repeating dna sequence at the end of chromosomes that prevents them from losing base pair sequences at their ends and from fusing together is a

Answer:

because finger prints contain Sweat & it's contain all the 4main components of DNA

Answer:

Air parcel expands and cools at higher altitudes

Explanation:

The buccinator muscle and superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle are attached to each other at the posterior pharyngeal wall. Together, these muscles work to aid in the process of swallowing.

The buccinator and superior pharyngeal constrictor muscles are not directly attached to each other, as they serve different functions and are located in different areas of the head and neck.

The buccinator muscle is found in the cheek and is a part of the facial muscles. It helps in moving food during chewing and assists in the act of blowing.
The buccinator muscle is a thin, flat muscle located in the cheek, while the superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle is one of the three pharyngeal muscles located in the pharynx.
The superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle is a pharyngeal muscle located in the neck. Its primary function is to help in the swallowing process by constricting the pharynx.

Although they are not directly attached, both muscles work together to facilitate the process of chewing and swallowing food.

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Answer:

Sri Lanka has sea borders with India to the northwest and the Maldives to the southwest. Until 1972, the international community called this country Ceylon (Indonesian: Sailan).

Explanation:

I hope this helps

Answer:

C

Explanation:

I'm pretty sure it's either C or B

An office emergency includes following planned procedures by the administrative medical assistant. Option b is correct.

An office emergency is an unexpected event that occurs in a workplace and requires immediate attention. This can include natural disasters, medical emergencies, fires, power outages, or other situations that put workers or clients in danger.

An administrative medical assistant is the person responsible for the administration of medical offices and clinics. They help to ensure the smooth running of the offices and clinics by managing tasks like scheduling appointments, organizing medical records, billing, and performing other administrative duties.

The administrative medical assistant is also responsible for handling emergencies that arise in the office. They should be well versed in emergency procedures and know how to respond appropriately to a range of emergency situations. They must be able to think quickly and make decisions that can save lives in the event of an office emergency.

So, an office emergency includes following planned procedures by the administrative medical assistant. Option b is correct.

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Answer:

a) Meiosis

Explanation:

Meiosis is a form of cell division that occurs in sexually reproducing animals' germ cells and is utilized to create gametes such as sperm and egg cells. It takes two rounds of division to produce four cells, each with only one copy of each chromosome.

Kylie suspects the age of the skeletal remains that she found following an excavation to be older than 30. However, to conclude it positively, kylie should look for C. bone fusion.

Bone fusion is the process of bones combining to form one bone, when a person grows, some bones in the body fuse together. Bone fusion is also helpful in determining the age of the skeletal remains. If the bones in the body have not completely fused together, this means that the person is under the age of 30. Conversely, if the bones have completely fused together, this means that the person is over the age of 30.

Examining bone fusion is an accurate and effective way to determine a person's age from their skeletal remains, it can help archaeologists and forensic scientists to learn more about human history and how we have evolved over time. This information can then be used to inform our understanding of modern-day healthcare, including how best to treat and prevent certain medical conditions. Therefore, Kylie should look for bone fusion to conclude the age of the skeletal remains positively, so the correct answer is C.bone fusion.

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Kylie suspects the age of the skeletal remains that she found following an excavation to be older than 30. However, to conclude it positively, Kylie should look for the degenerative changes. The age of skeletal remains can be determined by observing certain characteristics like degenerative changes, bone fragments, and bone fusion.

The degenerative changes are helpful in identifying the age of skeletal remains because over time, the skeletal structure undergoes changes due to wear and tear of joints or bones. The different types of degenerative changes observed are osteophytes, joint space narrowing, subchondral cyst formation, and subchondral sclerosis. These changes start showing up as early as the age of 30 years and increase as the age advances.Furthermore, the fusion of bones can also help in determining the age of skeletal remains. Certain bones like the sternum and sacrum fuse at different ages in life and this can be used as a rough estimate of the age. The study of bone fragments is another way to identify the age of skeletal remains.

By observing the sizes of the fragments, the age can be determined. Thus, it can be concluded that among the given options, degenerative changes is the most helpful factor in concluding the age of skeletal remains positively.

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If you cross RrYy and RRyy pea plants, the fraction of the offspring that will have round yellow peas will be C. 50%.

To understand this, we need to use the principles of Mendelian genetics and the Punnett square. First, let's write the genotypes of the parents: RrYy x RRyy
Now, let's create a Punnett square by placing the gametes (sperm and egg cells) of each parent on the top and left side of the square:

|   | R   | r   |
|---|---|---|
| Y | RY | rY |
| y | Ry | ry |

Each box in the Punnett square represents a possible combination of alleles from the parents. We can use this square to determine the genotype and phenotype of the offspring. To find the fraction of offspring with round yellow peas, we need to look for the boxes that have the R and Y alleles together, these are: RY and rY.  These boxes represent the offspring that are RrYy and Rryy. Both of these genotypes produce round yellow peas. If we add up the number of boxes with RY or rY, we get 2 out of 4, or 50%, therefore, the fraction of offspring that will have round yellow peas is C. 50%.

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The labs most helpful in assessing a patient’s fluid status are Red Blood Cell count, Glycated Hemoglobin (HbA1C), Serum electrolytes, and Serum proteins.

The Red Blood Cell count helps to determine if the patient is anemic, which can be a sign of fluid loss. The Glycated Hemoglobin (HbA1C) test can help to measure the average amount of glucose in the blood over a two to three month period and can be used to evaluate the patient’s hydration status.

Serum electrolytes can help to determine if the patient has any electrolyte imbalances or dehydration. Finally, serum proteins can be used to assess the amount of proteins in the blood, which can be a sign of fluid overload or dehydration. All of these labs can provide valuable information to help assess a patient’s fluid status and should be used in combination with the physical exam to accurately evaluate the patient’s fluid status.

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Invasive species provoke significant damages in the structure of native ecosystems. They also cause economical and socio-cultural problems.

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When talking about dispersion we refer to the change in a species´ range or distribution area.

When a species move and establish in a new area out of their original distribution range, they might be considered exotic or invasive, according to their

The introduction of invasive species has ecological, economic, socio-cultural consequences. Once an invasive species has been established, it overgrows. In the new areas, these species have less environmental pressure and better conditions than in their origin area -fewer predators, more resources, better nitches-, and these factors favor their establishment. They interact with native species by competing for resources such -water, place, radiation, exposure, shelter, food, etcetera-. They provoke significant damages in the structure of native ecosystems, causing severe damage in endemic species. They produce ecological imbalances in the trophic chains and the dynamics of communities. Invasive species are uncontrollable.

As they expand, they can also affect human in an economical manner and has socio-cultural effects. Many invasive species might cause crops loss by eating cultures. They attack farm animals. They affect buildings and other structures or ships by eating wood. They might even attack humans and cause health problems.  

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Question:

Solution:

Remember that a vascular plant consists of two organ systems. These two organ systems are:

Shoot system: includes the aboveground vegetative portions (stems and leaves) and reproductive parts (flowers and fruits).

Root system: supports the plant and is usually underground.

So that, we can conclude that the correct answer is:

VASCULAR SYSTEM.

Answer:

nucleus,chloroplast,cell wall, cell membrane

Explanation:

In Zones 2 and 4, you find large amounts of two different microorganisms.

Based on the characteristics provided for Zone 2 water (green cells connected in strands, cell wall made of peptidoglycan, ester-bonded phospholipids, DNA not wrapped around histones), these cells fit the description of cyanobacteria. Cyanobacteria are a group of photosynthetic bacteria, also known as blue-green algae.

Yes, these microorganisms could be responsible for the green hue of the water. Cyanobacteria contain chlorophyll, which is the green pigment involved in photosynthesis. Their presence in the water can give it a green color.

In summary, the characteristics of the cells in Zone 2 water are consistent with cyanobacteria, which can cause the green hue in the water due to their chlorophyll content.

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Answer:

Explanation:the number of times the heart beats within a certain time period, usually a minute

Places located at high latitudes (far from the equator) receive less sunlight than places at low latitudes (close to the equator). The amount of sunlight and the amount of precipitation affects the types of plants and animals that can live in a place.

The lysin marker would be the best genetic marker to select for the most number of recombinants and kill the f- strain.

In Hfr x F- crosses, genetic markers are used to monitor the transfer of genes from the donor to the recipient. The genetic map is used to determine the order of the genes that are transferred, the distance between them, and the frequency of recombination. Genetic markers are used in these crosses to distinguish between recombinants and non-recombinants and to determine the frequency of recombination.

Lys is the best marker to select in this case because it is the farthest from the origin of transfer. This means that it will be transferred last and will only be transferred if the other markers are also transferred. Therefore, lys will be the marker that will most likely separate the F- strain from the recombinants. This means that it is the most efficient way to select for the most number of recombinants and kill the F- strain.

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If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II, then two of the resulting gametes will be normal, containing the correct number of chromosomes. However, the other two gametes will be aneuploid, meaning they will have an abnormal number of chromosomes. One of the aneuploid gametes will have an extra chromosome, while the other will be missing a chromosome. Correct answer is option C

Nondisjunction is a genetic error that occurs during the process of meiosis in which one or more chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. When nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II, the four gametes that are produced will all be aneuploid, meaning that they will have an abnormal number of chromosomes. This means that all four gametes will contain either one less or one more chromosome than normal, and so none of them will be genetically normal. This type of aneuploidy is not viable, and so none of the four gametes will be able to develop into a viable embryo.

The effects of aneuploidy can vary significantly depending on the number and identity of the chromosomes involved. Having one extra or one missing chromosome can cause a range of developmental issues, and some aneuploid gametes can be viable. However, when aneuploidy occurs during meiosis II, all four gametes will be aneuploid and will not be viable.

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The structure involved in hearing that corresponds MOST closely in function to the photoreceptors in the retina for vision is the hair cells in the cochlea Photoreceptors are specialized cells found in the retina that can detect light. They are responsible for the conversion of light into electrical signals that the brain can interpret as visual images.

Hair cells are sensory receptors found in the cochlea of the inner ear. They are responsible for detecting sound and converting it into electrical signals that the brain can interpret as sound.The function of hair cells is similar to that of photoreceptors in the retina.

Both are specialized cells that detect stimuli (light for photoreceptors and sound for hair cells) and convert them into electrical signals that the brain can interpret. Both are essential for vision and hearing, respectively.Therefore, the structure involved in hearing that corresponds most closely in function to the photoreceptors in the retina for vision is the hair cells in the cochlea.

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The answer is D.) Electrons move at very fast speeds around the nucleus of an atom.

The option that best describes electrons is as follows:

Thus, the correct option is D.

An Electron may be defined as a negatively charged subatomic particle that is significantly found in all atoms and functions as a primary carrier of electricity mostly in solids.

The electrons are always revolving around the nucleus of an atom, while protons and neutrons are localized in the center of an atom known as the nucleus.

Electrons are negatively charged subatomic particles and due to this, they generate an electric field that exerts an attractive force on a particle with a net positive charge and induces a repulsion force on a particle with the same negative charge.

Therefore, the option that describes the electrons is that they move at very fast speeds around the nucleus of an atom. Thus, the correct option for this question is D.

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The types of natural selection in biology are: Stabilizing selection, Directional selection, Disruptive selection, and Sexual selection.

Natural selection is the process by which certain traits become more or less common in a population over time, based on how well those traits enable the individuals who possess them to survive and reproduce.

1. Stabilizing selection: This occurs when traits that fall within a certain range are favored, while those that deviate from that range are selected against. This leads to the stabilization of a trait within a population.

2. Directional selection: This occurs when a certain trait becomes more or less favorable, causing the population to shift in that direction. This leads to a change in the average value of a trait within a population.

3. Disruptive selection: This occurs when traits at both extremes of a range are favored over those in the middle. This can lead to the splitting of a population into two distinct subpopulations, each with their own favored trait.

4. Sexual selection: This occurs when certain traits are favored because they increase an individual's ability to attract a mate. This type of selection can lead to the evolution of exaggerated or flashy traits, like the colorful plumage of a peacock.

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Answer:

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

Explanation:

In 1952 Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase were working with bacteriophages or phages, which are viruses that infect bacteria. They knew that a phage had an outer shell of protein and an inner core of DNA. In addition, from the electron microscope observations, they also knew that during infection the virus attacks the bacterium by its tails and introduces its genetic material into the bacterium to multiply using its metabolic machinery. They radioactively labeled two sets of phages: one with 32P (which marks only DNA) and another with 35S (which marks only proteins). In two parallel experiments, they infected bacteria with viruses marked on their DNA and with viruses marked on their proteins. The cultures were shaken with a mixer to separate the virus particles from the bacterial coatings. They then performed a centrifugation to separate the phages from the bacteria, so that the larger and heavier bacteria remain in the pellet, while the phages remain in the supernatant. They found that the radioactivity of 35S appeared in the supernatant while that of 32P appeared in the sediment, from which new radioactively labeled virus particles appeared, demonstrating that DNA was the genetic material.

Explanation:

The answer is D.) vacuole

Answer:

The correct answer is D

Explanation:

A urinalysis is an examination of urine to identify any abnormalities and evaluate overall health. To know what urinalysis results you would expect for someone being treated for a bacterial infection like strep throat, assuming he or she follows the doctor's orders of amoxicillin, 2x/day; lots of bed rest; and drink lots of fluids.

There are several factors to consider:

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Answer:

A tributary is a river or stream flowing into a larger river or lake. It is also a person or state that pays tribute to another state or ruler.

Answer:

1. a river or stream flowing into a larger river or lake.

"the Illinois River, a tributary of the Mississippi"

2. a person or state that pays tribute to another state or ruler.

"tributaries of the Ottoman Empire"

It has grown in size due to global warming

Answer:

Explanation:

The third-quarter moon, also known as the last quarter moon, rises around midnight and sets around noon. Crescent Waning From our vantage point, the Moon is nearly back to the point in its orbit where its dayside directly faces the Sun, and all we see is a thin curve

When you look at a waxing crescent moon, you see a thin fraction of the moon's illuminated side and a larger fraction of the moon's night side, which is submerged in the moon's own shadow. Earthshine on a waxing crescent moon

The Decline The Gibbous phase occurs when the illuminated portion of the Moon decreases from 99.9 percent to 50.1 percent. It begins shortly after the Full Moon and continues until the Third Quarter Moon. Waning refers to the fact that it is shrinking and becoming smaller, whereas gibbous refers to the oval-to-round shape.

Hope this helps you!

Answer:

1- When seeing third quarter moon in it's position we see one half of the disks moon.

2- when seeing a waxing crescent in it's position we see the first glimpse of the moon after a new moon phase has happened.

3- when seeing a warning gibbious in it's position we see three quarters of the moons disk.

Answer:

Carbon has an exceptional ability to bind with a wide variety of other elements. Carbon makes four electrons available to form covalent chemical bonds, allowing carbon atoms to form multiple stable bonds with other small atoms, including hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen.

Explanation:

Carbon has an exceptional ability to bind with a wide variety of other elements. Carbon makes four electrons available to form covalent chemical bonds, allowing carbon atoms to form multiple stable bonds with other small atoms, including hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen.