Transformation is C)the process by which DNA is transferred into a bacterium from the uptake of exogenous genetic material. So, correct option is C.
Transformation change can characterize as the most common way of taking up of an extracellular or free DNA strand of one bacterial cell (giver's cell) by the equipped bacterial cell (beneficiary's cell). The taking up of the DNA strand happens either by regular or counterfeit means.
The change happens generally in the firmly related species. Hence, change only alludes to the immediate addition, joining and articulation of the exogenous DNA in the able bacterial cell (gets changed by the consideration of free DNA).
Transformation change in microorganisms was first concentrated on by a researcher Frederick Griffith in 1928. As per Griffith, the DNA or quality exchange can happen either normally or misleadingly starting with one sort of microorganisms then onto the next. For instance, Change of non-harmful strain to a destructive cell or the other way around.
Hence, option C is correct.
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(Complete question) is:
transformation is group of answer choices
a)the ingestion of bacteria or other material by phagocytes
b)the process by which dna is from one bacterium to another via viral infection (phage)
c)the process by which dna is transferred into a bacterium from the uptake of exogenous genetic material
d)the process by which rna is passed from one bacterium to another
Filtration is greater than reabsorption at the arterial end of a capillary because
a. BCOP is greater at the arterial end
b. BHP is greater at the arterial end
c. IFOP is greater at the arterial end
d. IFHP is greater at the arterial end
Filtration is greater than reabsorption at the arterial end of a capillary because b. BHP is greater at the arterial end
Filtration is greater than reabsorption at the arterial end of a capillary because BHP is greater at the arterial end. In capillaries, hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure are responsible for fluid movement from capillaries into the interstitial space and vice versa. Arteries have high blood pressure, which pushes the fluid from the capillaries to the interstitial space at a rate greater than that at which it is reabsorbed from the interstitial space. The plasma in capillaries has higher hydrostatic pressure than the interstitial fluid, and this hydrostatic pressure is higher at the arterial end than the venous end.
The force at which fluid is forced out of the capillary into the interstitial space is termed blood hydrostatic pressure (BHP), which is primarily determined by arterial pressure and cardiac output. Osmotic pressure, which is determined by plasma proteins, pulls fluid into the capillary by osmosis. The combination of blood hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure determines whether fluid will be filtered out of or reabsorbed into the capillary. At the arterial end, blood hydrostatic pressure (BHP) is greater than interstitial fluid osmotic pressure (IFOP) and blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP), resulting in filtration of fluid from the capillary to the interstitial fluid. So therefore the correct answer is b. BHP is greater at the arterial end.
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Filtration is greater than reabsorption at the arterial end of a capillary becauseBHP is greater at the arterial end. At the arterial end of a capillary, there is a net movement of fluid outside of the capillary, i.e. filtration. In contrast, the venous end of the capillary has a net movement of fluid into the capillary, i.e. reabsorption.
Filtration is greater than reabsorption at the arterial end of a capillary because BHP is greater at the arterial end.The blood hydrostatic pressure (BHP) is the driving force behind the filtration process. The pressure within the capillary pushes fluid and solutes out of the capillary into the surrounding interstitial space. At the arterial end of the capillary, the blood pressure is higher than the IFOP (interstitial fluid osmotic pressure) which causes the fluid to move out of the capillary, i.e. filtration. In contrast, the venous end of the capillary, the blood pressure is lower than the IFOP which causes fluid to move into the capillary, i.e. reabsorption.
Thus, BHP is greater at the arterial end, which results in filtration being greater than reabsorption at the arterial end of a capillary.
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How many wings does a Winged fruits
Answer: winged fruits have two or more wings
Explanation:
i hope this helps ^_^
Part E: Estimate Greenhouse Gas Emission
You’ll design your eco-friendly home to reduce the use of carbon dioxide compared to the average home in the state. Estimate greenhouse gas emissions for your house. Use these three government tools to generate the data you need.
First, go to the US Energy Information Administration and click “Average monthly residential electricity consumption, prices, and bills by state.” Find your state and the average kilowatt-hours of electricity used per month in your state. Multiply that number by 12 to get the amount of energy used in one year.
Then visit the EPA's Greenhouse Gas Equivalencies Calculator and enter the kilowatt-hours of energy for one year into the “If You Have Energy Data” box. Select kilowatt-hours of electricity and click Calculate. The kilowatts converted into emissions equivalents (such as miles driven and average household energy). This information will give you a better perspective on the greenhouse gas emissions for the average home in your state.
Finally, click the EPA's Power Profiler and enter the ZIP code. Choose one of the electrical companies listed (any one will work) and press Enter. Scroll down to see how much of the energy in this ZIP code comes from renewable energy and nuclear energy (a nonrenewable, cleaner energy source) compared to fossil fuel sources (oil, coal, and gas). You’ll also see bar graphs that compare your ZIP code’s energy profile to the national average.
Based on the data you gathered, answer the following questions:
What conclusion can you draw about the emissions of greenhouse gases for the average home in your state or ZIP code? What factors do you think contribute to this emission rate?
How do the emissions in your ZIP code compare to greenhouse gas emissions across the nation? Even if it’s better than the national average, is there room for improvement?
The greenhouse gas is harmful for the earth's environment, and this happens when there is a maximum amount of carbon dioxide released to the atmosphere, which is caused by a lot of human usage of fossil fuels for electricity, etc.
What are the negative effects of green house gases?Several gases are released into the atmosphere, and as a result, the atmosphere warms, negatively impacting many living things such as animals and plants. To reduce the negative consequences of this warming, the emission of carbon dioxide should be decreased.
Hence, the greenhouse gas is harmful for the earth's environment, and this happens when there is a maximum amount of carbon dioxide released to the atmosphere, which is caused by a lot of human usage of fossil fuels for electricity, etc.
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4. sharks and whales both have streamlined bodies and tail flukes. how do we know that these similarities are because of convergent evolution?
We know that the similarities between sharks and whales are due to convergent evolution because they are not closely related organisms.
Convergent evolution occurs when two or more different species develop similаr trаits or chаrаcteristics in response to similаr environmentаl pressures. Whаles аnd shаrks аre not closely relаted, so these trаits were not inherited from а common аncestor. While whаles were evolved from tetrаpods, shаrks were not. Аlthough they both hаve streаmlined bodies аnd tаil flukes, these trаits developed independently in eаch group аs аn аdаptаtion to their аquаtic environment. Therefore, the similаrities between shаrks аnd whаles аre аn exаmple of convergent evolution.
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What do you notice is generally similar across all the specimens?
The types of bones are similar
When examining bones from different species, it is clear that there are certain similarities.
Bones are made up of basic materialsThey have similar structural elementsSimilarities in shapes and sizes across speciesFor example, all bones are made up of the same basic materials, including collagen, minerals like calcium and phosphate, and water. Additionally, bones have similar structural elements, such as the presence of bone marrow, which produces blood cells and is found in the central cavities of bones. Furthermore, bones have similar shapes and sizes across species, with similar basic structures like long bones, short bones, flat bones, and irregular bones.
Bones have an important role in the body. They protect and support internal organs, provide structure and shape to the body, and are involved in movement through the skeletal system. The different types of bones have specific functions, such as the long bones found in the arms and legs, which are involved in movement and weight-bearing, and the flat bones of the skull and ribs, which provide protection for vital organs.
Overall, while there may be differences in the specific shapes and sizes of bones in different species, the basic elements and structures of bones are similar across all specimens. This reflects the important role that bones play in supporting and protecting the body in a variety of species.
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Some argue that solar power should be the main energy source for the United
States. Which argument could be used against this idea?
A. It can only be produced in sunny areas.
B. It releases greenhouse gases.
o
C. It is a nonrenewable resource.
D. It contributes to global warming.
SUBMIT
Answer:
It can only be produced in sunny areas.
Answer:
It can only be produced in sunny areas
Explanation:
Both amphibians and reptiles…
A have lungs
B have gills
C breath only through their skin
D have amniotic egg
Both amphibians and reptiles have amniotic egg. The correct option is D.
Amphibians and reptiles are two distinct groups of vertebrate animals. Amphibians have a moist skin that allows gas exchange to occur, which means they can breathe through their skin in addition to using lungs or gills.
Reptiles, on the other hand, have lungs for breathing. However, both groups share a common feature of having an amniotic egg. This type of egg is covered with a protective membrane that prevents it from drying out, allowing the embryo to develop outside of water.
This adaptation was important for the survival of both groups in terrestrial habitats, where the availability of water for reproduction is limited.
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Do you think that the blue crab can survive out of water?
Answer:
Yes, but not for a long period of time
Explanation:
-> My answer comes from some quick research I did
"Blue Crabs can last up to 24 hours out of the water as long as they are kept cool and moist." (crabbinghub.com)
Have a nice day!
I hope this is what you are looking for, but if not - comment! I will edit and update my answer accordingly. (ノ^∇^)
- Heather
Answer:
Yes, but not for a long period of time
"Blue Crabs can last up to 24 hours out of the water as long as they are kept cool and moist." plus they need to have enough water to stay outside Explanation:
True or false: The somatosensory association area can tell the difference between the feel of a marble and a coin because those texture and shape differences have been previously stored.
Acting bilaterally, the splenius capitis __________.
a.) extends the head
b.) rotates the head
c.) laterally flexes the head
d.) medially flexes the head
Answer: Your answer is option (A).
Explanation:
Which of the following is the correct order of the categories in the modern system of classification?
Answer: is c
Explanation:
The priciples of probability can be used to biology
Answer:
to predict the outcomes of genetic crosses.Punnett squares can be used to predict and compare the genetic variations that will result from a cross.
hope this helps!!:)
Explanation:
If 8 alleles exist in a population, what is the maximum number of copies a normal individual is expected to have? a. 8 b. 5
c. 4 d. 3 e. 2
The maximum number of copies a normal individual is expected to have in a population with 8 alleles is 2.
In a diploid organism, individuals inherit two copies of each gene, one from each parent. Therefore, the maximum number of copies of an allele that a normal individual can have is 2.
Given that there are 8 alleles in the population, an individual can have a maximum of 2 copies of each allele, resulting in a total of 16 copies (8 alleles * 2 copies per allele). However, for a single individual, the maximum number of copies of any specific allele is 2.
Hence, the answer is e) 2, representing the maximum number of copies a normal individual is expected to have for a given allele in a population with 8 alleles.
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Here are the specifications for your forest:
The forest is represented by a 5 x 5 grid.
Year 1: There are a total of 4,500 trees in your forest and no deforestation. Figure out how many trees represent each block.
Year 5: 1,080 trees were deforested.
Year 10: An additional 1,980 trees were deforested.
After you’ve completed your grids, use the Insert Image button to insert screen shots of the grids in the answer space.
Rounding to the nearest whole number, each block in the updated grid represents 137 trees.
What is cell?A cell is the basic unit of life, consisting of a microscopic, self-contained unit enclosed by a membrane and containing genetic material and other necessary biomolecules. Cells come in many different types, each with a specific function in the body, and are essential to the proper functioning of all living organisms. They are capable of carrying out the processes necessary for life, including metabolism, growth, division, and response to stimuli. There are two main types of cells: prokaryotic cells, which lack a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells, which have a distinct nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.
Here,
To determine how many trees represent each block in a 5x5 grid with a total of 4,500 trees, we can use the formula:
Total number of trees = number of rows x number of columns x number of trees per block
Since we have a 5x5 grid, we can substitute:
4,500 = 5 x 5 x number of trees per block
Solving for the number of trees per block:
number of trees per block = 4,500 / 25 = 180
Therefore, each block in the 5x5 grid represents 180 trees.
In Year 5, 1,080 trees were deforested. To update the grid, we subtract 1,080 trees from the total number of trees:
4,500 - 1,080 = 3,420 trees remaining
Using the formula again:
3,420 = 5 x 5 x number of trees per block
Solving for the number of trees per block:
number of trees per block = 3,420 / 25 = 136.8
In Year 10, an additional 1,980 trees were deforested. Updating the grid:
3,420 - 1,980 = 1,440 trees remaining
Using the formula again:
1,440 = 5 x 5 x number of trees per block
Solving for the number of trees per block:
number of trees per block = 1,440 / 25 = 57.6
Rounding to the nearest whole number, each block in the final grid represents 58 trees.
Here are the grids for Year 1, Year 5, and Year 10:
Year 1:
180 180 180 180 180
180 180 180 180 180
180 180 180 180 180
180 180 180 180 180
180 180 180 180 180
Year 5:
137 137 137 137 137
137 137 137 137 137
137 137 137 137 137
137 137 137 137 137
137 137 137 137 137
Year 10:
58 58 58 58 58
58 58 58 58 58
58 58 58 58 58
58 58 58 58 58
58 58 58 58 58
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the structural framework of nucleotide polymers consisting of sugars and phosphate groups linked by phosphodiester bonds.A. PurineB. double helixC. nitrogenous baseD. sugar phosphate backbone
The structural framework of nucleotide polymers consisting of sugars and phosphate groups linked by phosphodiester bonds is the sugar-phosphate backbone. (option D)
The sugar-phosphate backbone is a repeating structural unit that forms the basis of DNA and RNA molecules. It consists of alternating sugar and phosphate groups linked by phosphodiester bonds. The sugar component of the backbone is either deoxyribose (in DNA) or ribose (in RNA). The phosphate groups link the sugars together through phosphodiester bonds, creating a chain-like structure.
The nitrogenous bases, which include purines and pyrimidines, are attached to the sugar component of the backbone and project inward towards each other in the center of the molecule, forming the double helix shape of DNA. The sugar-phosphate backbone provides stability and structure to the DNA molecule, allowing it to store and transmit genetic information.
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Aspirin makes the blood thinner and prevents blood clotting which causes heart attack. i) What type of rupture did Suman suffer from? ii) What did the doctor advise her to do? Why do you think so? iii) What is the cause of Amit's heart attack? iv) Why do doctors give Aspirin to the heart patient?
Answer:
Aspirin is administered in patients who produce blood hypercoagulation, that is why it is prescribed in order to antiaggregate platelets or platelet thrombi, this is how the platelets do not add or encompass each other and do not generate obstructions in the blood vessels to trigger an AMI (acute myocardial infarction) or CVA (cerebrovascular accident.)
Explanation:
Aspirin is an anticoagulant that is made up of N acetylsalicylic acid, that is, by an acid that inhibits the union of platelets with each other, that is why these in systemic situations where there is a tendency to hypercoagulation of the blood is a benefit for the patient .
Amit's infarction is caused by a platelet thrombus that obstructs the arterioles that supply the cardiac muscle tissue, that is, the coronary arteries. When these arteries are blocked by a platelet engulfment, the irrigation does not oxygenate the tissue and it suffers a transient hypoxia or anoxia that leads to partial necrosis and even in some cases of more serious situation it could be total where the person loses his life.
Why is DNA replication said to be semiconservative? (multiple choice)
A. The old cell keeps part of the original DNA during cell division.
B. The new DNA strand can only be constructed in the 3' to 5' direction.
C. The double helix becomes a single strand of DNA.
D. New DNA has one original strand and one replicated strand.
what is the name of semi-permeable membrane which encloses the cytoplasm and all of the cellular organelles?
The semi-permeable membrane that encloses the cytoplasm and all of the cellular organelles is called the plasma membrane.
The semi-permeable membrane which encloses the cytoplasm and all of the cellular organelles is called the Plasma Membrane. This membrane is made up of two layers of phospholipids, which form a lipid bilayer. The phospholipids have a hydrophilic (water-loving) head and a hydrophobic (water-fearing) tail, which ensures that the membrane is impermeable to large molecules, such as proteins and sugars. In addition, the membrane contains various proteins and carbohydrates which give it a variety of functions. These proteins act as receptors for molecules, allowing them to move into and out of the cell, and as enzymes that catalyze reactions. Additionally, the carbohydrates on the outer surface of the membrane help to identify the cell and enable it to recognize other cells. The plasma membrane also contains cholesterol, which helps to maintain its fluidity and stability.
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regulates the circulating levels of amino acids, carbohydrates, and lipids. Group of answer choices gallbladder pancreas large intestine pancreatic islets liver
the ORGAN that regulates the circulating levels of amino acids, carbohydrates, and lipids is the LIVER
The LIVER is the largest organ in the human body which serves the following major functions:
filtration and storage of blood METABOLISM of CARBOHYDRATES, protein (AMINO ACIDS), fats (LIPIDS), hormones and foreign chemicals,formation of bile,storage of vitamins and iron; and formation of coagulation factors.In the metabolism of CARBOHYDRATES, the liver helps in regulating the circulating levels through:
storage of large amounts of glycogen conversion of galactose and fructose to glucose; andGluconeogenesis which occurs when glucose concentration falls below normalIn the metabolism of LIPIDS (fat), the liver helps in regulating the circulating levels through:
oxidation of fatty acids to supply energy for other body functions; andsynthesis of large quantities of cholesterol, phospholipids and most lipoproteinsIn metabolism of proteins (AMINO ACIDS),
the liver helps in regulating the circulating levels through:
Deamination of amino acids formation of urea for removal of ammonia from the body fluids; and formation of plasm proteinsTherefore, the ORGAN that regulates the circulating levels of amino acids, carbohydrates, and lipids is the LIVER
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What is the answer please?????
For squash Dominant A means the squash is white. Little aa means the squash can produce color. Y means yellow squash and yy means green squash. If 2 heterozygous squash cross, how many of the offspring are likely to be white___-yellow ____green
For squash, the genotype AA, Aa, or aa can give rise to four possible phenotypes: white, yellow, green, or a combination of these colors.
When two heterozygous individuals (AA or Aa) cross, they can produce offspring with the following possible genotypes: AA, Aa, aa, or AY, Ay, or ay.
Out of the four possible phenotypes for the offspring (white, yellow, green, or a combination of these colors), three of them (white, yellow, and green) are dominant to the recessive phenotype of having no color (aa). Therefore, out of the offspring produced by the cross between two heterozygous individuals, at least three of them are likely to have one of the dominant phenotypes (white, yellow, or green).
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What does the term mutation mean in regards to human genetics?
Answer:
A mutation is a change in a DNA sequence. Mutations can result from DNA copying mistakes made during cell division, exposure to ionizing radiation, exposure to chemicals called mutagens, or infection by viruses.
Explanation:
A mutation is a change in a DNA sequence
Someone please help me with this question
Answer:
Explanation:
During IVF, a mature egg is removed from the woman's ovaries and fertilized with sperm in a laboratory. The embryo, fertilized egg, is returned to the woman's womb to grow and develop.
It's not A and I need a CER statement or just a normal expaination please
Answer:
c. Adding animal genes into a plant
Explanation:
Adding animal genes into a plant represents a modern biotechnology technique that raises potential ethical issues. This technique, called transgenic or genetic engineering, involves inserting genes from one organism into another to produce a desired trait. In the case of adding animal genes into a plant, this could involve creating crops that are more resistant to pests or herbicides, or that produce certain pharmaceuticals.
This technique raises ethical concerns because it involves manipulating the genetic makeup of living organisms, which could have unintended consequences for the environment or human health. For example, the introduction of a new gene into a plant could cause unintended effects, such as allergies or toxicity. There are also concerns about the potential for genetic engineering to be used for non-food purposes, such as creating designer pets or even humans with specific traits.
Crossbreeding two different plants, using bacteria in the making of food, and transferring blood from one person to another are all examples of techniques that have been used for centuries or even millennia and are generally considered to be safe and ethical. However, it is worth noting that any technique, including these examples, could raise ethical concerns if used in a particular way or context.
Suppose you were interested in the effect of breastfeeding versus formula feeding on the composition of gut flora in newborns. As part of your experiment, stool samples from healthy babies in the study get plated on various agar media. You notice that greater numbers of colonies are recovered when samples are plated on blood agar compared to nutrient agar (NA). After some diligent subculturing, you isolate several bacterial species capable of slow growth on the blood but not on the NA. You correctly surmise that these organisms: ______________
a. are opportunistic blood pathogens.
b. have extensive and complex nutritional requirements not met by NA are inhibited by the ingredients in NA.
c. should be classified as beta-hemolytic.
d. grow because the blood agar suppresses the growth of faster-growing bacteria.
Answer:
vAurora
Explanation:
Below are some events that take place during cell division? Which would be the correct order?
I. Chromosomes line up at the equatorial plane
II. Chromosomes condense, becoming shorter and thicker
III. Chromosomes have long and nuclear membrane forms around them
IV. Centromeres divide and the chromosomes move to the opposite poles
a. 2-1-4-3
b. 3-4-1-2
c. 1-3-2-4
d. 4-1-2-3
The correct order of events during cell division is: 3-4-1-2, the correct option is b.
During cell division, several key events occur in a specific order.
Chromosomes have long and nuclear membrane forms around them: Before cell division occurs, the chromosomes within the nucleus start to undergo changes. Centromeres divide and the chromosomes move to the opposite poles: At this stage, the centromeres, which hold the sister chromatids together, divide. Chromosomes line up at the equatorial plane: Once the chromosomes have reached the opposite poles of the cell, they align themselves along the equatorial plane or the metaphase plate. Chromosomes condense, becoming shorter and thicker: In this step, the chromosomes further condense, becoming even shorter and thicker.Thus, the correct order, b. 3-4-1-2, accurately represents the sequence of events during cell division.
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which statement is false regarding the microarray procedure? microarrrays allow for the monitoring of expression levels of many genes. this reaction is the reverse process of normal cellular transcription of rna to dna, hence the name reverse transcriptase. cdna is labeled with a fluorescent probe and sequences in the cdna that are complementary to sequences in the microarray will bind to eachother. mrna from the cells being studied is extracted and converted to complementary dna (cdna).
The statement that is false regarding the microarray procedure is "This reaction is the reverse process of normal cellular transcription of RNA to DNA, hence the name reverse transcriptase."
In reality, the reverse transcription reaction, which converts RNA to complementary DNA (cDNA), is a distinct process from the normal cellular transcription of DNA to RNA. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that is used in the laboratory to perform this reaction and create cDNA from RNA samples.
Reverse transcriptase is not involved in the microarray procedure. Rather, the mRNA from the cells being studied is extracted and converted to complementary DNA (cDNA) using reverse transcription.
This cDNA is then labeled with a fluorescent probe and hybridized to the microarray, which contains many short DNA sequences that are complementary to genes of interest. The labeled cDNA will bind to the complementary DNA sequences on the microarray, allowing for the monitoring of gene expression levels.
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_____ refers to the conversion of glucose to glycogen.
Glycogenesis refers to the conversion of glucose to glycogen. This is an important process for energy storage in the body, particularly in the liver and muscle tissue.
When blood glucose levels are high, insulin is released by the pancreas, which signals the liver and muscle cells to take up glucose and convert it to glycogen through the process of glycogenesis. This helps to regulate blood glucose levels by removing excess glucose from the bloodstream and storing it for later use when energy demands are high, such as during exercise or fasting. Conversely, when blood glucose levels are low, the process of glycogenolysis occurs, which is the breakdown of glycogen back into glucose to be used as an energy source.
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Chicken eggs are classified by grade (4, 5, 6, 7 or 8), based on weight. a mixed carton contains 12 eggs and could include eggs from any grade. as part of the science project, rocky buys 9 mixed cartons and sorts the eggs according to their weight.
Rocky bought 9 mixed cartons of eggs classified by grade 4-8 based on weight and sorted them.
Chicken eggs are classified by grades 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 based on weight. Mixed cartons can contain eggs from any grade. Rocky purchased nine mixed cartons of chicken eggs for a science project. Rocky then sorted the eggs according to their weight. He may have used an egg scale to measure the weight of each egg.
The egg weight determines its grade. After sorting the eggs, Rocky could have identified how many eggs are in each grade and made calculations based on the eggs' weight. This is because the eggs are graded by weight, which makes it easier to find out how many eggs of each weight are in the carton.
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Is this a plant or an animal cell compare and contrast animal and plant cell division
They Both have eukaryotic Cells.