Use the table to find the number of miles x you need to bike on friday so that the mean number of miles biked per day is 5

Answer:

The first step is to label the points being (1,2.3),(6,6.8) in which the first ordered pairs is the number of weeks, and the second one is the dollars in millions.

Hence, the slope is: m=(6.8-2.3)/(6-1) = 4.5/5 = 9/10 = 0.9

The slope represents the dollar rate in the millions per week. In this case, the movie grossed $0.9 million per week from week one to the sixth week.

Answer: The answer would be 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Rise over run or fall over run so the fall is 10 and run is 10 and 10/10 is 1.

Answer:

x= 54°

Step-by-step explanation:

43 + x - 7 = 90°

36 + x = 90°

x= 90-36

x= 54°

Answer:

54

Step-by-step explanation:

90-43 = 47

x-7 = 47

x=47+7

x = 54

Answer:

a = 4

b=2

x=18

QR =16+1=17

Angle QRS =59

Step-by-step explanation:

4a+1 = 2a + 9

2a = 8

a = 4

6b = 11b-10

-5b=-10

-b= -2

b=2

6x+13 = 7x - 5 (opposite angles are equal)

-x=-18

x=18

QR =16+1=17

Angle QRS = 180 - 18•6+13 =59 (PQR + QRS = 180)

Step-by-step explanation:

(-0.4)×(-2)+(-0.4)×(-9)

formula for distributive property is if

A(B+C)

=A×B + A×C

Emilio can find that the critical value t* for a 90% confidence level and 11 degrees of freedom is approximately 1.796.

To construct a t interval for the mean lifespan with 90% confidence, Emilio needs to use a t-distribution with n-1 degrees of freedom. The confidence interval for the population is given by:

confidence interval = x ± t × (s·x/√n)

Where x is the sample mean, s·x is the sample standard deviation, n is the sample size, and t is the critical value of the t-distribution.

Since the sample size is n=12, the degrees of freedom for the t-distribution will be (n-1) = 11. To find the critical value t* for a 90% confidence level and 11 degrees of freedom, Emilio can use a t-distribution table or a statistical software.

Using a t-distribution table or calculator, Emilio can find that the critical value t* for a 90% confidence level and 11 degrees of freedom is approximately 1.796.

To know more about  standard deviation, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28528375

#SPJ1

The probability of roll outcome:

1st 2 = 1/6

2nd prime = 1/2, and

3rd more than 4 = 1/3.

Probability is the fraction of the required outcome event divided by the number of possible outcomes of events.

In a fair die, considering the outcomes from the question:

probability of the 1st roll to be 2 = 1/6

probability of 2nd roll to be prime = 3/6

probability of 2nd roll to be prime = 1/2

probability of 3rd roll to be more than 4 = 2/6

probability of 3rd roll to be more than 4 = 1/3

Therefore, the fracions 1/6, 1/2, and 1/3 are the probabilities of the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd rolls outcome respectively.

Learn more about probability here: https://brainly.com/question/24830485

#SPJ1

Step-by-step explanation:

it seems you solved the tricky part yourself already.

just to be sure, let's do the first derivative here again.

the easiest way would be for me to simply multiply the functional expression out and then do a simple derivative action ...

f(t) = (t² + 6t + 7)(3t² + 3) = 3t⁴ + 3t² + 18t³ + 18t + 21t² + 21 =

= 3t⁴ + 18t³ + 24t² + 18t + 21

f'(t) = 12t³ + 54t² + 48t + 18

and now comes the simple part (what was your problem here, don't you know how functions work ? then you are in a completely wrong class doing derivatives; for that you need to understand what functions are, and how they work). we calculate the function result of f'(2).

we simply put the input number (2) at every place of the input variable (t).

so,

f'(2) = 12×2³ + 54×2² + 48×2 + 18 = 96 + 216 + 96 + 18 =

= 426

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

\(\tt{ \green{P} \orange{s} \red{y} \blue{x} \pink{c} \purple{h} \green{i} e}\)

The maximum displacement is 5 centimeters.

The time required for one oscillation is π seconds.

The frequency is 1 / π Hz.

Equation to model the motion of the object is x(t) = 5 × cos(2t)

The maximum displacement from equilibrium can be determined by observing that the object is pulled down 5 centimeters from its rest position.

In simple harmonic motion, the amplitude represents the maximum displacement from equilibrium.

The period of oscillation is given as π seconds.

The period (T) is the time required for one complete oscillation.

The frequency (f) is the reciprocal of the period and represents the number of oscillations per unit time.

Thus, the frequency is the inverse of the period: f = 1 / T.

To model the motion of the object, we can use the equation for simple harmonic motion:

x(t) = A×cos(ωt + φ)

A = 5 centimeters (maximum displacement),

T = π seconds (period),

f = 1 / π Hz (frequency).

To find ω, we can use the relation ω = 2π / T:

ω = 2π / π = 2 radians/second.

The equation to model the motion of the object is:

x(t) = 5 × cos(2t)

To learn more on Displacement click:

https://brainly.com/question/29957379

#SPJ1

The x-intercepts of the graph of f(x) are x = 3/2 and x = 1,the Vertex of the graph of f(x) is (5/4, 3/8), and it is a minimum point, The vertex is at (5/4, 3/8). This is the minimum point of the graph.

Part A: To find the x-intercepts of the graph of f(x), we set f(x) equal to zero and solve for x.

2x^2 - 5x + 3 = 0

To factor this quadratic equation, we look for two numbers that multiply to give 3 (the coefficient of the constant term) and add up to -5 (the coefficient of the linear term). These numbers are -3 and -1.

2x^2 - 3x - 2x + 3 = 0

x(2x - 3) - 1(2x - 3) = 0

(2x - 3)(x - 1) = 0

Setting each factor equal to zero, we get:

2x - 3 = 0   -->   x = 3/2

x - 1 = 0   -->   x = 1

Therefore, the x-intercepts of the graph of f(x) are x = 3/2 and x = 1.

Part B: To determine whether the vertex of the graph of f(x) is a maximum or a minimum, we look at the coefficient of the x^2 term, which is positive (2 in this case). A positive coefficient indicates that the parabola opens upwards, so the vertex will be a minimum.

To find the coordinates of the vertex, we can use the formula x = -b/2a. In the equation f(x) = 2x^2 - 5x + 3, the coefficient of the x term is -5, and the coefficient of the x^2 term is 2.

x = -(-5) / (2*2) = 5/4

Substituting this value of x back into the equation, we can find the y-coordinate:

f(5/4) = 2(5/4)^2 - 5(5/4) + 3 = 25/8 - 25/4 + 3 = 3/8

Therefore, the vertex of the graph of f(x) is (5/4, 3/8), and it is a minimum point.

Part C: To graph f(x), we can use the information obtained in Part A and Part B.

- The x-intercepts are x = 3/2 and x = 1. These are the points where the graph intersects the x-axis.

- The vertex is at (5/4, 3/8). This is the minimum point of the graph.

We can plot these points on a coordinate plane and draw a smooth curve passing through the x-intercepts and the vertex. Since the coefficient of the x^2 term is positive, the parabola opens upwards, and the graph will be concave up.

Additionally, we can consider the symmetry of the graph. Since the coefficient of the linear term is -5, the line of symmetry is given by x = -(-5) / (2*2) = 5/4, which is the x-coordinate of the vertex. The graph will be symmetric with respect to this line.

By connecting the plotted points and sketching the curve smoothly, we can accurately graph the function f(x).

For more such questions on Vertex .

https://brainly.com/question/28747454

#SPJ8

Answer: 1/2

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

What is the difference between linear and exponential functions? Linear functions change at a constant rate per unit interval. An exponential function changes by a common ratio over equal intervals.

Answer:

a)

In this question, for each call, there are only two possible outcomes, either it is successful, or it is not, so binary outcomes. For each call, the probability of a success or failure is the same, which means that the trials are independent, having the same value of p. And the number of trials, which is 50, is fixed. This means that this is a binomial distribution.

b) The mean is 1 and the standard deviation is 0.9899.

c) \(P(X \geq 48) = 0\)

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

\(P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}\)

In which \(C_{n,x}\) is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

\(C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}\)

And p is the probability of X happening.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

\(E(X) = np\)

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

\(\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}\)

From past experience, she is successful on 2% of her calls.

This means that \(p = 0.02\)

50 calls.

This means that \(n = 50\)

a. This is binomial distribution. Explain using the BINS method why this is so.

BINS: Binary outcomes, Independent Trials, n is fixed, and same value of p for all trials.

In this question, for each call, there are only two possible outcomes, either it is successful, or it is not, so binary outcomes. For each call, the probability of a success or failure is the same, which means that the trials are independent, having the same value of p. And the number of trials, which is 50, is fixed. This means that this is a binomial distribution.

b. Find the mean and standard deviation of X.

The mean is:

\(E(X) = np = 50*0.02 = 1\)

The standard deviation is:

\(\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)} = \sqrt{50*0.02*0.98} = 0.9899\)

The mean is 1 and the standard deviation is 0.9899.

c. Find the probablity of P(X>or equal to 48)

This is:

\(P(X \geq 48) = P(X = 48) + P(X = 49) + P(X = 50)\)

In which

\(P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}\)

\(P(X = 48) = C_{50,48}.(0.02)^{48}.(0.98)^{2} \approx 0\)

\(P(X = 49) = C_{50,49}.(0.02)^{49}.(0.98)^{1} \approx 0\)

\(P(X = 50) = C_{50,50}.(0.02)^{50}.(0.98)^{0} \approx 0\)

So

\(P(X \geq 48) = 0\)

Answer:

The magnitude of the vector is 9.165 and it's direction is 40.6°

Step-by-step explanation:

A vector quantity is a quantity that has both size (magnitude) and direction. Examples of vector quantities are force, velocity and impulse.

Magnitude of vector v is given by

|v| = √6²+7²

= √36+49

= √84

= 9.165

Direction of vector v is obtained by:

\( \tan( \theta) = \frac{x}{y} \)

\(\theta = {tan}^{ - 1} ( \frac{6}{7}) \)

\(\theta = {40.6°}\)

Learn more about vector quantities from: https://brainly.in/question/3437975

#SPJ1

Answer:

2 feet 3 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

So we know there are 12 inches in one foot. so 27/3= 2 remainder 3. So the answer is 2 feet 3 inches

The solution is (FoF) (0) = -8, when f(x) = 3x-2.

An equation is a  mathematical statement that is made up of two expressions connected by an equal sign.  In its simplest form in algebra, the definition of an equation is a mathematical statement that shows that two mathematical expressions are equal. For instance, 3x + 5 = 14 is an equation, in which 3x + 5 and 14 are two expressions separated by an 'equal' sign.

here, we have,

f(x) = 3x-2

i.e. fof(x)

 =3(3x-2)-2

=9x-8

so. fof(0)

   =9*0-8

   = -8

Hence, The solution is (FoF) (0) = -8, when f(x) = 3x-2.

To learn more on equation click:

brainly.com/question/24169758

#SPJ1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2 , 2/3 , 5/6

Midpoint of AB:

AB/2 = (16x+2)/2 = 8x+1

AB/2= C =AC

So:

8x+1 =4x+30

Solve for x:

8x-4x=30-1

12x=29

x=29/12

x= 2.4

Answer:

v = -12

Step-by-step explanation:

29 = -8v - 7 + 5v

Combine the 'like terms':  

29 = (-8v + 5v) - 7

29 = -3v -7

Add 7 to both sides:

29 + 7 = -3v -7 +7

36     =    -3v + 0

36      =    -3v

Divide both sides by the coefficient in front of the variable 'v' because we want to get 'v' all by itself. So, divide by -3.

36/-3 = -3v/-3

   -12  =  v

And that is the answer, v is negative twelve

Answer:

v=

Step-by-step explanation:

29= -8v- 7 + 5v

-8v + 5v - 7 = 29

-3v - 7 = 29

-3v - 7 + 7 = 29 + 7

-3v = 36

-3v ÷ -3 = 36 ÷ -3

v = -12

Answer: ZT = ZS

Step-by-step explanation: ZT = ZS must be true under all circumstances. This is because a perpendicular bisector of a line cuts the line into two equal pieces. It is the midpoint of the entire line. Thus, ZT is the same as ZS since the line is equally cut in half and thus are the same.

Answer:

  1) CW 270° or CCW 90°

Step-by-step explanation:

In each case, you want to identify two transformations that will map the preimage to the image.

We note the transformation maps ...

  A(-7, 0) ⇒ A'(0, -7) . . . . . . CCW 90° or CW 270°

  B(-4, -1) ⇒ B'(1, -4)

  C(-7, 3) ⇒ C'(-3, -7)

These can be described by ...

  (x, y) ⇒ (-y, x)

This transformation is equivalent to either of the two transformations ...

As above, rotation about the origin by 90° in one direction is the same as rotation 270° about the origin in the other direction. The attached graph shows the result either way. The two equivalent transformations are ...

The coordinate transformation is ...

  (x, y) ⇒ (y, -x)

Answer:

the correct answer is -1/16 i believe

Using double angle identity, we are able to prove tan(x)(1 + cos(2x)) = sin(2x).

To prove the identity tan(x)(1 + cos(2x)) = sin(2x), we can start by using trigonometric identities to simplify both sides of the equation.

Starting with the left-hand side (LHS):

tan(x)(1 + cos(2x))

We know that tan(x) = sin(x) / cos(x) and that cos(2x) = cos²(x) - sin²(x). Substituting these values, we get:

LHS = (sin(x) / cos(x))(1 + cos²(x) - sin²(x))

Next, we can simplify the expression by expanding and combining like terms:

LHS = sin(x) / cos(x) + sin(x)cos²(x) / cos(x) - sin³(x) / cos(x)

Simplifying further:

LHS = sin(x) / cos(x) + sin(x)cos(x) - sin³(x) / cos(x)

Now, let's work on the right-hand side (RHS):

sin(2x)

Using the double angle identity for sine, sin(2x) = 2sin(x)cos(x).

Now, let's compare the LHS and RHS expressions:

LHS = sin(x) / cos(x) + sin(x)cos(x) - sin³(x) / cos(x)

RHS = 2sin(x)cos(x)

To prove the identity, we need to show that the LHS expression is equal to the RHS expression. We can combine the terms on the LHS to get a common denominator:

LHS = [sin(x) - sin³(x) + sin(x)cos²(x)] / cos(x)

Now, using the identity sin²(x) = 1 - cos²(x), we can rewrite the numerator:

LHS = [sin(x) - sin³(x) + sin(x)(1 - sin²(x))] / cos(x)

    = [sin(x) - sin³(x) + sin(x) - sin³(x)] / cos(x)

    = 2sin(x) - 2sin³(x) / cos(x)

Now, using the identity 2sin(x) = sin(2x), we can simplify further:

LHS = sin(2x) - 2sin³(x) / cos(x)

Comparing this with the RHS expression, we see that LHS = RHS, proving the identity.

Learn more on trigonometric identity here;

https://brainly.com/question/24496175

#SPJ1

There are 1140 different possible ways to select 3 restaurants out of 20 for the promotional program.

Combination and permutation are two alternative strategies in mathematics to divide up a collection of components into subsets. The subset's components can be listed in any order when combined. The components of the subset are listed in a permutation in a certain order.The combination formula, which is: can be used to resolve this issue.

n C r = r! * (n-r)!

where r is the number of restaurants to be chosen, and n is the total number of restaurants (20 in this case). (3 in this case).

By replacing these values, we obtain:

20 C 3 = 20! / (3! * (20-3)!) = 20! / (3! * 17!) = (20 * 19 * 18) / (3 * 2 * 1) = 1140

Learn more about permutation here:

brainly.com/question/30649574

#SPJ1

Answer:

A. 7 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

I calculated it logically

Answer:

84 represents 120% of 70

Step-by-step explanation:

70 represents 100%

To find what percent represents 84, we can use the next proportion:

\(\frac{70}{84} =\frac{100}{x} \)

Solving for x:

\(70~x~=100~x~84\)

\(x=\frac{8400}{70} \)

\(x=120\)%

Hence, The Answer is 120%

Answer:

what do you need to find the X or what

The dividends per share for preferred stock for each year are: Year 1 - $1.25, Year 2 - $2.25, Year 3 - $3.25. The dividends per share for common stock for each year are all $0.

To determine the dividends per share for preferred and common stock for each year, we need to divide the total dividends by the number of shares for each type of stock.

Preferred Stock:

Dividends per share of preferred stock = Total dividends for preferred stock / Number of preferred shares

Year 1:

Dividends per share of preferred stock for Year 1 = $50,000 / 40,000 shares = $1.25

Year 2:

Dividends per share of preferred stock for Year 2 = $90,000 / 40,000 shares = $2.25

Year 3:

Dividends per share of preferred stock for Year 3 = $130,000 / 40,000 shares = $3.25

Common Stock:

Dividends per share of common stock = Total dividends for common stock / Number of common shares

Year 1:

Dividends per share of common stock for Year 1 = ($50,000 - Total dividends for preferred stock) / 100,000 shares = ($50,000 - $50,000) / 100,000 shares = $0

Year 2:

Dividends per share of common stock for Year 2 = ($90,000 - Total dividends for preferred stock) / 100,000 shares = ($90,000 - $90,000) / 100,000 shares = $0

Year 3:

Dividends per share of common stock for Year 3 = ($130,000 - Total dividends for preferred stock) / 100,000 shares = ($130,000 - $130,000) / 100,000 shares = $0

The dividends per share for preferred stock for each year are: Year 1 - $1.25, Year 2 - $2.25, Year 3 - $3.25. The dividends per share for common stock for each year are all $0.

for more questions on stock

https://brainly.com/question/18124452

#SPJ8