the lymph node excision category codes are based on what two things?

Answers

Answer 1

The lymph node excision category codes are based on two things, which are site and type.

What is Lymph Node Excision?

A lymph node excision is a procedure that involves the removal of one or many lymph nodes from a human body. The lymphatic system is a part of the immune system, and it functions by transporting white blood cells around the body, so it is possible to remove lymph nodes without causing any significant damage to the immune system.

The excision of the lymph node is performed to inspect the node or to test the presence of cancer. These codes are usually used in tandem with other procedure codes and are an essential element of any diagnostic workup in coding. The lymph node excision category codes are based on two things which are the site and type. These codes provide significant information about the treatment provided and the diagnosis.

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Answer 2

Lymph node excision category codes are based on two things: the regional lymph nodes and the type of dissection performed.What are lymph nodes?Lymph nodes are oval-shaped organs that are a part of the lymphatic system, which is responsible for maintaining a healthy immune system.

They filter lymph fluid, which contains immune cells and waste products, before returning it to the bloodstream.Lymph node excisionLymph node excision is a surgical procedure that involves removing one or more lymph nodes for examination or treatment. It is commonly used in the diagnosis and treatment of cancer to determine if the cancer has spread to other parts of the body.Category codesThe lymph node excision category codes are based on two things, which are:1. The regional lymph nodesRegional lymph nodes refer to the group of lymph nodes that are in a particular part of the body.

They are designated by the anatomical region in which they are found.2. The type of dissection performedThe type of dissection performed refers to the method used to remove the lymph nodes. There are three types of dissections: radical, modified radical, and selective. The category codes are based on the type of dissection performed and the number of lymph nodes removed.

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Related Questions

PLEASE HELP ILL GIVE BRAINLIST

This model shows a human embryo. What can you determine about its development from the model?

It has a postanal tail.
It’s a vertebrate
It has pharyngeal arches.
It has fully developed organ systems.

PLEASE HELP ILL GIVE BRAINLISTThis model shows a human embryo. What can you determine about its development

Answers

With the given developmental model of the human embryo, we can determine that it has a postanal tail and it's a vertebrate. Therefore, option A as well as option B is correct.

What is a human embryo?

A human embryo is a stage in the development of a human being that begins after fertilization and lasts until about eight weeks of gestation.

During this time, the fertilized egg divides itself and grows into a ball of cells that eventually implants itself into the uterus. The cells then differentiate and forms various structure and organs that make up a developing fetus.

The postanal tail is defined as the muscular region of the body that extends to the posterior region of the anus and aids in the locomotion and balance of the body.

As given in the question itself that the model is of the human embryo and since humans are vertebrates because they have a backbone and a skeletonized body. Hence, the correct option is A as well as B.

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Which of the following can lie downstream of RTK activation as well as GPCR activation? Select any/all answers that apply.
activation of GBPs (GTP-binding proteins)
Notch activation
activation of kinases
Wnt activation
activation of transcription factors

Answers

Both RTK (Receptor Tyrosine Kinase) activation and GPCR (G-protein coupled receptor) activation can lead to downstream activation of GBPs, kinases, and transcription factors.

RTK activation and GPCR activation are two distinct signalling pathways involved in cellular communication. They can converge on common downstream signalling molecules. One such molecule is GBPs (GTP-binding proteins) which can be activated by both RTK and GPCR signaling. GBPs play a crucial role in transmitting signals and regulating various cellular processes.

Additionally, both RTK and GPCR activation can result in the activation of kinases. Kinases are enzymes that catalyze the transfer of phosphate groups to other proteins, thereby regulating their activity. The activation of kinases can trigger a cascade of signalling events leading to diverse cellular responses.

Moreover, both RTK and GPCR activation can ultimately lead to the activation of transcription factors. Transcription factors are proteins that bind to specific DNA sequences and regulate gene expression. They play a vital role in controlling the synthesis of proteins and influencing cellular functions.

On the other hand, Notch activation and Wnt activation are independent signalling pathways that are not directly associated with either RTK or GPCR signalling. Notch signalling is a highly conserved pathway involved in cell fate determination and development, while Wnt signalling regulates various processes during embryonic development and adult tissue homeostasis. Although they have critical roles in cellular signalling, they do not lie downstream of RTK or GPCR activation.

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what structure is highlighted? infraspinous fossa supraspinous fossa medial border of scapula scapula spine of scapula

Answers

The structure that is highlighted in the given diagram is infraspinous fossa.

The infraspinous fossa is a large concave region located on the posterior (back) surface of the scapula (shoulder blade). It is one of the two major fossae (depressions) found on the scapula, the other being the supraspinous fossa. The infraspinous fossa is positioned below the scapular spine and is bounded by the medial (inner) border and the posterior (back) border of the scapula.

The infraspinous fossa serves as an attachment site for the infraspinatus muscle, one of the muscles that make up the rotator cuff of the shoulder joint. This muscle plays a key role in shoulder movement and stabilization. The size and depth of the infraspinous fossa allow for the proper functioning and range of motion of the infraspinatus muscle.

In summary, the infraspinous fossa is a concave region on the posterior surface of the scapula that provides an attachment site for the infraspinatus muscle and contributes to shoulder movement and stability.

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the complete question is:

what structure is highlighted? infraspinous fossa supraspinous fossa medial border of scapula scapula spine of scapula

what structure is highlighted? infraspinous fossa supraspinous fossa medial border of scapula scapula

A and B represent two plates interacting; what kind of plates are they?A) Plate A is oceanic and Plate B is continental B) Plate A is continental and Plate B is oceanic C) Plate A is oceanic and Plate B is oceanic D) Plate A is continental and Plate B is continental

A and B represent two plates interacting; what kind of plates are they?A) Plate A is oceanic and Plate

Answers

The photo shows a subduction zone between two oceanic plates. When two oceanic plates are converging, one is overridden and the other is pushed down the asthenosphere. The boundary of the subduction zone is usually marked by deep trenches.

ANSWER: C) Plate A is oceanic and Plate B is oceanic.

One of the characteristics of cancer cells is an increased need for protein production. Of the following choices, which organelle would be most closely associated with meeting this need?
Nucleoli

Answers

The organelle that would be most closely associated with meeting the increased need for protein production in cancer cells is the nucleoli.

The nucleoli are responsible for the synthesis of ribosomal RNA (rRNA), which is a key component of ribosomes. Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis, and therefore play a crucial role in meeting the increased need for protein production in cancer cells. By producing more rRNA, the nucleoli can help increase the number of ribosomes in the cell, which in turn can increase the rate of protein synthesis. Therefore, the nucleoli are the most closely associated with meeting the increased need for protein production in cancer cells.

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Where do mitosis and meiosis take place?

Answers

They take place in cells in the body

Which of the following best describes three of the known causes of foodborne illness?
a) Inadequate cooking, dirty sanitizer on the cook line, and advanced food preparation
b) Poor handwashing, food contamination, and lack of temperature control
c) Using dirty wipe cloths, poor oral hygiene, and improper disposal of fryer oil
d) Storing personal belongings with food items, unshielded light bulbs, and poor management

Answers

Answer:

b) Poor handwashing, food contamination, and lack of temperature control

Explanation:

WILL MARK BRAINLIEST! In some plants, the pistils don’t form until a few days after the stamens do. How might this keep a plant from self-pollinating?

Answers

Answer:

Some plants have the ability to make the stamens mature first before the pistils to prevent itself from self-pollinating. ... If a situation as such would happen, there will be no pollen left in that flower to land on the stigma to start the fertilization of the plant.

Explanation:

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Kai has a see-through glass tank with air, plants, and animals that eat those plants. He sealed the tank so no material can get into or out of it, but light can get in when the tank is not covered.


The light for the tank has been on all day, and Kai measured the carbon in the air and found that it is decreasing. How is carbon moving between the air and the living things in the tank? What is happening to the amount of carbon in living things? Explain your thinking as completely as possible.

Answers

Answer:

1. Carbon is moving from the living things in the tank into the air when they respirate, and from the air back into plants via photosynthesis

2. The amount of carbon in living things is increasing as plants use the carbon in the atmosphere, and animals eat the plants.

Explanation:

According to the question, a well sealed tank contains air, plants and animals. Since light can get into the tank, plants can perform photosynthesis. Living things in the tank release carbon in form of carbondioxide (CO2) gas through respiration. Plants then make use of this carbondioxide (CO2) to synthesize carbon-containing food (glucose) in the presence of sunlight. This process is called PHOTOSYNTHESIS.

Animals eat those plants and the stored carbon in the plants gets transferred to them. The animals release this carbon into the air again in the form of carbondioxide when they respire. Hence, carbon in the tank moves from the living things (respiration) into the air and back into plants (photosynthesis).

2. Since the amount of carbon in the air is decreasing, the carbon is being used by the living things in the tank. Plants absorb the carbon in the atmosphere for photosynthesis, then animals eat the plants to get the carbon. Therefore, the amount of carbon in the living things is increasing.

1. Carbon is flowing from the living organisms in the tank into the air by the process of respiration and from the surrounding back into plants via photosynthesis.

The animals in the tank utilize the oxygen when they inhale while during exhalation carbon dioxide is liberated.

The carbon dioxide in the tank is used by the aquatic plants to produce food and energy in this way the level of oxygen and carbon dioxide is maintained in the tank.

2. The quantity of carbon in living, are expanding as plants use this carbon in the process of photosynthesis from the environment and animals consumes those plants.

The deposited carbon in the food gets spent by the animals and they release this carbon back via exhalation.

Therefore the quantity of carbon in living things is increasing.

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a man is born with double-y syndrome: 47,xyy (note: 47, xyy means he has 47 total chromosomes in his karyotype, and that with regard to his sex chromosomes his karyotype is xyy) the most likely explanation for this is:

Answers

A man is born with double-y syndrome: 47,xyy  the most likely explanation for this  Jacob's syndrome, is paternal meiotic error. or trisomy.

A rare genetic disorder called Jacobs syndrome, sometimes called 47,XYY syndrome, affects roughly 1 in 1000 male children. It is a member of the class of disorders known as "sex chromosomal trisomies," of which Klinefelter's syndrome is the most prevalent. The 1960s saw the earliest discovery of this syndrome. Men with the genotype 47,XYY were more likely to have antisocial tendencies than individuals without this genotype, according to early research on hospitalized men. The average age at diagnosis is around 17 years, and many people come in with infertility worries. Many individuals have very few, if any, phenotypic abnormalities, and patient presentations can vary widely. For those who do, macroorchidism, a tall height, macrocephaly (an excessively big head), and hypertelorisms may be present.

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.tcji No thx I'm fine again

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Please help me with my question
I meed hellp pwease and thank you

if a rna virus with radioactive sulfur was allowed to infect non-radioactive bacteria and replicate. then the cells were centrifuged to separate the virus from bacteria. which fraction will contain the highest radioactivity?

Answers

If a RNA virus with radioactive sulfur was allowed to infect non-radioactive bacteria and replicate then in the centrifugation process, the highest radioactivity would be found in the protein coat of the virus which is present in the supernatant.

RNA is the abbreviation for Ribonucleic acid. It is the unstable type of nucleic acid generally present in some viruses and bacteria. There are three main forms of RNA: m-RNA, r-RNA and t-RNA.

Radioactivity is the presence of some radioactive element in any biological molecule that emits radiation spontaneously. Since DNA does not contain any sulfur, therefore the virus can contain radioactivity only in the protein coat. Sulfur is an essential part of cell membranes.

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Which outcome results when a liquid is heated?

Answers

Answer:A given liquid will evaporate more quickly when it is heated. This is because the heating process results in a greater fraction of the liquid's molecules having the necessary kinetic energy to escape the surface of the liquid.

Explanation:90

Answer:

Evaporation is the results when a liquid is heated. The kinetic energy of the liquid increases.

Explanation:

Brainliest pls! :)

an increase blood pressure would elicit a baroreceptor reflex. what would be the effect of this reflex in this example?

Answers

The baroreceptor reflex is a mechanism that helps regulate blood pressure. In the example of an increased blood pressure eliciting a baroreceptor reflex, the effect of this reflex would be to regulate and lower the blood pressure back to a normal range.

When there is an increase in blood pressure, the baroreceptors, which are specialized cells located in the walls of certain blood vessels, are activated.

These receptors send signals to the brain, which responds by decreasing sympathetic nervous system activity and increasing parasympathetic nervous system activity.

This causes the heart rate to decrease and the blood vessels to dilate, which results in a decrease in blood pressure.

The step-by-step explanation is given below.

1. Blood pressure increases, either due to various physiological factors or external conditions.
2. Baroreceptors, which are specialized nerve endings found in the walls of the carotid arteries and aorta, sense the increased pressure.
3. These baroreceptors send signals to the brain, specifically the medulla oblongata, to inform it of the increased blood pressure.
4. The brain then processes this information and sends signals to initiate various responses, such as decreasing the heart rate, reducing the force of cardiac contractions, and dilating blood vessels.
5. As a result, blood pressure decreases and returns to a normal range.

In summary, the effect of the baroreceptor reflex in this example is to lower the increased blood pressure back to a normal range through various physiological responses.

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what color is bacteria​

Answers

Answer:

Most bacteria is a Yellow or Creamy color

Explanation:

When a cell prepares to divide, the chromosomes become more tightly compacted. This process decreases the apparent length of the chromosomes and increases their.

Answers

When a cell prepares to divide, the chromosomes become more tightly compacted. This process decreases the apparent length of the chromosomes and increases their diameter.

When a cell gets ready to divide, it must duplicate each chromosome. Sister chromatids are the name given to chromosomes that have two copies. The sister chromatids are joined together by cohesion-containing proteins and are similar to one another. At the centromere, a section of the DNA that is crucial for their separation during later stages of cell division, the bond between sister chromatids is strongest. The sister chromatids are still regarded as one chromosome as long as they are joined at the centromere. The moment they are separated during cell division, though, each chromosome is regarded as a separate one. The cell cycle is an organised sequence of cell growth and division events that results in the creation of two new daughter cells. In order to form two identical (clone) cells, cells go through a sequence of carefully controlled and regulated steps of growth, DNA replication, and division. Interphase and the mitotic phase are the two main stages of the cell cycle.

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What are the two main phases of the cell cycle? Check all that apply

Answers

Mitosis and meiosis I think

What does Ocean Basin mean

Answers

Answer: Ocean basin, any of several vast submarine regions that collectively cover nearly three-quarters of Earth's surface. ... A number of major features of the basins depart from this average—for example, the mountainous ocean ridges, deep-sea trenches, and jagged, linear fracture zones.

Explanation:

Answer:

ocean basin any of several vast submarine regions that collectively cover nearly three quarters of earths surface. a number of major features of the basins depart from this average for example the mountainous ocean ridges deep sea trenches and jagged linear fracture zones

Explanation:

Which of the following statements relates to the cell theory?
I All non-living things are composed of cells
II All cells come from other cells
III Cells have similar functions
IV The cell is the basic unit of structure in all organisms

Answers

Answer:

IV The cell is the basic unit of structure in all organisms

Explanation:

Why does Iceland have geothermal energy?

Answers

Answer:

Due to the geological location of Iceland (over a rift in continental plates), the high concentration of volcanoes in the area is often an advantage in the generation of geothermal energy, the heating and making of electricity. During winter, pavements near these areas (such as Reykjavík and Akureyri) are heated up.

Explanation:

give me brainlist please i need it thank you if you want

Answer:

Due to the geological location of Iceland (over a rift in continental plates), the high concentration of volcanoes in the area is often an advantage in the generation of geothermal energy, the heating and making of electricity. During winter, pavements near these areas (such as Reykjavík and Akureyri) are heated up.

Explanation:

as a geneticist, you found that afetus has 47 chromosomes. what would be the most likely conclusion drawn from this information?
a. The child has down syndrome
b. The child has sickle-cell anemia
c. The child has phenylketonuria
d. This is normal number of chromosomes

Answers

The most likely conclusion drawn from this information is that the child has an extra copy of a chromosome, a condition known as trisomy and famous known trisomy is Down Syndrome. (A)

While trisomies can occur with any chromosome, the most well-known trisomy is Down syndrome, which is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21. However, it's important to note that there are other trisomies that can occur with different chromosomes, and each one can lead to different health outcomes. (A)

As a geneticist, one of the key aspects of your job is to analyze and interpret genetic information to identify potential health conditions or abnormalities in individuals. In this scenario, you have discovered that a fetus has 47 chromosomes. This finding can provide important clues about the potential health of the developing child.

In summary, a fetus with 47 chromosomes is unlikely to have a normal chromosome count, and the most likely conclusion is that the child has a trisomy. Further testing, such as amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling, may be necessary to determine the specific trisomy and to provide additional information to the parents and healthcare team.

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Draw a Graff
Please ​

Draw a GraffPlease

Answers

Answer:

The table of values for the population of phagocytic cells is presented as follows;

\(\begin{array}{cccccccc}Time \ (in \ minutes) &0&30&60&90& 120&150&5\\The \ number \ of \ phagocytic \ cells&0&20&40&100&150&180&180\end{array}\)

From the plot of the data points using MS Excel, a straight line/ approximately directly proportional relationship between the time, and the number of phagocytes cells such that as the time elapsed increases, the number of cells also increases

Explanation:

Draw a GraffPlease

consider the order of organs in the digestive system and their positions in the body. why do you think digestion is more efficient if you are sitting up rather than slumped over or lying down

Answers

Answer:

Sitting up...!

Explanation:

Answer:

Your answer is sitting up because if you are lying down the digestive juices will not digest the food.

Explanation:

What is the collection of materials that can be broken down and reprocessed to
make new items?

Answers

Answer:

Recycling, recovery and reprocessing of waste materials for use in new products. The basic phases in recycling are the collection of waste materials, their processing or manufacture into new products, and the purchase of those products, which may then themselves be recycled.

Explanation:

Which three compounds are produced during the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis

Answers

Answer:

In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by chlorophyll and converted into stored chemical energy, in the form of the electron carrier molecule NADPH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate) and the energy currency molecule ATP (adenosine triphosphate).

Cavendish bananas, the most common bananas at most grocery stores, are grown by planting rhizomes from an established plant. Several young plants can be seen in this photo. What are the advantages and potential problems with growing bananas through the use of vegetative reproduction?

Answers

Answer:

Advantages of planting banana using vegetative propagation are

Production of new individuals which are identical and have similar characteristics as the parent

It is use to produce plants that did not have viable seeds for planting

The desirable traits or characteristics of the plants can be maintained

The flowers that are produced during vegetative propagation are of good quality

Potential problems are,

. It prevent genetic diversity of banana species and can lead to reduction in the yield of banana that is produced because same characteristics is passed to individual.

2. Since similar characteristics is been passed to new individuals, they are subscetiple to the same pathogenic bacteria, viruses of fungi attack which can destroy plants.

Explanation:

Vegetative propagation is a type of asexual propagation in which part of the parent plants structures us use to grow new plants.

Advantages of growing banana using vegetative methods are;

1. Production of new individuals which are identical and have similar characteristics as the parent. Since part if the parent is use for propagation the characteristics exhibited by the parent will reflect on the new individuals.

2. It is use to produce plants that did not have viable seeds for planing.

3. The desirable traits or characteristics of the plants can be maintained because it is been passed from the parent plants to new individuals produced.

4. The flowers that are produced during vegetative propagation are of good quality.

Potential problems

1. It prevent genetic diversity of banana species and can lead to reduction in the yield of banana that is produced because same characteristics is passed to individual.

2. Since similar characteristics is been passed to new individuals, they are subscetiple to the same pathogenic bacteria, viruses of fungi attack which can destroy plants.

Advantages of planting bananas using vegetative propagation are:

It is used to produce plants that did not have viable seeds for plantingThe desirable traits or characteristics of the plants can be maintainedThe flowers that are produced during vegetative propagation are of good quality.

Potential problems are:

It prevents the genetic diversity of banana species and can lead to a reduction in the yield of bananas that are produced because the same characteristics are passed to an individual.Since similar characteristics is been passed to new individuals, they are susceptible to the same pathogenic bacteria, viruses or fungi attacks that can destroy plants.

What are the 3 types of vegetative propagation?

There are several ways of vegetative propagation. The three main types of forest tree propagation are grafting, air-layering and the use of cuttings. The three types are referred to as micropropagation, as an alternative to micropropagation or tissue culture.

Thus, these are the advantages and disadvantages:

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did mutations affect which trait was the most common at time 3?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Without additional information about the specific traits and mutations in question, it is not possible to provide a definitive answer. However, in general, mutations can affect the prevalence and distribution of traits over time, as they can introduce new genetic variation into a population that can either increase or decrease the frequency of certain traits.

In evolutionary biology, the concept of natural selection can also play a role in determining which traits are most common over time. Traits that confer a selective advantage, such as increased fitness or survival, may become more prevalent in a population over time, while traits that are disadvantageous may decrease in frequency.

Therefore, to determine whether mutations affected the most common trait at time 3, it would be necessary to know which specific traits and mutations are being considered, as well as any selective pressures or environmental factors that may have influenced their prevalence over time.

I AM GENEROUS PLZ HELP BRAINLIEST
What is the name of the process that is cell division for the cells involved in reproduction (sperm cells in male organisms and egg cells in female organisms)?

cytokinesis
replication
meiosis
mitosis

Answers

Answer:::::::::::: Meiosis………

Answer:

replication or mitosis

A view of a cell shows only one copy of the DNA. In which stage of the cell cycle is the cell?
early G1
late S
middle G2
G1, S, and G2

Answers

early g1 as dna has not been replicated yet (it replicates mid S stage)

Select ALL that apply-All living things *
are made of cells
have the ability to reproduce
drink soda
are multicellular
grow and develop
use energy
respond to their environment

Answers

Answer:

All living things are made of cells, have the ability to reproduce, grow and develop, use energy, and respond to their enviorment.

Other Questions
A line passes through the pointa (-8,8) and (12,7) What is the difference between change and continuity? Given that y varies directly with x and that y= 10 when x = 24, determine the value of y when x = 36. True or False_____ 1. The sum of the probabilities can give one and sometimes exceed one_____ 2. The alpha value indicates the % of error allowed in the investigation_____ 3. The critical value is obtained from the formulas applied to each Test_____ 4. H0 is rejected when the manual value is greater than the critical value_____ 5. All probability is between zero and 1_____ 6. The ANOVA Test uses the entire bell_____ 7. There are 2 types of hypotheses_____ 8. The null hypothesis may posit that there is no significant difference between the statistic and the parameter or between 2 parameters_____ 9. When =.05 then you allow 95% error in the study____ 10. The critical value is where the rejection zone for H0 begins. ____ 11. In the binomial distribution r can be greater than n.____ 12. If H0 30 then H1 cannot be determined____ 13. In the normal distribution the probability is in agreement to the total deviations you find____ 14. In an incompatible event the probabilities must all give to one____ 15. In Classical Probability the sample space is always known.____ 16. In Binomial when n =30, the Pr can give greater than one.____ 17. All probability is in Pr 1 and zero____ 18. In the Binomial Distribution the Pr (0) is part of the probabilities.____ 19. In Poison Distribution, N is known and its average N is used.____ 20. Incompatible events are mutually exclusive.____ 21. The [Pr (Oc) + Pr (Not Oc)] can give greater than one, sometimes.____ 22. Incompatible events can be seen in classical probability______23. The variable "eye color" is a qualitative variable, nominal______24. The "scatter diagram" illustrates the relationship between 2 variables.______25. In the range of grouped data you subtract the extreme values.______26. The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher.______27. In Poison, with lambda = 20, then Pr (X >1) = 1 [Pr (0, 1)]______28. In the Binomial distribution, with n=10, the Pr (r > 1) = 1 [Pr (0, 1)]______29. The Pr (Oc) + Pr (Not Oc) = 1______30. In Normal distribution the sum of the Probabilities equals one._______31. In the Binomial Distribution r can be greater than n._______32. The bar chart is used to illustrate the relationship of nominal qualitative variables_______33. In Binomial Distribution, with n =25, the sum of all Pr = 1_______3. 4. In the Poison Distribution, with lambda = 30, the Pr (X = 31) is > 1_______35. The null and alternate hypotheses are mutually exclusive._______36. Let a and b be independent events, Pr(No Oc) = 1 [Pr(a) Pr (b)]._______37. Let A and B be Dependent Events, Pr(A)Pr (B/A) = Pr(B)Pr (A/B)_______38. The Correlation Coefficient can be negative_______39. The Scatter Plot illustrates the dispersion of the data_______40. All Pr (Oc) give to one._______41. When Z is negative also the probability found_______42. In Normal Dist when you have Pr(Z 3) = 1- [Pr (Z=3)]_____43. The arithmetic average is sought by adding all the data/(n-1)_____44. The location of the median is found by looking for (n + 1) / 2_____45. Median of ungrouped data does not use outliers_____46. In the Normal Dist Z = total of the events_____47. When Z = 1, the probability = .5 - .3413_____48. Variance in grouped data is divided by n + 1_____49. If r > 1 then the variables are directly proportional_____50. Every probability is a proper fraction What happened at the Munich Conference? How did Britain and France respond to Hitler? after reading what he thought was the writing of the patron saint of his cathedral, abbot suger decided on a redesign that emphasized the concept of Which detail best helps answer the research question "how were the spacesuits for the apollo missions made?" "each suit was made to fit (custom tailored) each astronaut." "each apollo mission required fifteen (15) suits to support the mission." "the main, or prime, three-man crew each had three suits." (True or False) in unit pricing, the total value of the contract is a function of the quantities needed to complete the work. Find the perimeter and area of the rectangle given below.A rectangle ABCD with vertices A(3,4), B(3,9), C(6,9), and D(6,4).The perimeter is units.(Simplify your answer.)square units.The area is(Simplify your answer.) What does the above excerpt reveal about the political landscape in 2021? what are the balanced half-reactions for the electrodes on the left and right? be sure to include states of matter. question 3refer to the following unbalanced equation: c6h14 o2 --> co2 h2owhat mass of oxygen (o2) is required to react completely with 10.4 g of c6h14? Cenikor+family+is+planning+to+purchase+a+new+home+three+years+from+now+that+they+are+20+$400,000+now+how+much+will+be+available+three+years+from+now+the+fun+grows+at+a+compound+rate+of+12%+per+year? the domain is the set of all real numbers. _____ is a true expression. select all that apply. group of answer choices xy (xy = yx) x y (x2 y2 |x| = |y|) xy (xy > 0) xy (x < 0 y2 = x) An abrupt silicon p-n junction at T = 300K has doping concentrations of N_{D} = 10 ^ 15 * c * m ^ - 3 and N_{A} = 5 * 10 ^ 16 * c * m ^ - 3 Calculate (a) the built-in voltage V bt (b) the depletion width W at reverse biases of (i) V_{R} = 0 and (ii) V_{R} = 5V (c) and the maximum electric field | epsilon max | at (i) V_{R} = 0 and (ii) V_{R} = 5V A boat is heading towards a lighthouse, whose beacon-light is 145 feet above the water. The boats crew measures the angle of elevation to the beacon, 11 . What is the ships horizontal distance from the lighthouse (and the shore)? Round your answer to the nearest tenth of a foot if necessary. find three consecutive integers for which 3 times the sum of the first and third integers is -342? show step by step A mixture of 0.463 M H2, 0.309 M I2, and 0.905 M HI is enclosed in a vessel and heated to 430 C.H2(g)+I2(g)2HI(g)c=54.3 at 430 CCalculate the equilibrium concentrations of each gas at 430 C . Please answer in words. No math is needed unless an example helps explain the question.On the unit circle, an angle terminates at the coordinate (x,y). What is the relationship between the x and y components of the coordinate and the trig functions sin and cos?How can we use those relationships to predict the sign (+/-) for these trig functions when an angle terminates within a given quadrant? how did comman sense help the patriots ?