Although trace minerals are present in both animals and plant meals, their bioavailability is affected by a variety of variables, including dietary components, dietary supplements, excretory loss, and nutrient concentration.
The following are the factors that influence a mineral's bioavailability in the body:
The body's mineral makeup The nutrients that are consumed in addition to mealsMineral excretion lossdietary variables and nutrient intakeThe person's state of healththe volume of nutrient interactions and nutrient concentration.Although different minerals are taken through a diet, their absorption can occasionally be influenced by other elements like vitamins. For instance, folate that contains iron improves the intake of vitamin B12 as well as other nutrients.
The health of the individual also affects the body's capacity to absorb nutrients, since persons with digestive problems frequently lose vitamins and minerals due to ineffective absorption systems.
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Identify the stages (in order) of general adaptation syndrome.
General Adaptation Syndrome is a three-stage model that explains how our bodies react to stressors. It was first introduced by Hans Selye in the 1930s. He proposed that the stress response in our bodies is similar, regardless of the source of stress. It is also known as the stress response or stress adaptation.
Here are the stages of General Adaptation Syndrome:
1. Alarm Reaction Stage
The alarm reaction stage is the first stage in General Adaptation Syndrome. When we first encounter a stressor, the body perceives it as a threat. This leads to a fight or flight response. The hypothalamus stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, which triggers the release of adrenaline and noradrenaline. These hormones cause an increase in heart rate, respiration rate, blood pressure, and energy production. The body is now ready to face the stressor.
2. Resistance Stage
If the stressor persists, the body enters the resistance stage. In this stage, the body tries to adapt to the stressor. The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). ACTH then stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroids. Corticosteroids help the body to maintain a steady level of energy production. The body is now trying to cope with the stressor and maintain homeostasis.
3. Exhaustion Stage
If the stressor persists for a long time, the body enters the exhaustion stage. In this stage, the body's energy reserves are depleted. The adrenal glands can no longer produce enough cortisol, and the body's immune system is compromised. This can lead to physical and mental problems, such as burnout, depression, anxiety, and physical illness. If the stressor is not removed, the body can enter a state of chronic stress, which can have serious consequences for health and wellbeing.
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What is the function of the milky-colored fluids secreted from the prostate.
Answer:
to activate sperm
Explanation:
A short-term effect of growth hormone is: fat breakdown. The stimulation of glucose uptake by cells. The production of insulin-like growth factor (IGF). Protein synthesis
One short-term effect of growth hormone is the stimulation of glucose uptake by cells, while another effect is the production of insulin-like growth factor (IGF).
Additionally, growth hormone promotes protein synthesis, leading to the breakdown of fat.
Growth hormone plays a crucial role in regulating various physiological processes in the body. One of the short-term effects of growth hormone is the stimulation of glucose uptake by cells. Growth hormone promotes the transport of glucose into cells, allowing them to use it as a source of energy. This effect helps maintain proper blood sugar levels and supports cellular metabolism.
Another short-term effect of growth hormone is the production of insulin-like growth factor (IGF). Growth hormone stimulates the liver and other tissues to produce IGF, which plays a vital role in promoting growth and development. IGF acts as a mediator of many of the growth-promoting effects of growth hormone.
Furthermore, growth hormone also stimulates protein synthesis in cells. This leads to the production of new proteins, which are essential for tissue growth, repair, and maintenance. As a result, growth hormone indirectly contributes to the breakdown of fat by increasing protein synthesis, which can help in the utilization of stored fat for energy.
In summary, the short-term effects of growth hormone include the stimulation of glucose uptake by cells, the production of insulin-like growth factor (IGF), and the promotion of protein synthesis, which ultimately contributes to the breakdown of fat.
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What is AMA cication Generator?
AMA Citation Generator is an online tool that helps users generate citations for their documents and projects in the American Medical Association (AMA) style.
AMA citation generator toolAMA Citation Generator is a tool that helps you generate citations in the AMA (American Medical Association) style. This citation style is commonly used in medical and health sciences. With the help of the AMA citation Generator, you can easily create accurate citations for your research papers, assignments, or any other academic work.
For example, if you want to cite a journal article in AMA style, you can simply enter the details of the article, such as
the author's nametitlepublication datejournal name,and the AMA citation Generator will automatically create the citation for you. This tool is extremely useful for students and researchers, as it saves time and ensures that the citations are accurate and consistent.
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according to michel foucault, the development of modern medicine transformed perceptions of disease from something beyond the boundaries of knowledge to something to be scientifically studied and controlled, true or false?
True. Michel Foucault claimed that the advancement of modern medicine changed the way that people thought about illness, transforming it from something that was outside the realm of human understanding to something that could be researched and managed through science.
He asserted that before the development of modern medicine, illness was frequently viewed as a form of divine retribution or as a supernatural phenomena that was beyond the realm of human comprehension. With the development of modern medicine, illness was transformed into a phenomenon that could be investigated scientifically, comprehended, and treated medically. Foucault also examined how the advancement of modern medicine resulted in the emergence of new kinds of power and knowledge as well as how medical procedures grew to be a significant tool for social control.
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A good sports drink contains
Select one:
a. electrolyte minerals.
O b. caffeine.
c. at least 10% carbohydrate.
O d. branched-chain amino acids.
A good sports drink contains electrolytes and minerals. So the correct option is A.
What are sports drinks?Sports beverages have been demonstrated to aid adult athletes (albeit not conclusively since other studies indicate no advantage), but research on youngsters is sparse. Children sweat at varying rates, making determining the duration of activity time that the drinks may be effective more challenging.
However, delivering these beverages to children and adolescents who are exercising intensively for more than 60 minutes under the supervision of coaches or parents may assist to avoid dehydration. These beverages are frequently unneeded for children who are engaged in routine or play-based physical exercise.
Therefore the correct option is A.
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According to the food and nutrition board of the institute of medicine, to lower your risk of coronary artery disease, the percentage of daily calories coming from total fat should be:________
According to the Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine, the recommended percentage of daily calories coming from total fat is not specified.
The Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine provides dietary guidelines to promote health and prevent various diseases, including coronary artery disease (CAD). When it comes to the percentage of daily calories from total fat, the board does not provide a specific recommendation to lower the risk of CAD.
Instead of focusing solely on the percentage of calories from total fat, the board emphasizes the importance of the quality of fats consumed. It suggests replacing saturated and trans fats, which have been linked to an increased risk of CAD, with healthier fats such as monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fats. These healthier fats can be found in sources like nuts, seeds, avocados, olive oil, and fatty fish.
Overall, the emphasis is on adopting a balanced and varied diet that includes a moderate amount of healthy fats while reducing the intake of unhealthy fats. It is advisable to consult with a healthcare professional or registered dietitian for personalized dietary recommendations based on individual health conditions, risk factors, and goals related to coronary artery disease.
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Common behaviors that are a result of Alzheimer's disease are
Answer:
angry outbursts and physical aggression, hand wringing pacing and rocking, accusing loved ones of wrong doing and hallucinating, repeating stories and leaving the house unassisted, sleep problems and sundowing
Explanation:
1, Verbal or physical aggression, which can be quite alarming, is common in patients with Alzheimer’s.
2, Dementia makes it very difficult to process stimuli and new information, causing many people with Alzheimer’s disease to become anxious.
3, Caregivers may feel at a loss when an Alzheimer’s patient exhibits behavior that is clearly not grounded in reality: either hallucinations—perceiving something that isn’t really there—or delusions, which are false beliefs that can lead to paranoia.
4, The memory problems caused by Alzheimer’s disease can lead to a range of distressing behaviors, including repetition of words or activities, disorientation even in familiar places, and, in severe cases, confusion about the passage of time.
5, It’s not well understood why sleep disturbances occur in many Alzheimer’s patients, but it’s common for them to experience nighttime restlessness and changes to their sleep schedule.
What is What is a lesson learned from the Korean and Vietnam conflicts?
a lesson learned from the Korean and Vietnam conflicts?
Answer:
Military conflicts have helped us learn that the prehospital patient's needs are often time-dependent. Patient outcomes are improved if the patient receives competent and timely prehospital care.
Explanation:
Hope this helped! :)
a crna is personally performing a case with medical direction from an anesthesiologist. what modifier is reported for the crna services?
When a Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA) is personally performing a case under the medical direction of an anesthesiologist, the appropriate modifier to report for the CRNA services is modifier QK.
Modifier QK indicates that the CRNA's services are performed under the medical direction of an anesthesiologist. It signifies that the anesthesiologist is physically present during the critical or key portions of the anesthesia administration, providing medical direction, guidance, and supervision to the CRNA.
This modifier is used to accurately reflect the shared responsibility and collaboration between the CRNA and the anesthesiologist in the anesthesia care provided to the patient. It helps ensure appropriate reimbursement and compliance with billing and coding guidelines.
It is important to note that the specific requirements and guidelines for modifier usage may vary depending on the payer and the specific circumstances of the anesthesia service. It is crucial to consult the relevant coding guidelines and payer-specific rules to accurately report and document the services provided.
Additionally, it is important for the CRNA and the anesthesiologist to adhere to the legal and regulatory requirements set forth by their respective state's practice acts and regulations regarding medical direction and supervision.
Collaboration and clear communication between the CRNA and the anesthesiologist are essential to ensure safe and effective anesthesia care for the patient.
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Which of the following person is not eligible to enroll in TRICARE?
Answer:
If a surviving spouse, widow or eligible former spouse remarries, he or she will lose eligibility for TRICARE.a toothpaste with high abrasive is recommended to remove plaque. T/F
Answer:
T
Explanation:
False. A toothpaste with high abrasives is not recommended to remove plaque. In fact, using a toothpaste that is too abrasive can actually damage the enamel on your teeth.
Plaque is best removed through regular brushing and flossing, as well as regular dental cleanings. It is important to choose a toothpaste that contains fluoride, which helps to strengthen tooth enamel and prevent cavities. Additionally, some toothpastes may contain ingredients such as triclosan or hydrogen peroxide, which can help to reduce plaque and prevent gum disease. It is always best to consult with your dentist to determine the best toothpaste for your individual needs.
False. A toothpaste with high abrasiveness is not recommended to remove plaque. Abrasive toothpastes can damage tooth enamel and gum tissue, leading to dental problems. Instead, choose a toothpaste with a moderate level of abrasiveness and fluoride to effectively remove plaque while protecting your teeth and gums. Additionally, proper brushing technique and regular dental check-ups are essential for maintaining good oral hygiene.
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stop the transmission of pain impulses to the brain and spinal cord by preventing the perception of pain
Answer:
non-narcotic analgesics
An antimicrobial drug with a _______ therapeutic index is a better choice than one with a _______ therapeutic index.
An antimicrobial drug with a higher therapeutic index is a better choice than one with a lower therapeutic index. An antimicrobial drug with a high therapeutic index is a better choice than one with a low therapeutic index.
The therapeutic index is a measure of the safety and effectiveness of a drug. It is calculated by comparing the dose of a drug that causes toxic effects to the dose that produces the desired therapeutic effect. A high therapeutic index indicates that the drug is relatively safe, with a wide margin between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose. This means that the drug can be administered in higher doses without causing significant harm to the patient.
On the other hand, a drug with a low therapeutic index has a narrower margin of safety. It means that the drug has a higher risk of causing toxic effects even at therapeutic doses. This makes it less desirable because it requires more careful monitoring and has a higher potential for adverse reactions.
Therefore, an antimicrobial drug with a high therapeutic index is preferred over one with a low therapeutic index as it is safer and more effective in treating infections.
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Judy wants to practice a relaxation technique before her presentation. Which option should she avoid using
Judy wants to practice a relaxation technique before her presentation. She should avoid using the option "a) thinking about the things he wants to achieve."
What is relaxation?
Relaxation is a state in which muscles are free from tension, and the body and mind are free from stress. Relaxation techniques are activities that help a person relax and achieve a sense of inner peace and calm.Relaxation techniques can help a person cope with stress and reduce the symptoms of anxiety and depression. They can also help reduce the risk of developing stress-related illnesses, such as high blood pressure, heart disease, and stroke.Judy should avoid thinking about the things she wants to achieve before the presentation. Instead, she should try to relax her mind and body using techniques like stretching, meditating, listening to her favorite music, or counting backward from 100.These techniques will help her calm her nerves, reduce stress, and feel more confident during her presentation.
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What is the preferred technique for giving mouth breaths for infants?
It is recommended to use a bag-valve-mask (BVM) with a small mask that fits over the infant's nose and mouth while providing mouth breaths to newborns.
The preferred technique for giving mouth breaths to infants is to use a bag-valve-mask (BVM) with a small mask that fits over the infant's nose and mouth. The BVM should be attached to oxygen and the provider should deliver gentle breaths at a rate of 12-20 breaths per minute. The provider should ensure that the infant's airway is clear and that the chest is rising with each breath. If the infant is not responding to the breaths or their condition worsens, emergency medical services should be called immediately.
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Why antihistamine drugs like suprastin do not block the stimulatory effect of
histamine on these stomach cells
Claritin (loratadine) is an antihistamine used to treat allergy symptoms. Claritin blocks the action of histamine, a substance in the body that initiates allergic symptoms like itching, sneezing, runny nose, and allergic skin rashes. Claritin is available as a generic drug. Claritin interact with different drugs. Benadryl may interact with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), other over-the-counter cough, cold, allergy, or insomnia medications, anxiety or sleep medicines, antidepressants, or any other medications that make you feel drowsy, sleepy, or relaxed.
Claritin may interact with certain antibiotics, antifungal medications, and acid-reducing drugs.
What does a major medical insurance plan do?
can someone write me a ONE PAGER -2 PAGE REFLECTION ON '' job shadowing experienced'' on a registered nurse and it has to include this
-description of job/carrer
-skills u observed
-personal qualities in a person role
-thoughts on considering this carrer
Answer:
Explanation:
My job shadowing experience as a Registered Nurse (RN) was truly eye-opening. As I observed the daily routine of an RN in a hospital setting, I gained a deeper understanding of the importance of this critical healthcare profession.
Registered Nursing is a challenging and demanding career that requires a wide range of skills and personal qualities. Throughout my observation, I witnessed the RN utilizing various skills, including strong communication skills, attention to detail, critical thinking, and problem-solving skills. The RN was responsible for administering medications, monitoring patient conditions, performing medical procedures, and communicating with other healthcare professionals. I was amazed at the level of multitasking and quick thinking that was required of the RN.
Moreover, personal qualities such as compassion, empathy, patience, and adaptability were evident in the RN's role. As the RN cared for patients, it was clear that empathy and compassion played a significant role in building trust and rapport with patients. Patience and adaptability were also apparent as the RN worked with patients who were difficult or uncooperative due to illness or injury.
The thought of pursuing a career as an RN crossed my mind several times during my observation. As someone who has a passion for helping others, the thought of providing care and emotional support to patients in need was truly rewarding. However, I also realized that this career is not for everyone. The demanding nature of the job requires a high level of commitment and dedication. It also requires an individual to be comfortable working under pressure and making quick decisions in emergency situations.
In conclusion, my job shadowing experience as a Registered Nurse was an incredible opportunity to gain insight into this vital healthcare profession. I am grateful for the opportunity to have observed the day-to-day activities of an RN and to have learned about the skills and personal qualities required to excel in this career. While I am still considering my options, I am more aware of the critical role that RNs play in the healthcare system and the impact they have on patients' lives.
Lymphatic vessels provide a conduit for metastasizing cancer cells. Ideally, such cells are removed and destroyed by what structure, which thus prevents the spread of cancer?.
These cells prevent old or strange cells, such as metastatic cancer cells that are removed and destroyed by lymph nodes, from being destroyed by microorganisms and other infections.
Thin tubes and lymph nodes make up the lymphatic system, which runs throughout the body. Lymphatic vessels and lymph vessels are the names given to these tubes. The human immune system relies heavily on this entire system. The lymph fluid is filtered as it travels through the lymph nodes. The lymphatic system is invaded by white blood cells (WBC), which include B- and T-cells.
When cancer cells break away from a tumor, they will appear stuck in one or more of the lymph nodes closest to it. Doctors refer to this condition as lymphadenopathy when the lymph nodes swell. Cancer also makes the most prominent lymph nodes appear swollen.
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The intensive care unit nurse would expect pulmonary artery (PA) catheter monitoring to be used with a patient in which situation? Cannot tolerate hemodynamic monitoring Requires a peripheral intravenous catheter for vasoactive medication administration ONeeds a central catheter for total parenteral nutrition Requires evaluation of left ventricular pressures each shift.
The intensive care unit (ICU) nurse would expect pulmonary artery (PA) catheter monitoring to be used with a patient in a situation that requires evaluation of left ventricular pressures each shift.
PA catheter monitoring, also known as Swan-Ganz catheterization, is commonly utilized in critical care settings to assess various hemodynamic parameters. It involves inserting a catheter into the pulmonary artery to measure pressures within the heart chambers.
While there are multiple indications for PA catheter monitoring, the specific situation mentioned in the question pertains to the evaluation of left ventricular pressures. This monitoring allows healthcare providers to assess the function of the left ventricle, such as monitoring for signs of cardiac decompensation or evaluating response to therapy in patients with heart failure or other cardiac conditions. By assessing left ventricular pressures regularly, healthcare providers can make informed decisions regarding patient management and adjust treatment strategies as needed.
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1.2
At which ages should a child be vaccinated with the pneumococcal
conjugated vaccine?
Answer:
One dose at 4 months of age. One dose at 6 months of age. One dose at 12 to 15 months of age.
Explanation:
that's it really :)
A sedative is administered to prevent the seizures associated with epilepsy true or false
Answer:
true
Explanation:
it helps calm down the neurons from firing so rapidly.
True or False - Using secured and encrypted laptops is one way to deter an impermissible use or disclosure that could result in a breach.
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 was a bill enacted by the 104th U.S Congress and was signed in 1996 by President Bill Clinton. It is a federal law that protects sensitive patient health information from being disclosed without their knowledge, approval or consent and payment of health care insurance for employees.
e-PHI is an abbreviation for electronic protected health information and it can be defined as the health information of a patient which must be generated, stored, transfered or received only in a digital (electronic) format.
In the United States of America, the management of e-PHI is governed by HIPAA Security Rule. Thus, electronic protected health information guarantees confidentiality and the integrity of a health facility and its staffs with respect to a patient.
Encryption is a form of cryptography and typically involves the process of converting or encoding informations in plaintext into a code, known as a ciphertext. Once, an information or data has been encrypted it can only be accessed and deciphered by an authorized user.
Hence, using secured and encrypted laptops is one way to deter an impermissible use or disclosure that could result in a breach, as it requires verifying the identity of an individual or electronic device through authentication.
a client with an exceptionally low body mass index has been admitted to the emergency department with signs and symptoms of hypothermia. the nurse should know that this client's susceptibility to heat loss is related to atrophy of what skin component?
The nurse should know that this client's susceptibility to heat loss is related to the atrophy of adipose tissue, which serves as an insulator to retain heat.
When adipose tissue atrophies, heat loss increases, putting a person at a higher risk for hypothermia. Hypothermia is a medical emergency that occurs when the body's temperature drops below the normal range, which is 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit. A low BMI is one of the factors that puts a person at risk for hypothermia, particularly if the BMI is below 18.5.
According to research, hypothermia is a major concern among underweight people, since they lack adequate insulation and are unable to produce sufficient body heat. Atrophy of adipose tissue, which serves as an insulator to retain heat, is responsible for this.
Hence, when adipose tissue atrophies, heat loss increases, putting a person at a higher risk for hypothermia.
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The child's asthma appears to be under control until November when the weather temperature suddenly drops. He develops an upper respiratory tract infection, which triggers a severe asthma exacerbation. He presents to the Emergency Department (ED). He is clinging to his caregiver, sitting leaning forward, and refuses to lie down.
Which assessment findings would alert the nurse that the child is in respiratory distress?
-Inability to speak without gasping.
(Narrowing of airways prevents ability to speak, resulting in gasping.)
-Refusal to lie flat.
(Lying flat places more pressure on the chest, making it harder to breathe.)
-Presence of subcostal retractions.
(Subcostal retractions occur when the muscles between the ribs pull inward. The movement is most often a sign that the person has a breathing problem.)
-Absence of wheezing with increased respiratory rate.
(Absence of wheezing in an asthmatic may indicate either improvement of the bronchoconstriction or severe, widespread airflow obstruction.)
The assessment findings that would alert the nurse that the child is in respiratory distress are inability to speak without gasping, refusal to lie flat, and presence of subcostal retractions.
When a child has respiratory distress, they will display signs and symptoms that can help a nurse determine the severity of the distress. The child's inability to speak without gasping may indicate that the airways are narrowed and that it's difficult to breathe. The child's refusal to lie flat may indicate that there is more pressure on the chest, making it harder to breathe.
Subcostal retractions occur when the muscles between the ribs pull inward. The movement is most often a sign that the person has a breathing problem. Therefore, the presence of subcostal retractions in the child can be an indicator that they are in respiratory distress. Hence, the correct options are: A. Inability to speak without gasping.B. Refusal to lie flat. C. Presence of subcostal retractions.
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How does cellular activity change when a client with hyperglycemia receives insulin?
a) Facilitated diffusion transports glucose into cells.
b) Active transport moves glucose into cells.
c) Glucose diffuses across plasma membranes.
d) Osmosis carries glucose across cell membranes.
When a client with hyperglycemia receives insulin, a) facilitated diffusion transports glucose into cells. The correct option is A.
Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels. In the presence of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar), the administration of insulin helps facilitate the transport of glucose from the bloodstream into cells for energy utilization and storage.
Insulin acts by binding to insulin receptors on the surface of target cells, primarily muscle, adipose (fat), and liver cells. This interaction triggers a cascade of cellular events, leading to the translocation of glucose transporter proteins, such as GLUT4, to the cell membrane. These transporters facilitate the movement of glucose molecules across the cell membrane through facilitated diffusion.
Facilitated diffusion is a passive process that relies on concentration gradients and transport proteins to move substances across cell membranes. In the case of hyperglycemia and insulin administration, insulin enhances the uptake of glucose by promoting the translocation of glucose transporters, allowing facilitated diffusion to transport glucose into cells.
Active transport (option b) requires energy expenditure by the cell and is not the primary mechanism for glucose uptake into cells. Glucose does not diffuse across plasma membranes (option c) without the involvement of transport proteins. Osmosis (option d) specifically refers to the movement of water across cell membranes, not glucose.
Therefore, facilitated diffusion is the key process involved in transporting glucose into cells when a client with hyperglycemia receives insulin.
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Topic 1: Students should review case definitions for SARS as well as the recommendations for laboratory diagnosis. Students should also be able to identify limitations of SARS testing as well as criteria for the clinical focus and public health focus. Question 1: The reliability of clinical and laboratory diagnosis of SARS is uncertain. Should it be used as the basis for public health decision-making
Answer:
No, laboratory information should be complemented with data related to the disease (e.g., symptoms of the viral disease) and patient' history (i.e., risk of exposure or close contact who were diagnosed with the disease)
Explanation:
In the last years, laboratory diagnosis of viral diseases has greatly improved and current methods (e.g., RT-PCR) have often a high sensitivity, thereby patients with this type of disease usually are accurately diagnosed clinically. However, there exist certain diseases where this information may not be conclusive. In these cases, it is imperative to use different sources of information to complement decision-making. For example, when laboratory diagnosis is not conclusive, the information provided by clinical symptoms of the disease in patients with severe acute respiratory syndromes (e.g., congestion and cough with or without fever in the first few days) can be very useful in order to determine if the infection is of viral origin or caused by bacterial types of pneumonia. Moreover, epidemiological data related to the recent life history of the patient (i.e., recent travel or residence in an area with viral transmission) can also be used for effective decision making.
In the phrase "the patients urine pH level is =5" the symbol means
\(\huge\underline\mathtt\colorbox{cyan}{pH:}\)
A figure expressing the acidity or alkalinity of a solution on a logarithmic scale on which 7 is neutral, lower values are more acid and higher values more alkaline. The pH is equal to −log10 c, where c is the hydrogen ion concentration in moles per litre.
Which of the following are methods of treating diabetes?