mizar and alcor (also called the horse and rider) have been known since ancient times. which of the following statements is not true about them. group of answer choices they were once used as a vision test. they are a multiple star system with a total of six stars orbiting each other. they are held together with a force of gravity. one of the stars will be exploding (supernova) soon. they are found in the big dipper.

The spectrum observed from the Sun (or any star) would exhibit an absorption spectrum. This is because the outer gaseous atmosphere of the star absorbs specific wavelengths of light, resulting in dark absorption lines in the spectrum.

In the cooler, lower-density outer atmosphere, where white light from the star travels, some atoms or molecules in the atmosphere absorb photons with particular energy. In the spectrum, these absorptions show up as black lines at specific wavelengths. The specific set of absorption lines that each element or molecule generates results in a distinctive pattern that can be used to identify the elements that are present in the star's atmosphere.

The absorption spectrum offers insightful data on the chemical make-up and physical characteristics of the star. Astronomers can ascertain the elements present, their abundances, and other characteristics like the temperature, pressure, and velocity of the star's atmosphere by examining the absorption lines.

To know more about absorption spectrum here https://brainly.com/question/10252035

#SPJ4

A) The force on a particle can be found by taking the negative of the derivative of the potential energy function with respect to x. For U = Ax^2 + Bsin(πx/L), let's find the derivative:

dU/dx = d(Ax^2)/dx + d(Bsin(πx/L))/dx = 2Ax + B(π/L)cos(πx/L)
Now let's find the force at x=0:
F(x=0) = -dU/dx(0) = -[2A(0) + B(π/L)cos(π(0)/L)] = -[0 + B(π/L)] = -B(π/L)
B) The force on the particle at x=L/2:
F(x=L/2) = -dU/dx(L/2) = -[2A(L/2) + B(π/L)cos(π(L/2)/L)] = -[AL + B(π/L)cos(π/2)] = -[AL + 0] = -AL
C) The force on the particle at x=L:
F(x=L) = -dU/dx(L) = -[2A(L) + B(π/L)cos(π(L)/L)] = -[2AL + B(π/L)cos(π)] = -[2AL - B(π/L)]
To summarize:
A) The force at x=0 is -B(π/L).
B) The force at x=L/2 is -AL.
C) The force at x=L is -2AL + B(π/L).

Learn more about force here:

https://brainly.com/question/13191643

#SPJ11

Answer:

Kinetic  energy = 98 N

Explanation:

Given:

Mass = 5 kg

Height = 2 m

Find:

Kinetic  energy

Computation:

K(e) = P(e)

So,

P(e) = mgh

So,

K(e) = (5)(9.8)(2)

Kinetic  energy = 98 N

When an airplane travels 640 miles from Topeka to Houston in 3. 2 hours, going against the wind. The return trip is with the wind and takes only 2 hours. Then the rate of the airplane with no wind is 260 miles/hr, and the rate of the wind is 100 miles/hr

Let Va is the velocity of the airplane

Va is the velocity of the wind

When flying against the wind then

(Va+Vw)*(3.2 hours) = 640

3.2Va + 3.2Vw = 640

3.2Vw = 640 - 3.2Va

Vw = 200 - Va----------------(1)

When flying with the wind:

(Va-V)*(2 hours) = 640km

2Va - 2Vw = 640

Va - Vw = 320 ----------------(2)

Putting the value of VW in equation (2) we get

Va - (200-Va) = 320

2Va = 320 +200

2Va = 520

Va = 260

Putting this value in equation (2)

Vw =Va - 360

Vw = 100

Therefore the rate of the airplane with no wind is 260 miles/hr, and the rate of the wind is 100 miles/hr

Learn more about rates:

https://brainly.com/question/26046491

#SPJ4

Explanation:

what is the difference between cytology and histology

Histology involves the study of tissue and Cytology involves the study of cells, both of which are derived from various organs of the human body. The Histology laboratory is responsible for the preparation of tissue for diagnosis by Pathologists.

The weight of the object from the information provided in the question is  1500 N.

We know that pressure = Force/area. We have the following information from the question;

Pressure =500 Nm-2

Area = 3 m2

Hence;

Force = Pressure × area

Force = 500 Nm-2 × 3 m2

Force = 1500 N

Hence, the weight of the object is 1500 N

Learn more: https://brainly.com/question/8646601

Ultra = X-ray

Explanation:

how are things going to paint the roof for beginners painting and decorating the whole house so I'm going away with a few sports mates for a couple nights for beginners but will have a look painting at a time and see what is going to be Strong enough

Answer:

50 degrees

Explanation:

the angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray is 80 degrees

80 degrees   +  inc + refl = 180

inc = refl = 50 degrees

Answer:

Look below.

Explanation:

All the symptoms provided points to the common problem of dehydration. Especially a physically active person because they are constantly sweating which leads to the loss of bodily fluids and dehydration.

Answer:

Gravity

Explanation:

The total angular distance performed in 1 curl can be determined by subtracting the initial position of the knee joint from the final position of the knee joint. This is because angular distance is the difference in the initial and final angles of the knee joint.

Therefore, the formula to calculate the total angular distance of Zach Ziegler in one hamstring curl is: Total angular distance = Final angle – Initial angle

Here, the relative angle at his knee changes from 0 degrees (straight leg) to 130 degrees of knee flexion and back to 0 degrees when doing 1 hamstring curl. So, the initial angle is 0 degrees and the final angle is also 0 degrees. This means that the total angular distance performed in 1 curl is:

Total angular distance = 0 degrees – 130 degrees + 0 degrees

Total angular distance = -130 degrees

Therefore, the total angular distance performed in one curl is 130 degrees.

To know more about angular distance visit :

https://brainly.com/question/28475160

#SPJ11

Hi there!

Assuming the rod is pulled back 90° (π/2 radians), we can use angular kinematics to solve.

Using the equation:

\(\omega_f^2= \omega_i^2 + 2\alpha \theta\)

\(\omega_f\) = final angular velocity (? rad/sec)

\(\omega_i\) = initial angular velocity (0 rad/sec)

\(\alpha\) = angular acceleration (rad/sec², must solve for)

\(\theta\) = angular displacement (π/2 rad)

Recall Newton Second Law's rotational equivalent:
\(\Sigma \tau = I\alpha\)

τ = Torque (Nm)

I = Moment of inertia (kgm²)
α = angular acceleration (rad/sec²)

Setting the pivot point at the end, and knowing that the force of gravity works at an object's center of mass (1.5m from the rod's end), we can solve for the angular acceleration.

\(\tau= F \times r\\\\\tau = W \times r = 10(9.8) * 1.5 = 147 Nm\)

Now, solve for the moment of inertia given I = 1/3ML² at one of its ends:
\(I = \frac{1}{3}(10)(3^2) = 30 kgm^2\)

Solve for the angular acceleration:
\(147 = 30\alpha\\\\\alpha = 4.9 \frac{rad}{sec^2}\)

Now, we can use the kinematic equation to solve.

\(\omega_f^2 = 0 + 2(4.9)(\frac{\pi}{2}})\\\\\omega_f = \sqrt{2(4.9)(\frac{\pi}{2})} = \boxed{3.923 \frac{rad}{sec}}\)

A 1Msun star in a closed binary system with a 2Msun star.

Systems in which the two stars are close to each other are called close binary star system.

The most massive stars have the shortest lifespans. The reason is that they have most fuel, they burn it so enormously that their lifetimes are very short. As a 1Msun star in a closed binary system with a 2Msun star becomes the massive star so it has the shortest life expectancy.

a. No, an isolated 1Msun star has not the shortest life expectancy.

b. No, a 1Msun star in a closed binary system with a 0.8Msun star has not the shortest life expectancy.

c. Yes, A 1Msun star in a closed binary system with a 2Msun star has the shortest life expectancy.

Learn more about star from:

https://brainly.com/question/21521087

#SPJ4

Weight of the man = m * g = 80 kg * 9.81 m/s^2 = 784.8 N

Potential energy of the man = mgh = 80 kg * 9.81 m/s^2 * 4.0 m = 3139.2 J

Using the formula for work done by a force, the average force exerted by the water on the man can be calculated as: F = (mgh) / d = 3139.2 J / 2.0 s = 1569.6 N.

Therefore, the average force exerted by the water on the man is 1569.6 N.

The mass of the man who steps off the diving platform is given as 80 kg in this scenario. Mass is a fundamental property of an object that describes the amount of matter present in it. In this case, the man is considered as a single object with a mass of 80 kg. This mass value is important in calculating the force exerted by the water on the man as he comes to rest. The mass of an object is an essential parameter in many physical calculations such as the calculation of kinetic energy, potential energy, and force.

To know more about Mass visit:

https://brainly.com/question/15959704

#SPJ4

Explanation:

Hope it helps my lady.......

The weight "W" of the wood block is the same as the weight of the moving water.

We should start by characterizing Archimedes' regulation.

A body that is completely or partially submerged in a fluid experiences a thrust force that is equal to the weight of the ejected fluid and has a direction and sense vertically upward, according to Archimedes' principle.

There must be no vertical forces applied to the whole wood block.

The gravitational pull of a body is measured by it. The formula for weight is as follows: w = mg. Because weight is a force, the SI unit of weight is the Newton (N), which is the same as the SI unit of force.

To know more about Weight visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29254543

#SPJ4

Answer:

B Crystallization

Hope this helps♡♡

Answer:

The answer is the First One

Explanation:

Electromagnets can work with a magnetic source, and not just electric. sorry if my answer turns out to be wrong

Using these formulas, we can determine how long it will take for Omar to save enough money for his project.

Omar is looking to invest some money for a future project. In order to calculate how long it will take for him to have enough money, we need to consider a few different factors.

First, we need to know the amount of money that Omar needs for his project. Let's call this amount "P". Without this information, we won't be able to determine how much he needs to save or how long it will take to reach his goal.

Next, we need to know the annual interest rate at which Omar can invest his money. Let's call this rate "r". In this case, we know that the interest is compounded semiannually. This means that the interest is calculated twice a year (every six months) and added to the principal amount.

To calculate the effective annual interest rate for a semi-annual compounding, we can use the following formula:

Effective annual rate = (1 + (r/2))^2 - 1

This formula takes into account the fact that interest is being compounded twice a year.

Once we have the effective annual interest rate, we can use the formula for compound interest to determine how much Omar's investment will grow over time. The formula is:

A = P(1 + (r/n))^(nt)

where:
- A is the amount of money Omar will have after t years
- P is the principal amount (the amount he initially invests)
- r is the annual interest rate
- n is the number of times interest is compounded per year
- t is the number of years

We know that the interest is compounded semiannually, so n = 2.

Using these formulas, we can determine how long it will take for Omar to save enough money for his project.

learn more about annual interest rate here

https://brainly.com/question/31261623

#SPJ11

Answer:

Momentum is equal to mass for velocity (p1=mv)

But momentum is also equal to Force for time of impact (p1=Ft). Hence the impact force is inversely proportional to the fall time and directly proportional to the mass and fall velocity : F=mv/t^2 or F=p1/t

If he slows down, v diminishes and F diminishes

Hence correct Answer is C

The correct option is (c) 5 × 10⁻³ kWh.

Given, Mass of graphite burned, m = 0.562 gHeat produced, q = 18.0 kJ= 18000 J

The first law of thermodynamics states that the energy of the universe is constant.

Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, it can only be transferred or converted from one form to another.

Therefore, the heat energy produced by burning the graphite, q is equal to the internal energy, ΔU of the system.As per the formula of internal energy,ΔU = q + w

Since the volume of the system is constant, w = 0.

Therefore, ΔU = q

The internal energy change can be written as,ΔU = nCvΔT where n is the number of moles of the substance burnt.

Cv is the specific heat capacity of the substance burnt andΔT is the change in temperature of the substance.So, q = nCvΔT

The change in temperature of the substance, ΔT can be calculated by the following formula,ΔT = q/(nCv)

The mass of the substance can be converted to number of moles using the following formula,n = m/M where M is the molar mass of the substance.

Here, the substance burnt is graphite.

The molar mass of carbon (C) = 12 g/molKnow more about here,

The molecular formula of graphite is C₆H₁₂So, the molar mass of graphite = 6 x molar mass of carbon= 6 x 12 g/mol = 72 g/mol

Moles of graphite burnt,n = 0.562 g / 72 g/mol = 0.00781 mol

The specific heat capacity of graphite at constant volume, Cv = 5.7 J/mol/K

Therefore, ΔT = 18000 J / (0.00781 mol x 5.7 J/mol/K)ΔT = 512.82 K

So, the energy generated in kilowatt-hours if the burning of 0.562 g of graphite produces 18.0 kJ of heat is given by the formula,kWh = q/3600where q is the energy in joules.So, kWh = 18000 J / 3600= 5 × 10⁻³ kWh

Therefore, the correct option is (c) 5 × 10⁻³ kWh.

Know more about first law of thermodynamics here,

https://brainly.com/question/10713638

#SPJ11

Answer:

The force of friction.

Explanation:

Gravity keeps the car on the ground.

Motion Allows the car to move.

The force of speed doesnt make sense.

Friction would cause the car to stop moving.

Answer:

the labor rate variance is $416 favorable

Explanation:

The computation of the labor rate variance is shown below:

But before that actual labor rate is

The Actual labor rate is

= Actual direct labor cost ÷ Actual labor hours

= $103,840 ÷ 2,896

= $35.856354

Now  

labor rate variance is

= (Standard rate - Actual rate) × Actual Hours

= ($36 - $35.856354) × 2,896

= $416 Favorable

Hence, the labor rate variance is $416 favorable

The number of bit strings of length 4 that contain at most two 1s is 11, while the number of bit strings that contain at least three 1s is 5. So, the correct answer is (b) 11,5

For the first question, we need to count the number of bit strings of length 4 that contain at most two 1s. We can approach this by considering all possible combinations. The bit strings can have 0, 1, or 2 ones.

For 0 ones: There is only one possibility, which is "0000".

For 1 one: There are four possibilities, which are "0001", "0010", "0100", and "1000".

For 2 ones: There are six possibilities, which are "0011", "0110", "0101", "1001", "1010", and "1100".

Therefore, the total number of bit strings with at most two 1s is 1 + 4 + 6 = 11.

For the second question, we need to count the number of bit strings of length 4 that contain at least three 1s. In this case, we consider all combinations with 3 or 4 ones.

For 3 ones: There are four possibilities, which are "0011", "0101", "0110", and "1001".

For 4 ones: There is only one possibility, which is "1111".

Therefore, the total number of bit strings with at least three 1s is 4 + 1 = 5.

In summary, the number of bit strings of length 4 that contain at most two 1s is 11, and the number of bit strings that contain at least three 1s is 5. Hence, (b) is the correct option.

To know more about bit strings refer here :    

https://brainly.com/question/31168016#

#SPJ11          

Answer:

The answer is 294 J

Answer:

294 j

Explanation:

The point at which the Fahrenheit and Celsius scales have the same numerical value is -40°C. The point at which the Fahrenheit and Kelvin scales have the same numerical value is 459.67°F the expansion gap that should be left between the steel railroad rails is 0.0045 m or 4.5 mm.

(a) The point at which the Fahrenheit and Celsius scales have the same numerical value is -40°C. This is because this temperature is equivalent to -40°F.  At this temperature, both scales intersect and meet the same numerical value.
(b) The point at which the Fahrenheit and Kelvin scales have the same numerical value is 459.67°F. At this temperature, both scales intersect and meet the same numerical value.
For the second part of the question:
Given that the original length of the steel railroad rails is 12.5m, the maximum temperature rise is 30℃, and the coefficient of linear expansion (a) is 1.2×10⁻⁵/℃.
Therefore, the expansion ΔL can be calculated as:
ΔL = L×a×ΔT
Where L is the original length of the steel railroad rails, a is the coefficient of linear expansion, and ΔT is the temperature rise.
Substituting the given values, we have:
ΔL = 12.5×1.2×10⁻⁵×30
ΔL = 0.0045 m
Therefore, the expansion gap that should be left between the steel railroad rails is 0.0045 m or 4.5 mm. This gap allows the rails to expand without buckling or bending.

To know more about temperature visit;

brainly.com/question/7510619

#SPJ11

Answer:

True

Explanation:

It is true that. A technician can be electrocuted when working on HEVs or EVs, therefore the correct answer is option A

An EV stands for an electric vehicle. Electric vehicles (EVs) are autos that are powered totally or partially by electricity. Electric cars are extremely cost-effective to run because they have fewer moving parts to maintain and use little to no fossil fuels (petrol or diesel).

When evaluating its environmental impact, every factor must be taken into consideration. Considering that EVs have a minimal overall environmental impact, this suggests that the severity of these production emissions decreases.

Recycling is one strategy for lowering the lifespan emissions of electric vehicles. Again, incorrect assumptions can be refuted by facts.

Thus, That is accurate. The correct response is option A because a technician could electrocute themselves while working on HEVs or EVs.

To learn more about electric vehicles here

https://brainly.com/question/28222776

#SPJ2