Answers
Products that provide immediate satisfaction but may have negative consequences for consumers in the long term are known as "short-term gratification" products.
Short-term gratification products are those that offer immediate pleasure or satisfaction but can potentially harm consumers in the long run. These products often cater to instant desires and impulses, appealing to consumers' immediate needs or wants without considering the potential negative consequences that may arise in the future. Examples of such products include fast food with high levels of fat and sugar, addictive substances like cigarettes or alcohol, and high-interest credit cards.
Consumers are drawn to these products due to the immediate gratification they provide, but over time, they can lead to negative health outcomes, financial struggles, or other adverse effects. For instance, consistently consuming unhealthy fast food can contribute to obesity and related health issues, while relying on high-interest credit cards can result in overwhelming debt and financial instability.
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Related Questions
Help I need the labels for this heart
Answers
Answer:
hope this will help you more
a two-year-old patient presents to the ed after having fallen in a lake, with a near drowning. the patient is in shock. regular venous access methods have failed, and the emergency department attending physician decides to do a venous cutdown. after a transverse incision over the vein of the patient's ankle is made, a small stab incision is done distal to the first incision. two sutures are placed around the vein. a cannula is passed though the incision of the vein. the skin is closed in layers with sutures.
Answers
A venous cutdown is performed in a two-year-old patient who experienced near-drowning, allowing for successful venous access in the emergency department.
A two-year-old patient who experienced a near drowning incident is brought to the emergency department (ED) in shock.
Conventional venous access attempts have been unsuccessful, prompting the attending physician to perform a venous cutdown. A transverse incision is made over the ankle vein, followed by a small stab incision distal to the initial one.
Two sutures are placed around the vein, and a cannula is carefully inserted through the incised vein.
The skin is then closed using layered sutures to complete the procedure, providing a crucial venous access route for the patient's ongoing management.
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A physician orders D5W at 600mL over 10 hours and you are using a 20gtt/ mL IV administration set. What is the drop rate in gtt/min? (Round to the nearest whole number)
Answers
Answer:
20 gtt/min
Explanation:
This can be set on a formula I attached below (that's circled) you will have to turn hrs -> mins (which is easy in this case 10x 60 = 600 mins ), so you will multiply 600 mL x 20 gtt/mL and then divide it by 600 minutes to have 20 gtt/min.
While academia may be the major source of training in the field, all of the additional sources below except for one may be used as well to provide professionally recognized training. Which source is that?
Answers
It's the law. Under New York law, you can get a citation for riding your bike while listening to music using headphones or earbuds in both ears. It is lawful, however, to listen to music with only one earbud keeping the other ear free.
Sensory deprivation. One of the main ways that people alert each other to danger on the road is through sound. Whether it's honking, yelling or ringing a bicycle bell, you're less likely to hear any of these warnings if you're listening to music putting you at higher risk of an accident.
Decreased attention. The more stimuli you have to contend with, the more difficult it is to dedicate your full attention to one particular task. If you get caught up in a song or story you're listening to while cycling, it can increase your distractibility which could have disastrous consequences.
The majority of cycling-related accidents involve a cyclist and a motor vehicle. Not surprisingly, the injuries a cyclist suffers in such collisions tend to be disproportionately serious and often fatal. Therefore, if you're cycling in traffic, foregoing the headphones can prove to be a life-saving decision.
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Answer:https://brainly.com/question/29685357
Explanation:https://brainly.com/question/29685357
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MRI systems are generally _____ times stronger than a refrigerator magnet.
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MRI systems are generally thousands of times stronger than a refrigerator magnet.
The strength of an MRI magnet is measured in Tesla, which is a unit of magnetic field strength. A typical refrigerator magnet has a strength of about 0.01 Tesla, whereas an MRI magnet can have a strength of 1.5 to 3 Tesla or even higher. This means that an MRI magnet is typically several hundred to several thousand times stronger than a refrigerator magnet.
The strength of an MRI magnet is important because it affects the quality of the images that are produced. The stronger the magnet, the more detailed the images can be. This is because the strength of the magnet determines how much the protons in the body are affected by the magnetic field.
When a person is placed inside an MRI scanner, the protons in their body align with the magnetic field of the magnet. When a radio wave is then applied to the body, the protons absorb the energy and emit a signal, which is used to create the image.
MRI systems are used in a variety of medical applications, including the diagnosis of cancer, brain and spinal cord injuries, and joint problems. They are also used in research to study the structure and function of the body. The strength of the magnet is an important factor in determining the usefulness of an MRI system for a particular application.
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Delivery of blood to body cells for gas, nutrients and waste exchange is: ___________(9 letters)
Answers
Answer:
Perfusion
Explanation:
Delivery of blood to body cells for gas, nutrients and waste exchange is: Perfusion
Strength training helps prevent and manage both cardiovascular disease and diabetes by:
a. improving blood vessel health.
b. improving glucose metabolism.
c. increasing maximal oxygen consumption.
Answers
(A) - The significant advantages of strength training is that it can improve blood vessel health. Strength training helps to increase blood flow throughout the body, which can enhance the capacity of blood vessels to function optimally.
Importance of strength training -Strength training is an excellent way to improve overall health and prevent various chronic diseases, including cardiovascular disease and diabetes. When it comes to preventing and managing these conditions, strength training can provide many benefits due to its impact on the body.
Other benefits -Strength training can also improve glucose metabolism, which is a critical factor in managing diabetes. When we engage in strength training exercises, we activate muscle cells, which helps to improve insulin sensitivity.
Finally, strength training can increase maximal oxygen consumption, also known as VO2max. VO2max is a measure of the maximum amount of oxygen that our bodies can use during physical activity.
Conclusion -Overall, strength training is an excellent way to prevent and manage cardiovascular disease and diabetes. By improving blood vessel health, glucose metabolism, and VO2max, strength training offers a range of health benefits that can help us maintain good health and quality of life.
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What are the possible consequences of maintaining the ban on asbestos?
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The formation of new neurons is called __________.
A.
neurogenesis
B.
damage and neural reorganization
C.
effects of experience on plasticity
D.
development
Answers
ANSWER:
A.) neurogenesis
Answer: neurogenesis
The formation of new neurons is called neurogenesis.
What is the name for the sensation of falling when asleep?.
Answers
Answer:
hypnic (or hypnagogic) or myoclonic j3rk.
Explanation:
4. A woman is brought into an emergency room after a
severe automobile accident. She's unconscious and badly
injured. Her husband arrives at the emergency room at the
same time as she arrives in the ambulance. The doctor
explains the wife's condition to her husband and asks for
permission to operate on her. The husband agrees to the
operation. The husband's approval for the operation is called
consent. .
A. substituted
B. informed
C. mutual
D. contractual
Answers
Answer:
D. substituted
Explanation:
sorry if its wrong
how would a developer determine which oop language or tool to use?
Answers
Answer: In procedural programming, data moves freely within the system from one function to another. In OOP, objects can move and communicate with each other via member functions.
Explanation: Therefore, Abstraction, encapsulation, inheritance, and polymorphism are four of the main principles of object-oriented programming (OOP).
A developer can determine which Object-Oriented Programming (OOP) language or tool to use by assessing project requirements, evaluating available resources, identifying the target platform, language features, language popularity, and support, etc.
The following are the steps:
1. Assess project requirements: The developer should first understand the specific needs and goals of the project, such as performance, scalability, and security.
2. Evaluate available resources: The developer should consider the existing resources, including team expertise, development tools, and any existing codebase that needs to be integrated.
3. Identify the target platform: The developer should identify the target platform(s) for the application, such as web, mobile, or desktop, and choose an OOP language that is compatible with those platforms.
4. Compare language features: The developer should evaluate the key features and benefits of different OOP languages, such as syntax, libraries, and community support.
5. Consider language popularity and support: The developer should also take into account the popularity of the OOP language, which can influence the availability of support resources, documentation, and third-party libraries.
6. Perform a cost-benefit analysis: The developer should weigh the benefits of each OOP language against its costs, including licensing fees, development time, and potential learning curve.
7. Conduct a pilot project or proof-of-concept: The developer may choose to create a small pilot project or proof-of-concept using the chosen OOP language, to evaluate its suitability for the specific project requirements.
By following these steps, a developer can make an informed decision on which Object-Oriented Programming language or tool best fits their needs and the needs of the project.
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What additional health and fitness assessment is strongly recommended for a client with type 2 diabetes
Answers
For a client with Type 2 Diabetes, in addition to a standard health and fitness assessment, it is strongly recommended to conduct a comprehensive metabolic and glucose tolerance test.
What is health and fitness assessment?A health and fitness assessment is a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's physical and health status. The purpose of a health and fitness assessment is to gather information about an individual's health history, lifestyle, and physical fitness levels in order to develop a personalized plan for improving their health and wellness. The assessment typically includes a combination of physical measurements, medical tests, and self-reported information.
Examples of components that may be included in a health and fitness assessment are:
Body composition measurement: This includes determining the amount of body fat, muscle mass, and bone density.Cardiovascular fitness assessment: This can include measuring heart rate, blood pressure, and aerobic capacity.Strength and flexibility assessment: This measures an individual's ability to perform strength exercises and assesses the range of motion in joints.Medical history: This includes information about any past or present medical conditions, surgeries, or injuriesNutritional assessment: This includes information about an individual's eating habits, food choices, and any dietary restrictions or requirements.Lifestyle assessment: This includes information about an individual's physical activity levels, sleep patterns, stress levels, and substance use.The results of a health and fitness assessment can help healthcare professionals and fitness professionals to design safe and effective fitness programs, identify health risk factors, and develop a personalized plan for improving overall health and wellness.
For a client with Type 2 Diabetes, in addition to a standard health and fitness assessment, it is strongly recommended to conduct a comprehensive metabolic and glucose tolerance test. This test will help to assess the individual's glucose metabolism and identify any abnormalities or issues related to the control of blood sugar levels.
Other recommended assessments include:
Hemoglobin A1C test: This test measures the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months and provides insight into the control of blood sugar levels over time.Lipid panel: A lipid panel is used to assess the levels of cholesterol and triglycerides in the blood, which are important risk factors for heart disease.Blood pressure: High blood pressure is a common complication of Type 2 Diabetes, so it is important to regularly monitor blood pressure levels.Nephropathy screening: Nephropathy, or damage to the kidneys, is a common complication of Type 2 Diabetes. Regular screening for nephropathy is important to detect and manage this condition.It is also important for a client with Type 2 Diabetes to have a comprehensive assessment of their diet and physical activity levels, as well as a review of any medications they are taking. This will help to identify any changes that need to be made in order to effectively manage their diabetes and maintain good overall health.
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You are the administrator of LTC facility in Ontario and it has come to your attention that IR was not filled out for the injury that patient sustained from improper transfering technique A. You ensure that you speak to all your staff and coach them to follow P and P about incident reports B. You fill and IR yourself and forget about this oversight C. Your fire the staff members involved in this incident
Answers
As the administrator of an LTC (Long-Term Care) facility in Ontario, you have become aware that an incident report (IR) was not completed for a patient's injury resulting from improper transferring technique.
To address this matter, it is essential to take appropriate action. The recommended course of action is to engage in open communication with all staff members and provide coaching on the significance of adhering to the facility's policies and procedures concerning incident reports. By doing so, you proactively address the issue, emphasizing the importance of accountability and adherence to protocols. This approach aims to prevent similar incidents in the future and fosters a culture of safety and responsibility within the LTC facility.
Option A, which focuses on education and training rather than punitive measures, aligns with the best approach to enhance patient safety and well-being in the facility.
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A nursing assistant is being called for assistance by a patient who speaks very little English. Because the nursing
assistant has a difficult time understanding the patient, the nursing assistant ignores the patient's call, figuring that
someone else will tend to the patient instead. Which ethical principle is the nursing assistant neglecting?
fidelity
beneficence
nonmaleficence
autonomy
Answers
A group of people (Group A), do not like the new migrants who have recently started living in town (Group B). Group A feels that Group B is messing up the local economy by taking away employment and housing opportunities.
Apply your understanding of prejudice and discrimination to this issue:
That is, who is the "in group?" who is a part of the "out group?"
Given Group A's perspective, which theory of prejudice and discrimination best applies to this situation?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
As humans, we have a natural tendency to categorize and label people based on characteristics such as race, ethnicity, religion, and culture. This process creates an "in group" and an "out group," where individuals who share similar characteristics belong to the "in group" and those who do not belong to the "out group." Unfortunately, this categorization can lead to prejudice and discrimination, as seen in the scenario of Group A and Group B.
In this case, Group A is the "in group" who has been living in the town for a while, while Group B is the "out group" who are the newly arrived migrants. Group A's perception that Group B is taking away employment and housing opportunities demonstrates a classic example of the economic theory of prejudice and discrimination. This theory states that prejudice and discrimination arise when a dominant group perceives that an out-group is threatening their resources or economic advantages.
Group A's view reflects the belief that there is a limited amount of resources, such as jobs and housing, in the town, and that the presence of Group B is taking away opportunities from Group A. This belief creates a sense of competition, where Group A sees Group B as a threat to their well-being, leading to prejudice and discrimination.
However, it is important to note that this perception is often misguided and inaccurate. Migrants can contribute positively to the local economy by starting new businesses, creating job opportunities, and boosting economic growth. Moreover, it is not fair to hold Group B responsible for the economic challenges that the town may face.
In conclusion, the scenario of Group A and Group B is an unfortunate example of the economic theory of prejudice and discrimination. As a society, we must strive to eliminate this harmful behavior and work towards creating a more inclusive and equitable environment for all.
Mass chemotherapy can be administered for all of the following , EXCEPT. 1. Lymphatic filariasis 2. Hookworm infection 3. Diphtheria 4. Onchocerciasis
Answers
Mass chemotherapy is a highly effective strategy for controlling and eliminating certain infectious diseases, including lymphatic filariasis, hookworm infection, and onchocerciasis. However, it is not effective against bacterial infections like diphtheria. The correct answer is 3.
Mass chemotherapy is a widely used strategy to control and eliminate certain infectious diseases that affect large populations. This approach involves treating all individuals within a targeted area, regardless of whether they are infected or not, with a specific medication that can kill or eliminate the infectious agent. Mass chemotherapy has been successfully used to combat several diseases, including lymphatic filariasis, hookworm infection, and onchocerciasis.Lymphatic filariasis, also known as elephantiasis, is a parasitic infection caused by microscopic worms that are transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The disease can cause severe swelling in the legs, arms, and genitals, and can lead to permanent disability. Mass chemotherapy with drugs such as diethylcarbamazine and albendazole has been shown to effectively reduce the prevalence of the disease.Hookworm infection is another parasitic disease that affects millions of people worldwide, particularly in tropical and subtropical regions. The infection is caused by hookworm larvae that enter the body through the skin, usually via contaminated soil. Mass chemotherapy with drugs such as albendazole and mebendazole has been shown to be highly effective in reducing the prevalence of hookworm infection.Onchocerciasis, also known as river blindness, is a parasitic disease caused by a worm that is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black flies. The disease can cause severe itching, skin lesions, and blindness. Mass chemotherapy with the drug ivermectin has been shown to be highly effective in reducing the prevalence of onchocerciasis.However, mass chemotherapy is not effective against all infectious diseases. For example, diphtheria is a bacterial infection that is caused by a toxin produced by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Mass chemotherapy is not effective against bacterial infections, and diphtheria is typically treated with antibiotics and antitoxin therapy. Therefore, mass chemotherapy cannot be administered for diphtheria.For more such question on Mass chemotherapy
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these drugs are increasingly used to treat anxiety disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and posttraumatic stress disorder.
Answers
The drugs that are increasingly used to treat anxiety disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and posttraumatic stress disorder is antidepressant drugs.
What are antidepressant?
A class of drugs known as antidepressants is used to treat major depressive disorder, anxiety disorders, chronic pain problems, and to aid in the management of addictions. Antidepressants frequently cause dry mouth, weight gain, headaches, nausea, sexual dysfunction, and emotional blunting as side effects.
The brain's neurotransmitters—a class of chemicals—activate more when antidepressant drugs are taken. The neurotransmitters serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine appear to have a positive effect in reducing the signs and symptoms of anxiety and depression.
Hence the drugs that are increasingly used to treat anxiety disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and posttraumatic stress disorder is antidepressant drugs.
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1. Conduct research to find four different food sources that could be part of a high-protein diet. For each food source, indicate the major amino acids and other nutritional benefits that are present, then indicate the recommended minimum daily intake of protein for adults. Cite the sources of your research. BBoldIItalicsUUnderlineBulleted listNumbered listSuperscriptSubscript
Answers
Answer:
1. Tuna (Protein content: 32g per 100g)
2. Breast chicken (Protein content: 31g per 100g)
3. Cheddar (Protein content: 25g per 100g)
4. Walnuts (Protein content: 16g per 100g)
Explanation:
1. Tuna. Tuna is rich in essential amino acids (i.e., lysine, methionine, cysteine, threonine and tryptophan), and omega-3 fatty acids, which helps to prevent cardiovascular diseases. Moreover, this food is an important source of vitamin A, B Group vitamins (i.e., thiamin, riboflavin, niacin) and minerals (i.e., calcium, phosphorus, iron, etc.) (Fatimah et al. 2019).
2. Chicken breast. Chicken breast is low in fat and an excellent source of protein, vitamins (vitamin B6, niacin), and many essential minerals (selenium, phosphorus,iron, calcium). Chicken is a rich source of methionine, the precursor of homocysteine (Bansal and Joshi 2017).
3. Cheddar. Cheddar cheese is produced from milk, which has a good content of calcium that helps to prevent osteoporosis and vitamin K. This food has significant quantities of essential amino acids (e.g., lysine, threonine, and tryptophan) (Gueimonde et al. 2019).
4. Walnuts. Walnuts are rich in fats (lipids), especially omega-3 fatty acids, which are required for normal brain function (Haider, Saida, et al. 2011). Moreover, walnuts have a high content of arginine amino acid.
A 27 year old female patient with a long history of diabetes mellitus present to the office for her annual physical and to go over the results of her blood work the doctor
Answers
Answer: The patient’s complaints of increased hunger and urination are indicative of diabetes, and the loss of vision in the periphery can result from uncontrolled diabetes
Had to complete the question before answering.
A 27 year old female patient with a long history of diabetes mellitus presents to the office for her annual physical and to go over the results of her blood work with the doctor. During the patient history section of the examination, the patient states that she has been experiencing increased hunger, urination frequency, and heartburn. In addition, she has noticed that when driving, the cars next to her are tougher for her to see. She also states that her neck and shoulders are tight and achy. The blood work comes back with the following results:
Fasting Glucose: 108mg/dl
HgbA1c: 8.0%
Chloride: 115 mEq/L
Potassium: 5.9 mEq/L
Sodium: 155 mEq/L
Calcium: 8.9mg/dl
Magnesium: 1.5 mg/dl
Phosphorus: 5.1 mg/d
EXPLANATION:
The patients blood sugar are above the recommended level or target range. Which has led to the patient experiencing symptoms of increased hunger, urination frequency, heart attack, the patient’s complaints of increased hunger and urination are indicative or signs of diabetes, and the loss of vision in the periphery is a result from an uncontrolled diabetes.
Walking down a dark New York street late at night you suddenly feel the metal barrel of a pistol press against your head behind your ear and hear the instructions "Don’t move a muscle while I slip your wallet out of your pocket." Unfortunately, you do move, the gun is fired, and the bullet enters the brain. Breathing and heart beat stop almost immediately. Where is the bullet?
Answers
Answer:
in the Brain Stem
Explanation:
When the gun has fired the casing of the bullet would have been expelled from the gun and most likely landed on the floor, while the projectile in this scenario would have entered the victim's brain and destroyed the brain stem. Most likely stopping in the brainstem or nearby it. This is the most likely scenario because the brainstem is what completely controls the bodies breathing, heart rate, and other important functions of the body by giving it instructions. Damage to the brain stem would cause breathing and heartbeat to stop immediately as all communication would come to a complete stop between the brain these organs.
A nurse is teaching participants at a community center about advance directives. Which of the following informations should the nurse include in the teaching?
Advance directives cannot be changed one implemented
A client must create a do-not- resuscitation order when completing advance directives
A health care surrogate makes health care decisions when the client is no longer able
Assigning a health care surrogate requires legal consultation
Answers
The nurse should include the information that a health care surrogate makes health care decisions.
when the client is no longer able and that assigning a health care surrogate requires legal consultation.
It is also important to emphasize the importance of discussing and documenting one's wishes for future health care decisions in advance directives.
The incorrect options are not accurate advance directives can be changed or updated, a do-not-resuscitate order is just one type of advance directive,
And legal consultation is only required for assigning a health care surrogate, not for completing advance directives in general. Although it is recommended, assigning a health care surrogate does not always require legal consultation.
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7. What behavior modification technique is used to keep an animal away from an object or area? O A. Habituation O B. Avoidance therapy O C. Desensitization O D. Aversion therapy
Answers
Answer:
Option D (Aversion therapy) is the appropriate choice.
Explanation:
A type of behavioral treatment that involves aversive manipulation to mitigate or suppress the action of symptoms or conditions, combining harmful behavior or symptoms towards negative stimuli. Closely connected with aversive conditioning, another terminology is more often used. See conduct counseling for behavior modification.Some other alternatives are also not relevant to the current situation presented. So, the solution is indeed the correct version.
Hashimoto disease...What happens if the hormon that activates the production of the gland controled by hypothalamus is forced to diminish the amount of hormons produced by the tireoid gland so an artificial hypotireosis is induced but the patient still gets tireoid gland hormons as medicine..Will the antibodies start weaken the attacks on the tireoid gland?Thanks for a clear answer.
Answers
Answer:Your thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped organ on the front of your neck. Its main function is to produce a thyroid hormone that regulates your metabolism. Hypothyroidism occurs when a person's thyroid function decreases. Hashimoto thyroditis, also known as Hashimoto’s disease, is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in the U.S. “Hashimoto’s disease causes chronic
Explanation:
If the half-life of a radioactive element is 16.0 years, what percentage of the original sample would be left after 48.0 years?
Answers
Answer:
12.5%
Explanation:
year 0 = 100%
year 16 = 50%
year 32= 25%
year 48= 12.5%
Coordination of the balance in the body movement is controlled by the?
Cerebellum
The bodies functions that occur without conscious effort are related by the BLANK nervous system.
Autonomic
The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the?
Cerebellum and Brain.
The cervical spine is composed of BLANK vertebra.
7
The BLANK contains about 75% of the brain's total volume.
Cerebrum
The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the:
Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, and Coccygeal.
The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is:
Epinephrine
The BLANK is the best-protected part of the C.N.S. and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory system.
Brain Stem
The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (C.S.F.) that circulates in between each meningeal layer, function by:
Acting as shock absorbers for the brain and spinal cord.
The BLANK nervous system consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
Peripheral
The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the:
Spinal Canal
The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the:
Dura Mater
What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities?
Somatic
What nerve carries information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord?
Sensory Nerve
A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should:
Immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam.
A female patient with a suspected spinal injury is breathing with a marked reduction in title volume. The most appropriate airway management for her includes:
Assisting ventilations at an age appropriate rate
An epidural hematoma is most accurately defined as:
Bleeding between the skull and dura mater.
An indicator of and expanding intercranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is:
A rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.
Any unresponsive trauma patient should be assumed to have:
An accompanying spinal injury.
A patient who cannot remember the events that preceded his or her head injury is experiencing:
Retrograde Amnesia
A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who:
are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.
A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless:
It interferes with your assessment of the airway.
Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following.
C.S.F leakage from the ears.
Combative behavior.
Decreased sensory function.
Common signs of a skull fracture include all of the following:
Mastoid process bruising.
Ecchymosis around the eyes.
Noted deformity to the skull.
During your primary assessment of a semiconscious 30-year-old female with closed head trauma, you note that she has slow, shallow breathing and a slow, bounding pulses. As your partner maintains manual in-line stabilization of her head, you should:
Instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment.
Following a head injury, a 20-year-old female opens her eyes spontaneously, is confused, and obeys your commands to move her extremities. You should assign her a G.C.S score of:
14
Laceration to the scalp:
Maybe an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries.
The Glasgow Coma Scale (G.C.S.) is used to assess:
Eye-opening, verbal response, and motor response.
The ideal procedure for moving in injured patient from the ground to a backboard is:
The Log Roll.
The most common in serious complication of a significant head injury is:
Cerebral Edema.
When assessing a conscious patient with an M.O.I. that suggests spinal injury, you should:
Determine if the strength in all extremities is equal.
When immobilizing a child on a long backboard, you should:
Place padding under the child's shoulders as needed.
When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should:
Ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.
When immobilizing a trauma patients spine, the E.M.T. manually stabilizing the head should not let go until:
The patient has been completely secured to the backboard.
When opening the airway of a patient with suspected spinal injury, you should use the:
Jaw-Thrust Maneuver.
Answers
Answer:
Cerebellum
Explanation:
Which abbreviation stands for the arm?
Answers
Answer:
UE
Explanation:
General procedures ( codes 20005-20999 ) are used for various anatmical strures and not limited to anyone body area. true or false
Answers
mediction that are legal and used properly have no risk or side effects
Answers
Answer:
yes but not at all times due to changes in the body