When a pregnant woman has both elevated protein in her urine and gestational hypertension, pre-eclampsia is identified. Pre-eclampsia can become severe eclampsia. Seizures occur in eclamptic women as a result of the illness. Both pre-eclampsia and eclampsia are hypertension conditions associated with pregnancy. A abrupt rise in blood pressure is a symptom of pre-eclampsia. Eclampsia is a more serious condition that can cause unconsciousness or convulsions.
Several disorders may be linked to pregnancy-related hypertension. The second part of pregnancy might experience pregnancy-induced hypertension, which is an increase in blood pressure without proteinuria. Pre-eclampsia is a multisystem illness that is specific to pregnancy and is frequently accompanied with proteinuria and elevated blood pressure. Rarely does it appear before 20 weeks of pregnancy.
Eclampsia is the term for one or more convulsions connected to the pre-eclampsia condition. Pre-existing hypertension, often known as elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks of pregnancy, is not discussed in this review. It might be secondary to an underlying illness or essential hypertension, which is less frequent.
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Reilly is a nursing assistant working with Hunter. Reilly didn't get a chance to read Hunter's chart before entering
Hunter's room. Reilly introduces himself and says he is going to take Hunter's vitals. Hunter seems to understand but
is quiet. When Reilly turns away to get equipment, he keeps talking to Hunter to make him comfortable. He notices that
when he turns away from Hunter, Hunter waves his arms until Reilly is speaking directly face-to-face. Reilly looks at
Hunter's chart and brings in an interpreter for sign language. Which kind of communication barrier did Reilly
overcome?
Answer:
A language communication barrier
Explanation:
sign LANGUAGE :D
3. You are assisting in a four-surface amalgam procedure on tooth #30. The preparation
becomes very deep. Describe the supplemental materials that would be set out for this
procedure, and give the order in which they would be placed.
The following are the additional materials that will be provided for this procedure:
What is the function of calcium hydroxide?A white powder without even any smell is calcium hydroxide. It is applied in commercial contexts such sewage purification, paper production, building, and food processing. It can be used in dental and medicine. For instance, calcium hydroxide is commonly used in root canal fillings.
Briefing:
1. Calcium hydroxide is used in the liner to promote the development of secondary dentin. 2. Base, an insulated base that guards against heat shock on the teeth. Eugenol with zinc oxide. 3.Primer or desensitizer to seal the dentinal tubules Bond to get rid of the smear layer.
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What term is used to indicate that an ambulance service entity is associated with a medical facility?
The term is used to indicate that an ambulance service entity is associated with a medical facility is called Provider.
Emergency medical services (EMS), also known as ambulance services or paramedic services, are emergency services that provide urgent pre-hospital treatment and stabilization for serious illness and injuries and transport to definitive care.
They may also be known as a first aid squad FAST squad, emergency squad, ambulance squad, ambulance corps, life squad or by other initialisms such as EMAS or EMARS.
Ambulances are the primary vehicles for delivering EMS. These agencies may also operate a non-emergency patient transport service, and some have rescue squads to provide technical rescue services.
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Which of the following areas of the brain is most abnormal in PTSD?
a. Locus coeruleus
b. Hippocampus
c. Cingulate gyrus
d. Amygdala
Answer:
b. Hippocampus
Explanation:
The hippocampus is involved in memory, learning, and emotion.
The amygdala is the area of the brain that is most commonly associated with abnormalities in individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Option d is correct.
PTSD is a mental health condition that can occur in individuals who have experienced or witnessed traumatic events, such as violence, accidents, natural disasters, or combat.
The amygdala plays a crucial role in processing emotions, particularly fear and anxiety responses. It is responsible for detecting and responding to potential threats in the environment. In individuals with PTSD, the amygdala is often found to be hyperactive or over-responsive. This heightened activity can lead to exaggerated fear responses, hypervigilance, and difficulty distinguishing between real threats and non-threatening situations.
Additionally, the amygdala is closely connected to the hippocampus, another area of the brain that is affected by PTSD. The hippocampus is involved in memory formation and consolidation. In people with PTSD, the hippocampus may be smaller in size and have reduced functionality. This can contribute to difficulties in processing and contextualizing traumatic memories, as well as problems with memory recall.
While other brain areas listed in the options (such as the locus coeruleus, cingulate gyrus, and hippocampus) can also be impacted in individuals with PTSD, research has consistently shown that abnormalities in the amygdala play a central role in the emotional and fear-related symptoms associated with the disorder. Therefore, the amygdala is the most abnormal area of the brain in PTSD.
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Paano makatutulong ang pagiging matiisin sa pagpapaunlad ng pamumuhay?
Answer:Perseverance and fortitude
The persistence with fortitude is quite helpful to a person especially in times of need or crisis. Because if you are patient and courageous surely all the things you are going through in life you will be able to solve and be resolved, a person who is ready and able to face the trials of his life becomes strong no matter how difficult he does not give up, ready he will continue to face and fight it. A person of courage can be said to be a person who is brave and strong.
The persistence with fortitude strengthens a man, she was ready for any crisis her face in life even though he stumble, he will never give up because he will continue to rise and hard to solve the problem no matter how it is difficult especially when his heart is strong and he will apply positivity everything he can and everything will be possible as long as it is accompanied by belief and trust in God.
Explanation:
Using Internet resources, discuss one disease of each of these systems (1) cardiovascular/heart and vessels, (2) lymphatic system and digestive system. Include causes, symptoms, and risk factors for each disease in your discussion.
Answer:
1. Cardiovascular/Heart and Vessels:
Atherosclerosis is a disease of the cardiovascular system that occurs when plaque builds up in the walls of arteries, causing them to narrow and harden. This can lead to complications such as heart attack, stroke, and peripheral artery disease. The main risk factors for developing atherosclerosis include high blood pressure, high cholesterol levels, smoking, obesity, diabetes, and a family history of the disease. The symptoms of atherosclerosis vary depending on the location of the affected artery, but can include chest pain, shortness of breath, numbness or weakness in the legs, and difficulty speaking or understanding speech. Treatment for atherosclerosis may include lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise, medications to lower blood pressure and cholesterol levels, and in severe cases, surgery to remove the blockage.
2.Lymphatic System and Digestive System:
Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the digestive system, specifically the small intestine and colon. The exact cause of Crohn's disease is unknown, but it is thought to be related to a combination of genetic and environmental factors. The symptoms of Crohn's disease include abdominal pain, diarrhea, fatigue, weight loss, and sometimes rectal bleeding. The disease can also cause complications such as intestinal blockages and fistulas. Risk factors for developing Crohn's disease include a family history of the disease, smoking, and a history of infections in the gut. Treatment for Crohn's disease may include medication to reduce inflammation, dietary changes, and in some cases, surgery to remove damaged parts of the digestive system.
g which of the following statements about sepsis is false? which of the following statements about sepsis is false? it may be aggravated by antibiotics. lymphangitis may occur. it can be treated with antibiotics. symptoms include fever and decreased blood pressure. it usually is caused by gram-negative bacteria.
All statements given are true about sepsis.
Define sepsis
The body's overpowering and fatal response to infection is sepsis, which can cause organ failure, tissue damage, and death. Or to put it another way, it's your body's toxic, overactive response to an infection. Sepsis is a medical emergency that needs to be treated right away, just like heart attacks or strokes. Severe sepsis and septic shock are complications of sepsis.
Severe sepsis develops when there are additional symptoms of organ dysfunction, such as difficulty breathing (signs of lung problems), low or no urine output (signs of kidney problems), abnormal liver tests (signs of liver problems), and changes in mental status, in addition to the symptoms of sepsis (brain). Treatment in an intensive care unit is necessary for nearly all patients with severe sepsis.
Septic shock is the most serious condition and is identified when your blood pressure drops to dangerous levels. As soon as possible, antibiotic treatment is started. The first line of defense is typically broad-spectrum antibiotics, which work against a wide range of bacteria.
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Healthcare systems are working to improve care, reduce expenses, and improve the patient experience. The process of identifying, prioritizing, and implementing changes can be done right with the right tools, process, and people.
In this assignment, you will write an essay about the quality in healthcare. The minimum length requirement is 500 words. Respond to the following:
1. Give your definition of quality in healthcare. What are the characteristics of high quality healthcare?
2. Give an example of an approach to improve quality.
3. Why is quality in healthcare important? Provide evidence to support your opinion.
Please cite all your sources. Thank you.
This assignment discusses the concept of quality in healthcare, including its definition, characteristics of high-quality healthcare, an example of an approach to improve quality, and the importance of quality in healthcare.
To complete the assignment, "Quality in Healthcare," you can follow these steps:
1. Introduction:
a. Introduce the topic of quality in healthcare and its significance in improving care, reducing expenses, and enhancing the patient experience.
b. Provide a brief overview of the purpose of the essay and the structure of the response.
2. Definition of quality in healthcare:
a. Present your own definition of quality in healthcare.
a.biscuss the various dimensions and characteristics that contribute to high-quality healthcare.
c. Include factors such as patient safety, effectiveness of treatment, patient-centeredness, timeliness, efficiency, and equity.
3. Example of an approach to improve quality:
a. Provide an example of a specific approach or methodology that has been used to improve quality in healthcare.
b. Describe the approach in detail, including its key components and how it addresses the identified dimensions of quality.
c. Discuss any evidence or research that supports the effectiveness of the approach in achieving quality improvement.
4. Importance of quality in healthcare:
a. Explain why quality in healthcare is crucial and its impact on various stakeholders.
b. Discuss the benefits of high-quality healthcare, such as improved patient outcomes, enhanced patient satisfaction, reduced healthcare costs, and increased efficiency.
c. Support your claims with evidence from reputable sources, including studies, reports, or expert opinions.
5. Conclusion:
a. Summarize the key points discussed in the essay.
b. Reinforce the importance of quality in healthcare and its role in achieving the desired goals of healthcare systems.
c. Emphasize the need for ongoing efforts to identify, prioritize, and implement changes that enhance the quality of care.
6. Citations:
a. Ensure that all sources used in the essay are properly cited.
b. Follow the appropriate citation style (e.g., APA, MLA) and provide in-text citations as well as a reference list or bibliography.
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1. Dr. Foot forgot to go to the bank on the way to the office, so he has asked you to go into the petty cash fund so that he can have money for lunch. The petty cash is actually his money, so why shouldn’t you just give him the money? What do you need to do to be sure the petty cash fund is correctly accounted?
Answer:
By giving him alllllll his money and going to every ones house and seeing if they have any
Explanation:
The things that needed to do to be sure the petty cash fund is correctly accounted for are given below:
Purchase a lockbox.Assign responsibility to some authority. Store the box and set a limit.When have extra cash, deposit it into a petty cash fund. Create a transactional login system.What do you mean by the petty cash fund?The petty cash fund may be defined as the nominal sum which is preserved in hand to cover minor expenses, such as reimbursements or other office-related expenses.
The above-described processes are needed to sure the petty cash fund is correctly accounted for. All such steps are mandatory for doing transactions to or from with petty cash funds.
Therefore, it is justified and briefly described above.
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The plan that starts on the resident's admission and assists when the resident goes home is called
Answer:
discharge plan
Explanation:
What action can you take as a team during and after a resuscitation attempt that
helps individual team members perform better and brings awareness to system
strengths and deficiencies?
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
Overthinking
Practicing mutual respect
Debriefing
Criticizing
Debriefing is the action can you take as a team during and after a resuscitation attempt that helps individual team members perform better and brings awareness to system strengths and deficiencies.
What is debriefing?Debriefing is a fundamental action during critical response processes such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
Debriefing refers to the actions and procedures that involve communication between the members of a medical team in a clinical case.
Debriefing can result in a fundamental issue for understanding a medical problem/issue and thus safe lives.
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Ms. Hougland is scheduled for an outpatient procedure. You have obtained a precertification number for the
procedure. What purpose does a precertification number serve?
Allows the doctor to perform the procedure.
Allows the doctor to bill for the procedure.
Guarantees reimbursement to the doctor for the cost of the procedure.
Requires the patient to pay for the service.
Answer:
allows the doctor to pay the bill for the procedure.
Explanation:
he makes sure that the patient had the insurance before the procedure
The purpose that the precertification number serve is to guarantee reimbursement to the doctor for the cost of the procedure
The main function of the precertification number is that there are some scenarios whereby the providers will have to contact the insurer of the patient and they'll then get a precertification number which will be enable the hospital or the doctor to be reimbursed by the insurance company later.Without the precertification number, the provider won't be reimbursed.In conclusion, the correct option is C.
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A patients large bowel obstruction has failed to resolve spontaneously and the patients worsening condition has warranted admission to the medical unit. Which of the following aspects of nursing care is most appropriate for this patient?
A) Administering bowel stimulants as ordered
B) Administering bulkforming laxatives as ordered
C) Performing deep palpation as ordered to promote peristalsis
D) Preparing the patient for surgical bowel resection
The nursing intervention that would be most appropriate for this patient would be to administer bulkforming laxatives as directed.
If diverticulitis is thought to be the cause, which of the following diagnostics should be used?The test of preference to confirm a diverticulitis suspicion is a CT scan with intravenous and oral contrast.
What contributes to small bowel blockage the most frequently?Typically, cancer, hernias, or scar tissue are to blame for small bowel blockages. Most blockages in the United States are brought on by earlier operations. After handling during a surgery, the colon frequently develops bands of scar tissue (referred to as adhesions).
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list 2 Habits for successful aging
Answer:
not smoking and getting some form of daily physical activity
A person eats a candy bar, and the sugar level in her blood gets very high. Her body releases insulin into her blood. The insulin causes extra sugar to be stored in the muscles, and the sugar level in the blood returns to normal. This is an example of
Answer:
Homeostasis
Explanation:
fat secretes hormones that can cause low-grade chronic _____.
Fat secretes hormones that can cause low-grade chronic inflammation.
Inflammation is a physiological response of the body that seeks to remove stimuli that trigger cell injury. Inflammation is the immune system's first line of defence against pathogens, toxins, and irritants. However, chronic inflammation may contribute to a number of diseases, including heart disease, cancer, arthritis, and Alzheimer's disease. Excess body fat, on the other hand, can cause low-grade chronic inflammation by releasing inflammatory hormones.
Cytokines are examples of hormones that are released by excess fat and can cause low-grade chronic inflammation. These cytokines include interleukin-1 (IL-1), interleukin-6 (IL-6), and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha). Cytokines have been implicated in a variety of diseases, including type 2 diabetes, cancer, and heart disease.
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Un niño que ha enfermado de paperas o varicela, no desarrollará estas enfermedades en una segunda oportunidad, porque: I.- la piel, mucosas y lágrimas impiden el ingreso de los microbios. II.- en el primer contacto adquirió anticuerpos. III.- interviene la inmunidad Adaptativa, la cual presenta "memoria" IV.- su sistema defensivo está preparado frente a una segunda exposición
Answer:
Las respuestas II, III y IV son correctas
Explanation:
La papera, también conocida como parotiditis, es una enfermedad vírica altamente contagiosa causada por un virus de la familia Paramyxoviridae, la cual se desarrolla principalmente en las glándulas parótidas situadas a ambos lados de la mandíbula. La inmunidad a esta enfermedad puede ser lograda a partir de la aplicación de la vacuna triple viral, cuyo nombre se debe a que esta vacuna también permite adquirir inmunidad contra los virus del sarampión y la rubéola. Por otra parte, la varicela es también una enfermedad muy contagiosa que se presenta generalmente en niños, la cual es causada por el herpesvirus de varicela-zoster. Esta enfermedad se caracteriza por la presencia de erupciones rojas en la piel que causan picazón, lo cual a su vez genera lesiones cutáneas. Tanto la varicela como la papera sólo se producen una vez ya que una vez contagiado el organismo adquiere inmunidad frente a estos virus a través de un mecanismo adaptativo en el cual linajes específicos de linfocitos B capaces de secretar anticuerpos específicos contra ambos virus proliferan rápidamente a través de un proceso conocido como expansión monoclonal, con lo cual el sistema inmune adquiere memoria inmunológica.
What are the nursing interventions in order for a patient undergoing hemodialysis?
Answer:
The nurses responsibilities include: checking the patients' vital signs and talking with them to assess their condition. teaching patients about their disease and its treatment and answering any questions. overseeing the dialysis treatment from start to finish
Explanation:
What are ombre brows Santa Monica? What are the Benefits of Ombre Brows?
Ombre brows Santa Monica is a cosmetic tattooing technique that creates a natural-looking, gradient effect on the eyebrows.
The benefits of Ombre brows are many. Firstly, they provide a fuller and more defined appearance to the eyebrows, making them more symmetrical and balanced. This technique is especially beneficial for people who have sparse or thin eyebrows, as it can create the illusion of fuller brows.
Additionally, Ombre brows can help save time during daily makeup routine, as they do not need to be filled in every day.Ombre brows also have a longer-lasting effect than traditional eyebrow makeup, lasting up to two years with proper care. This means that people can enjoy beautifully shaped and filled-in brows for an extended period without worrying about smudging or fading.
Another benefit of Ombre brows is that they are customizable and can be tailored to suit individual preferences. Clients can choose the shape, color, and intensity of their Ombre brows to match their skin tone, hair color, and personal style.Overall, Ombre brows Santa Monica is a popular cosmetic tattooing technique that can enhance the appearance of the eyebrows and provide long-lasting benefits.
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A nurse is caring for a client in Buck's Traction. Which of the following nursing interventions would ensure effective therapy? Select all that apply.
a. Ensure that all weights are free hanging.
b. Prevent wrinkling of the traction bandage.
c. Assist the client to roll from side to side.
d. Support the leg in adduction.
e. Maintain countertraction with weights.
A nurse caring for a client in Buck's Traction should implement several nursing interventions to ensure effective therapy like Ensure that all weights are free hanging, Prevent wrinkling of the traction bandage, Support the leg in adduction, Maintain countertraction with weights. The correct options are a, b, d and e.
First, it is crucial to ensure that all weights are free hanging (a), as this maintains the correct force and prevents complications related to inadequate or excessive traction. Preventing wrinkling of the traction bandage (b) is also essential, as wrinkles can cause skin irritation or impaired circulation.
While caring for a client in Buck's Traction, it is important to support the leg in adduction (d), which keeps the limb properly aligned and prevents injury to surrounding structures. Maintaining countertraction with weights (e) is another critical intervention, as it allows the traction to be effective by providing an opposing force.
However, assisting the client to roll from side to side (c) is not recommended for patients in Buck's Traction, as this movement could disrupt the traction and increase the risk of injury. Instead, the nurse should follow specific protocols for turning and positioning the client while ensuring the traction remains intact.
In summary, to ensure effective therapy in Buck's Traction, a nurse should: (a) ensure all weights are free hanging, (b) prevent wrinkling of the traction bandage, (d) support the leg in adduction, and (e) maintain countertraction with weights.
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Scenario 1
you have just finished first scrubbing for a tonsillectomy. while
you are cleaning up, the patient is extubated and begins emitting
a high-pitched "crowing sound, indicating that the patient is
experiencing laryngospasm.
1. what steps do you take?
?
2. what steps does the anesthesia care provider take?
steps that should be taken as a nurse are: gently suction the larynx. remove any triggering stimulants. ensure clear the larynx
A abrupt spasm of the vocal chords is referred to as the laryngospasm.
Laryngospasms are frequently sign of an underlying problem.
They can occasionally take place as result of stress or anxiety. Asthma, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and the vocal cord dysfunction can also cause them. Sometimes they take place for the unknown reasons.
Laryngospasms are uncommon and often last under minute. You ought to be able to speak or to breathe during that period.
They typically don't indicate significant issue, and they normally don't have fatal consequences larynx. You might only ever have one laryngospasm in our entire life.
Discovering source of recurring laryngospasms is important.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes and a new prescription for 14 units of regular insulin and 28 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously at breakfast daily. What is the total number of units of insulin that the nurse should prepare in the insulin syringe?
The nurse should prepare a total of 42 units of insulin in the syringe.
The calculation is as follows:
14 units of regular insulin + 28 units of NPH insulin = 42 units total
The nurse will mix these two types of insulin in the same syringe, following the proper procedure for drawing up and administering mixed insulin doses. The regular (short-acting) insulin should be drawn up into the syringe first, followed by the NPH (intermediate-acting) insulin to prevent contamination of the regular insulin vial with NPH insulin. This is because regular insulin can be given intravenously, but NPH insulin cannot. If contamination were to occur, it could potentially create issues if that regular insulin were later used for an IV.
describe the process of communication between two neurons at the synaptic cleft. how do SSRI’s impact this communication? Use the following words in the explanation, Action potential, Axon terminal, Dendrite, Neurotransmitter, receptor, synapse, vesicles, calcium ions
The following may be observed in the Defensive Stage.
A) Marked change in their behavior with increased volume or tone of voice
B) Decreased physical activity and lethargy
C) More defensive, less rational behavior, unresponsive to supportive approach
D) A and C
Following the options given in the question, the correct option is option D "A and C".
A defensive stage refers to a stage when the behavior of a person becomes aggressive or submissive and this occurs because the person feel threatened or believes that he may be harmed.
During a defensive stage, it should be noted that the behavior of the person may change as the person may start shouting or increase their tone.
Also, the person can become more defensive and unresponsive to supportive approach.
Option B is incorrect. During a defensive stage, there is an increase in physical activity as there is an increase in energy.
Therefore, the correct option is D
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The amount of essential fat in the form of vegetable oil needed daily by humans is approximately __________ teaspoons.
Answer:
3 to 4 teaspoons.
Explanation:
storing energy
Relating to special services
Answer:
what?? I'm not sure what you are trying to say here??
Answer:
Plz give full question so we will able to help you
Explanation:
Blood pressure can be taken by using the carotid artery. This artery is found on the side of the neck. Which region best describes the location of the carotid artery
Answer:cervical
Explanation: location of the artery is in the neck or “cervical” area
what 2 aspects of echocerdiography are more reproducible in 4d echo imaging over 2d
The two aspects of echocardiography that are more reproducible in 4D echo imaging over 2D are left ventricular volume and systolic function.
What is echocardiography?Echocardiography is a diagnostic technique that uses ultrasound echoing to measure the functioning of the heart.
The instrument used is called an echocardiogram and the results of an echocardiogram can be obtained in either 2D, 3D, or 4D.
2D echocardiography imaging only produces images
4D echocardiography produces live video feeds about the functioning of the heart.
Hence, results produced by 4D echocardiography are more accurate and reproducible.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. at arachnoid villi, csf is reabsorbed into venous blood of ____________ venous sinuses.
At arachnoid villi, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is reabsorbed into venous blood of dural venous sinuses.
The arachnoid villi are small projections of the arachnoid membrane that protrude into the venous sinuses of the brain's dura mater, which is the outermost protective layer of the brain.
The CSF flows through the subarachnoid space that lies between the arachnoid and pia mater, and it is absorbed into the bloodstream through the arachnoid villi.
The dural venous sinuses are large blood channels located between the layers of the dura mater, which drain the deoxygenated blood from the brain and transport it back to the heart.
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when is it appropriate to shift the goals of treatment for a child who has a chronic or complex disease toward prepration for dealth
It is appropriate to shift the goals of treatment for a child who has a chronic or complex disease toward preparation for death when it becomes clear that curative treatment options have been exhausted, and there is a significant decline in the child's health status.
The decision to shift the goals of treatment for a child with a chronic or complex disease toward preparation for death should be made when it becomes clear that curative treatment options have been exhausted and that the child's health status is significantly deteriorating.
In cases where the child is terminally ill, the parents should be informed of the possibility that the child's health could deteriorate, and treatment may no longer be curative but rather palliative.
A multidisciplinary approach involving doctors, parents, nurses, social workers, and psychologists should be taken when discussing this shift in the goals of care.
When it becomes clear that the goals of care need to be changed, the healthcare team should initiate an open discussion with the parents regarding their child's illness prognosis and its impact on the child's well-being.
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