though you may be in excellent health now, there is always a possibility that you may need prescription medications in the future. Having a Medicare Part D plan in place can help provide financial protection and access to necessary medications if that situation arises.

4. Financial Planning: Considering your high income, it's essential to evaluate the financial aspect. Medicare prescription drug plans have monthly premiums, deductibles, and copayments. Assessing the potential costs associated with a Part D plan and comparing them to the potential out-of-pocket expenses without one can help you make an informed decision.

5. Creditable Coverage: Lastly, it's important to note that not having creditable coverage, which refers to prescription drug coverage that is at least as good as Medicare's standard coverage, may impact your ability to switch to a Medicare Part D plan later without facing a late enrollment penalty.

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which allegric condition is potentially life-threanting ?

Answers

Answer:

Anaphylaxis

Explanation:

Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to a trigger such as an allergy.

hope it helps!

A patient is admitted with pneumonia, a body temperature of 95. 7 f (35. 4 c), blood pressure 82/43 mm hg. , mean arterial blood pressure of 56 mm hg, rr 28/min, hr 112/minute, lactate 4. 2 mmol/l. A fluid bolus of 30 ml/kg has been provided and a levophed (norepinephrine) infusion started. The nurse anticipates the initial hemodynamic goals in the care of this patient to include:

Answers

The nurse anticipates hemodynamics early in care including preventing lower blood pressure.

What is norepinephrine?

Norepinephrine or noradrenaline is a drug to treat life-threatening acute low blood pressure (hypotension). In addition, norepinephrine can also be used in the treatment of cardiac arrest.

Norepinephrine has an effect on both alpha and beta receptors. This drug will constrict blood vessels so that it can increase blood pressure. In addition, norepinephrine can also trigger the work of the heart in pumping blood.

Norepinephrine will generally be given in emergency conditions. This drug is available in injectable form.The doctor will carry out close monitoring during and after the injection of norepinephrine to make sure there are side effects that appear or not.

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What are the drivers of the healthcare industry's focus on patient satisfaction and on employing resources in an effective manner? Discuss various patient satisfaction evaluation tools, how they affect funding, and physician salaries. Discuss CMS's value on patient satisfaction and how it affects reimbursement. Summarize succinctly in a conclusion/summary paragraph.

Answers

Patient satisfaction is a key driver of quality care in the healthcare industry. Healthcare organizations must utilize various evaluation tools to measure and improve patient satisfaction scores to maintain financial stability and remain competitive.

The healthcare industry focuses on patient satisfaction and employing resources in an efficient manner to provide high-quality care and improve patient outcomes. The following are the drivers of this focus:

Changing Payment Models: Healthcare providers' reimbursement is increasingly tied to quality and patient satisfaction scores. This motivates providers to focus on improving patient satisfaction to maintain financial stability.Competition: Healthcare organizations must compete with one another to attract patients and maintain market share. Patients are more likely to choose providers who have a reputation for providing high-quality care and positive patient experiences.Patient-Centred Care: The healthcare industry is shifting towards a more patient-centred approach to care, which requires providers to focus on the individual needs and preferences of their patients. This approach involves involving patients in decision-making, providing education and support, and fostering trust and communication.

Various patient satisfaction evaluation tools include surveys, focus groups, and direct feedback from patients. These tools allow healthcare organizations to gather data on patients' experiences and identify areas for improvement. The data is used to guide quality improvement initiatives, staff training, and resource allocation decisions.

Positive patient satisfaction scores may attract additional funding from investors or donors. Additionally, physicians with high patient satisfaction scores may receive bonuses or salary increases.

The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) ties reimbursement to patient satisfaction scores. CMS has implemented the Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS) survey, which measures patients' perceptions of their hospital experience. Hospitals must meet specific benchmarks to receive full reimbursement from Medicare. Therefore, organizations that perform poorly on the HCAHPS survey may receive lower reimbursement rates, which can impact their financial stability.

In conclusion, patient satisfaction is a key driver of quality care in the healthcare industry. Healthcare organizations must utilize various evaluation tools to measure and improve patient satisfaction scores to maintain financial stability and remain competitive. Additionally, CMS has implemented programs that tie reimbursement to patient satisfaction scores, which further incentivizes healthcare organizations to prioritize patient satisfaction.

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A nurse is assisting with a nutritional screening for a 12-yearold client who weighs 41 kg (90 lb) and has a height of 1.5 m (60 in). Which of the following values is the client's body mass index (BMI)? Show Explanation 69% of exam takers gotthis question correct. Correct Answer: C. To calculate the client's BMI, the nurse should divide the client's weight in kilograms by the square of the client's height in meters. Therefore, 41 kg divided by the square of 1.5 m gives a correct BMI of 18.2.

Answers

The client's body mass index will be approximately 18.2.

To calculate the client's body mass index (BMI), we use the formula: BMI = weight (in kilograms) / (height (in meters)².

Given;

Weight: 41 kg

Height: 1.5 m

To calculate the BMI, we divide the weight (41 kg) by the square of the height (1.5 m)²;

BMI = 41 kg / (1.5 m)²

Simplifying the calculation;

BMI = 41 kg / 2.25 m²

Now we perform the division;

BMI ≈ 18.2

Therefore, the client's BMI is approximately 18.2. This value falls within the normal range for a 12-year-old individual and indicates a healthy weight status.

The correct answer is C, which states that dividing 41 kg by the square of 1.5 m gives a correct BMI of 18.2.

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A research study analyzed the health records of over 95,727 children. They divided the children at each age(2, 3, 4, or 5 years) into vaccinated for MMR and not vaccinated. 15,000 children were not vaccinated at age 2 and 8,000 remained not vaccinated at age 5. The autism rate for each group at each age was determined. The researchers found no association between the MMR vaccination and increased risk of autism spectrum disorder(ASD). This study is an

Answers

Answer:

A retrospective cohort study

Explanation:

A retrospective cohort study is a type of observational epidemiologic study where the risk of disease is retrospectively (i.e., posteriorly) compared between an exposed group versus a non-exposed group. In a similar way to prospective cohort studies, a retrospective cohort study also categorizes individuals under study depending on if they were exposed or not to the factor of interest. However, in this type of experimental design, the study begins at a point in time after both exposure and outcome have already occurred. Thus, a retrospective study is conceived after some individuals have already developed the outcome (e.g., disease/disorder) of interest.

The use of drugs to cure or treat a disease or disorder is called

Answers

Answer:

Drug therapy (pharmacotherapy)

Explanation:

Drug therapy (pharmacotherapy) is an important part of the medical field and relies on the science of pharmacology for continual advancement and on pharmacy for appropriate management

Which of the following changes in flow rate or in solute concentrations would NOT occur if the blood inflow rate were increased, increasing the pressure in the dialysis chamber?
A) The blood volume reaching the outflow tube per unit time would increase.
B) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the dialysate fluid would increase
C) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the blood outflow would increase or remain unchanged.
D) The filtration rate across the dialysis membrane would increase.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - B) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the dialysate fluid would increase

Explanation:

If the blood inflow rate were increased, increasing the pressure in the dialysis chamber, there would be increase in the blood volume comes to the outflow tube per unit time. The filtration rate across the membrane would increase because the pressure in the chamber would be greater

The osmotic concentration of proteins would not be expected to increase in the dialysate fluid because proteins generally do not pass through the membrane

Kyle, a runner, is interested in mixing two cereals to minimize caloric intake while maintaining at least 96 units of calcium and 24 units of iron in each serving. Cheerios has 6 units of calcium, 3 units of iron and 14 calories per ounce. Fruitloops has 12 units of calcium, 2 units of iron and 11 calories per ounce. How much of each cereal should Kyle consume to minimize calorie intake while maintaining the minimum nutrient levels (18pts)

Answers

Answer:

4oz of Cheerios, 6oz of Fruit Loops.

Explanation:

Cheerios x 4 = 24 calc, 12 iron, 56 calories

Fruit Loops x 6 = 72 calc, 12 iron, 66 calories

Total / 96 calc / 24 iron / 122 calories

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