I don't quite understand. Can you help please?

Answer:

The two moments must be the same:

p1=p2

m1v1=m2v2

v2=(m1v1)/m2

v2=(90 kg x 0.9 m/s)/110kg=0.7 m/s

Answer:

25

Explanation:

Answer:

\(\huge\boxed{\sf P = 10\ Watts}\)

Explanation:

Given:

Energy = E = 200 J

Time = t = 20 s

Required:

Power = P = ?

Formula:

P = E / t

Solution:

P = 200 J / 20 s

P = 10 Watts

\(\rule[225]{225}{2}\)

Hope this helped!

Recall the formula,

\({v_f}^2-{v_i}^2=2a\Delta x\)

where \(v_i\) and \(v_f\) are the rock's initial and final velocities, respectively; \(a\) is its acceleration; and \(\Delta x\) is the displacement it undergoes.

At any point during its motion, the rock is subject to gravity, so \(a=-g\), where \(g=9.80\frac{\rm m}{\mathrm s^2}\). At its maximum height, the rock has zero vertical velocity, and if we take its starting height to be the origin, we have \(\Delta x=x_{\rm max}\).

So,

\(0^2-{v_i}^2=-2gx_{\rm max}\implies-{v_i}^2=-2\left(9.80\dfrac{\rm m}{\mathrm s^2}\right)(40\,\mathrm m\implies\boxed{v_i=28\dfrac{\rm m}{\rm s}}\)

Answer:

In a material, the magnetic behavior depends on the alignment of magnetic moments of the atoms. Magnetic moments are generated by the motion of the electrons in the atoms. When the magnetic moments of atoms in a material are aligned in a specific pattern, it creates a magnetic field which results in the material being magnetic.

In many materials, the magnetic behavior arises due to the alignment of magnetic domains, which are regions of atoms with magnetic moments aligned in the same direction. When many domains with aligned magnetic moments are present in a material, the material becomes magnetic.

The magnetic behavior of a material depends on the number of electrons and the arrangement of those electrons in the atoms. In particular, for an atom to have a magnetic moment, it must have unpaired electrons, meaning electrons that are not paired with another electron with the opposite spin. When these unpaired electrons in the atoms are aligned, they generate a magnetic moment. If all electrons are paired, there will not be a net magnetic moment, so the material will not be magnetic.

So, in summary, the magnetic behavior of a material is determined by the alignment of magnetic moments of atoms. When the magnetic moments of many atoms in a material align in the same direction, it creates a magnetic field, leading to a material being magnetic. This alignment is usually present in magnetic domains consisting of atoms with unpaired electrons.

A 66.1-kg boy is surfing and catches a wave which gives him an initial speed of 1.60 m/s. He then drops through a height of 1.59 m, and ends with a speed of 8.51 m/s. The nonconservative work done on the boy is approximately -42.7 kilojoules.

To find the nonconservative work done on the boy, we need to consider the change in the boy's mechanical energy during the process. Mechanical energy is the sum of the boy's kinetic energy (KE) and gravitational potential energy (PE).

The initial mechanical energy of the boy is given by the sum of his kinetic energy and potential energy when he catches the wave:

E_initial = KE_initial + PE_initial

The final mechanical energy of the boy is given by the sum of his kinetic energy and potential energy after he drops through the height:

E_final = KE_final + PE_final

The nonconservative work done on the boy is equal to the change in mechanical energy:

Work_nonconservative = E_final - E_initial

Let's calculate each term:

KE_initial = (1/2) * m * v_initial^2

= (1/2) * 66.1 kg * (1.60 m/s)^2

PE_initial = m * g * h_initial

= 66.1 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 * 1.59 m

KE_final = (1/2) * m * v_final^2

= (1/2) * 66.1 kg * (8.51 m/s)^2

PE_final = m * g * h_final

= 66.1 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 * 0

Since the boy ends at ground level, the final potential energy is zero.

Substituting the values into the equation for nonconservative work:

Work_nonconservative = (KE_final + PE_final) - (KE_initial + PE_initial)

Simplifying:

Work_nonconservative = KE_final - KE_initial - PE_initial

Calculating the values:

KE_initial = (1/2) * 66.1 kg * (1.60 m/s)^2

PE_initial = 66.1 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 * 1.59 m

KE_final = (1/2) * 66.1 kg * (8.51 m/s)^2

Substituting the values:

Work_nonconservative = [(1/2) * 66.1 kg * (8.51 m/s)^2] - [(1/2) * 66.1 kg * (1.60 m/s)^2 - 66.1 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 * 1.59 m]

Calculating the result:

Work_nonconservative ≈ -42.7 kJ

Therefore, the nonconservative work done on the boy is approximately -42.7 kilojoules. The negative sign indicates that work is done on the boy, meaning that energy is transferred away from the boy during the process.

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To calculate the torque required to create an angular acceleration, we can use the formula:

Torque = Moment of Inertia × Angular Acceleration

The moment of inertia of a disk can be calculated using the formula:

Moment of Inertia = (1/2) × Mass × Radius^2

Given:

Mass = 15,000 kg

Radius = 6.14 m

Angular Acceleration = 0.0500 rad/s^2

First, calculate the moment of inertia:

Moment of Inertia = (1/2) × Mass × Radius^2

Moment of Inertia = (1/2) × 15,000 kg × (6.14 m)^2

Next, calculate the torque:

Torque = Moment of Inertia × Angular Acceleration

Torque = Moment of Inertia × 0.0500 rad/s^2

Now, let's plug in the values and calculate:

Moment of Inertia = (1/2) × 15,000 kg × (6.14 m)^2

Moment of Inertia ≈ 283,594.13 kg·m^2

Torque = 283,594.13 kg·m^2 × 0.0500 rad/s^2

Torque ≈ 14,179.71 N·m

Rounding to three significant figures, the torque required to create an angular acceleration of 0.0500 rad/s^2 is approximately 14,180 N·m.

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The magnitude of the acceleration of block m2 is 0.5 m/s² and the tension in the cord if the surface is frictionless is 0.02 N.

The acceleration of bock m2 is calculated from Net force exerted by the pulley.

F - T = m2a

F - m1a = m2a

F = m2a + m1a

F = a(m2 + m1)

a = F/(m1 + m2)

a = (0.03) / (0.04 + 0.02)

a = 0.5 m/s²

T = m1a

T = 0.04 x 0.5

T = 0.02 N

Thus, the magnitude of the acceleration of block m2 is 0.5 m/s² and the tension in the cord if the surface is frictionless is 0.02 N.

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Answer:

(a) P₁ = 1320 W

(b) P₂ = 480 W

(c) \(\frac{E_1}{E_2} = 0.46\)

Explanation:

(a)

The power consumed by the blow dryer can be calculated as follows:

\(P_1 = VI\)

where,

P₁ = Power Consumed by the blow dryer = ?

V = Voltage = 120 V

I = Current Rating of the blow dryer = 11 A

Therefore,

\(P_1 = (120\ V)(11\ A)\\\)

P₁ = 1320 W

(b)

The power consumed by the blow dryer can be calculated as follows:

\(P_2 = VI\)

where,

P₂ = Power Consumed by the vacuum cleaner = ?

V = Voltage = 120 V

I = Current Rating of the vacuum cleaner = 4 A

Therefore,

\(P_2 = (120\ V)(4\ A)\\\)

P₂ = 480 W

(c)

\(\frac{E_1}{E_2} = \frac{P_1t_1}{P_2t_2}\)

where,

E₁ = Energy used by the blow-dryer

E₂ = Energy used by the vacuum cleaner

t₁ = time of use of the blow-dryer = (15 min)(60 s/1 min) = 900 s

t₂ = time of use of the vacuum cleaner = (1.5 h)(3600 s/1 h) = 5400 s

Therefore,

\(\frac{E_1}{E_2} = \frac{(1320\ W)(900\ s)}{(480\ W)(5400\ s)}\\\\\frac{E_1}{E_2} = 0.46\)

The resultant force acting on an aircraft window  is 5670 Newton when the aircraft is  flying at an altitude of 12 km.

The force delivered perpendicularly to an object's surface per unit area across which that force is dispersed is known as pressure. The pressure relative to the surrounding air is referred to as gauge pressure.

The pressure applied = 70 kPa = 70000 Pa.

The cross-sectional rea = 810 cm² = 0.081 m².

Hence, the force applied on the window = 70000 Pa × 0.081 m².

= 5670 Newton.

So, the resultant force acting on an aircraft window  is 5670 Newton.

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Taking into account the Newton's second law, the acceleration of the object is 5 m/s².

Newton's second law states that this force will change the speed of an object because the speed and/or direction will change and these are called acceleration.

Newton's second law states that: "The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the force acting on it and inversely proportional to the mass."

Mathematically, Newton's second law is expressed as:

F= m×a

where:

In this case, you know:

Replacing in the definition of Newton's second law:

200 N= 40 kg× a

Solving:

a= 200 N÷40 kg

a= 5 m/s²

Finally, the acceleration is 5 m/s².

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In order to determine which of the two solutions of salt water is more concentrated, we need to first understand what concentration means and how it is measured. Concentration refers to the amount of solute dissolved in a given amount of solvent. It is typically measured in units of mass per volume, such as grams per liter (g/L) or milligrams per milliliter (mg/mL). so The second solution is more concentrated

When comparing the concentration of two solutions, the one with a higher concentration has more solute dissolved in the same amount of solvent. Therefore, in the picture provided, we can determine which solution is more concentrated by looking at the relative amounts of solute in each solution.If the solutions have the same concentration, then they must have the same amount of solute dissolved in the same amount of solvent. From the picture, we can see that both solutions are in the same size container and have the same amount of solvent (water) in them. Therefore, we can conclude that they have the same concentration of salt.The amount of solute dissolved in a solution can be increased by either adding more solute or by reducing the amount of solvent. If we were to add more salt to one of the solutions, we would increase the concentration of that solution. Alternatively, if we were to evaporate some of the water from one of the solutions, we would reduce the amount of solvent and increase the concentration of that solution.

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The potential V(x, y, z) everywhere inside the box. Formulas give V=0 at the center of this cube. Is E=0 there\((A_{n,m}e^{a/2\sqrt{(n^{2}+m^{2})\pi^{2}/a^{2}}}+B_{n,m}e^{-a/2\sqrt{(n^{2}+m^{2})\pi^{2}/a^{2}}})=\frac{16V_{0}}{nm\pi^{2}}\: \: \: n,m =odd\)

Laplace equation in cartesian co-ordinates is

\(\frac{\partial^2 V}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2 V}{\partial y^2}+\frac{\partial^2 V}{\partial z^2}=0\)

Multiply both side by \(sin\left ( \frac{n'\pi x}{a} \right )sin\left ( \frac{m'\pi z}{a} \right )\)   and integrate over x and z from 0 to a

\(\int_{0}^{a}\int_{0}^{a}V_{0}sin\left ( \frac{n\pi x}{a} \right )sin\left ( \frac{m\pi z}{a} \right )dxdz=\frac{a^{2}}{4}(A_{n,m}e^{-a/2\sqrt{(n^{2}+m^{2})\pi^{2}/a^{2}}}+B_{n,m}e^{a/2\sqrt{(n^{2}+m^{2})\pi^{2}/a^{2}}})\)

\((A_{n,m}e^{-a/2\sqrt{(n^{2}+m^{2})\pi^{2}/a^{2}}}+B_{n,m}e^{a/2\sqrt{(n^{2}+m^{2})\pi^{2}/a^{2}}})=\frac{4V_{0}}{a^{2}}\int_{0}^{a}sin\left ( \frac{n\pi x}{a} \right )dx \int_{0}^{a}sin\left ( \frac{m\pi z}{a} \right )dz\)

\((A_{n,m}e^{-a/2\sqrt{(n^{2}+m^{2})\pi^{2}/a^{2}}}+B_{n,m}e^{a/2\sqrt{(n^{2}+m^{2})\pi^{2}/a^{2}}})=\frac{16V_{0}}{nm\pi^{2}}\: \: \: n,m =odd\)

Now apply the final boundary condition V(x, y=a/2, z) = V0

Solving we get

\((A_{n,m}e^{a/2\sqrt{(n^{2}+m^{2})\pi^{2}/a^{2}}}+B_{n,m}e^{-a/2\sqrt{(n^{2}+m^{2})\pi^{2}/a^{2}}})=\frac{16V_{0}}{nm\pi^{2}}\: \: \: n,m =odd\)

The Laplace equation is a partial differential equation that describes the behavior of a scalar field in space. In its simplest form, it states that the sum of the second partial derivatives of the scalar field with respect to each of the spatial dimensions is equal to zero. This means that the scalar field has no sources or sinks, and its value is determined only by the boundary conditions.

The Laplace equation has many applications in physics, engineering, and mathematics. For example, it can be used to model the behavior of electric and gravitational fields, fluid flow, and heat transfer. It is also used in solving problems involving potential functions, which arise in many areas of physics and engineering.

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Complete Question: -

You have a cubical box (sides all of length a) made of 6 metal plates which are insulated from each other. The left wall is located at y=-a/2, the right wall is at y=+a/2. Both left and right walls are held at constant potential V=V0. All four other walls are grounded. Find the potential V(x, y, z) everywhere inside the box. Do your formulas give V=0 at the center of this cube? Is E=0 there? (Should they be??)

Answer:

A. displacement.

Explanation:

Aliyah is measuring the distance she can jump forward

\( \: \)

1) describe the life cycle of a star before it collapses into a black hole.

1) describe the life cycle of a star before it collapses into a black hole.ans: A star's life cycle is determined by its mass. The larger its mass, the shorter its life cycle. A star's mass is determined by the amount of matter that is available in its nebula, the giant cloud of gas and dust from which it was born. Over time, the hydrogen gas in the nebula is pulled together by gravity and it begins to spin. As the gas spins faster, it heats up and becomes as a protostar. Eventually the temperature reaches 15,000,000 degrees and nuclear fusion occurs in the cloud's core. The cloud begins to glow brightly, contracts a little, and becomes stable. It is now a main sequence star and will remain in this stage, shining for millions to billions of years to come. This is the stage our Sun is at right now.

2) describe the life cycle of a star before it becomes a dwarf.

ans: The life cycle of a low mass star (left oval) and a high mass star (right oval). ... As the core collapses, the outer layers of the star are expelled. A planetary nebula is formed by the outer layers. The core remains as a white dwarf and eventually cools to become a black dwarf.

3) what is the likely outcome of our sun?

ans: All stars die, and eventually — in about 5 billion years — our sun will, too. Once its supply of hydrogen is exhausted, the final, dramatic stages of its life will unfold, as our host star expands to become a red giant and then tears its body to pieces to condense into a white dwarf.

Explanation:

Without changing the constant speed, your friend can empty the contents of the wagon, or decrease the overall rate, or the terrain the wagon is traveling on, all of these would increase the wagon's speed. Also, you could try applying a heavier pulling force, like using a horse instead of yourself, or you and a horse to get going faster.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

true

Explanation:

True since coulomb's law states that There is electric force between like charges or opposite charges. The negative sign only shows the nature of the force.

coulombs formula is given by

\(F= \dfrac{K\times q_{1} \times q_{2}}{r^{2} }\)

Now it states that if two charged particles are separated by the distance r and having same or opposite charge will attract or repel each other.

The intensity of the force depend upon the distance and the nature of the charge.

Hence coulomb's law states that There is electric force between like charges or opposite charges. The negative sign only shows the nature of the force.

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Answer:

After 1 half-life (500 years), 500 g of the parent isotope will remain. After 2 half-lives (1000 years), 250 g of the parent isotope will remain. After 3 half-lives (1500 years), 125 g of the parent isotope will remain. After 4 half-lives (2000 years), 62.5 g of the parent isotope will remain.

Explanation:

ANSWER

EXPLANATION

Parameters given:

Mass of skier, m = 72.5 kg

The angle of the slope, θ = 21.7°

Coefficient of kinetic friction, μk = 0.120

Force exerted, F = 383 N

Let us first make a sketch of the problem:

The net force acting on the skier is equal to the difference in the force exerted on the skier by the rope, the component of the weight parallel to the slope, and the force of friction:

That is:

The free-body diagram is given below:

The normal force to the surface is given by:

Therefore, the net force is:

The net force is equal to the product of the mass of the skier and the acceleration of the skier. This implies that:

Solving for a:

That is the acceleration of the skier.

Answer:

It's true that organisms get energy from food.

Answer:

Explanation:

Organisms ingest large molecules, like carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, and convert them into smaller molecules like carbon dioxide and water. This process is called cellular respiration, a form of catabolism, and makes energy available for the cell to use

The velocity of a 55.0-kg person hitting the ground, is mathematically given as

vt=39.5983m/s

Generally, the equation for is  mathematically given as

mass of squirrel,

\(m=550 \mathrm{~g}\\\\Surface area, $A=945 \mathrm{~cm}^{2}=88 \times 10^{-3}$\\\\Height, $h-4 \mathrm{~m}$\\\)

Terminal velocity is given by:

\($v_{i}=\sqrt{\frac{2 m g}{\rho A C}}$\)

where \rho is the density of fluid that is falling and it is given by

\($\rho=\frac{m}{V}$\)

since, volume =area * height

\(^{\rho=} \frac{0.55 \mathrm{Kg}}{0.0945 \mathrm{~m}^{2} \times 4.0 \mathrm{~m}}\\\\$\rho=0.1455 \mathrm{Kg} / \mathrm{m}^{3}$\)

A is the surface area of squirrels.

C is the drag coefficient.

The surface area facing the fluid is given by:

\(A_{f}=\frac{0.0945 \mathrm{~m}^{2}}{2} \\\\\\ A_{f}=0.04725 \mathrm{~m}^{2}\)

so, terminal velocity is :

\($v_{t}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 0.55 \mathrm{Kg} \times 9.8 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^{2}}{0.1455 \mathrm{Kg} / \mathrm{m}^{3} \times 0.04725 \mathrm{~m}^{2} \times 1}}$\)

Vt=39.5983

In conclusion, the terminal velocity of the squirrel is 39.5983m/s

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Answer:120

Vav = S / t = (120 + 45) m / (4 + 60) sec = 2.6 m/s

Explanation:

I. Direction - Towards the negative x axis since there's a '+' sign b/n π/4 & X

II. y = Asin(wt + kx)

k = 2π/ለ = 1

ለ = 2πcm = 6.29cm or 6.29×10^-2m in meter

i suggest using the one in cm.

Coulomb's Law states that the force between two charges is directly proportional to the product of their magnitudes and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Using Coulomb's Law, we can calculate:

5.2.1 The force of Q₁ on Q₂:

The magnitude of the force is given by:

F = k * |Q₁| * |Q₂| / r²

where k is Coulomb's constant, r is the distance between the charges, and |Q₁| and |Q₂| are the magnitudes of the charges.

Plugging in the values given:

F = 9 x 10^9 Nm²/C² * 8 x 10^-6 C * 2 x 10^-6 C / (0.044 m)²

F = 1.8 x 10^-2 N

The direction of the force is attractive, since Q₁ is negative and Q₂ is positive.

5.2.2 The resultant force of Q₁ and Q₃ on Q₂:

The magnitude of the force is given by:

F = k * (|Q₁| * |Q₂| / r₁² + |Q₃| * |Q₂| / r₂²)

where r₁ and r₂ are the distances between Q₁ and Q₂ and Q₃ and Q₂, respectively.

Plugging in the values given:

F = 9 x 10^9 Nm²/C² * (8 x 10^-6 C * 2 x 10^-6 C / (0.044 m)² - 8 x 10^-6 C * 3 x 10^-6 C / (0.053 m)²)

F = -1.32 x 10^-2 N

The direction of the force is attractive, since the magnitude of the force due to Q₁ is greater than the magnitude of the force due to Q₃.

5.2.3 When Q₂ is replaced with a charge of -2 nC:

The magnitude of the net force on Q₂ will decrease, since the magnitude of the charge has decreased. However, the direction of the net force will remain attractive, since both Q₁ and Q₃ are negative charges.

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For electricity generation the words in order are:

a You can generate electricity by moving a coil of wire in a magnetic field. The size of the voltage depends on the speed of the movement and the strength of the magnet.

b In a model generator, a coil rotates between the poles of a magnet. If a coil with more turns is used the voltage is greater. If the coil spins faster, the voltage is greater.

a. If the student moved the magnet towards the coil at a slower speed, she would notice that the induced voltage on the voltmeter decreases. This is because the voltage induced is proportional to the rate of change of the magnetic field, which decreases as the speed decreases.

b. If the student moved the magnet towards the coil at the same speed, she would notice that the induced voltage on the voltmeter remains the same. This is because the voltage induced is proportional to the rate of change of the magnetic field, which is constant if the speed is constant.

c. If the student turned the magnet round and moved it towards the coil, she would notice that the induced voltage on the voltmeter is in the opposite direction. This is because the direction of the induced voltage is determined by the direction of the change in magnetic field, which is reversed when the magnet is turned round.

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The option that  correctly describes the magnetic fields from the wires in the region between the wires and provide evidence to support this claim is option B The magnetic fields are in opposite directions, because the region is on opposite sides of the wires: to the right of wire 1 and to the left of wire 2.

A full loop is formed by magnetic lines of force. Magnets' opposing poles attract one another while their like poles repel one another. At a magnet's poles, the magnetic lines of force are more dense. Magnetic lines of force that are parallel and move in the opposing directions cancel one another out.

In contrast to the direction of the current, electrons move. This produces a magnetic field with a north and south magnetic pole. Wrapping a single coil of wire around a core, such as an iron nail, is a straightforward approach to make an electromagnet.

Therefore, based on the above, the magnetic field from one wire is in opposition to that from the other because the two currents' directions are in opposition. This implies that the magnetic fields will partially cancel one another.

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See full question below

Wire 1 Wire 2 Long, straight, parallel wires 1 and 2 carry current I in opposite directions, as shown. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic fields from the wires in the region between the wires and provide evidence to support this claim? A The magnetic fields are in opposite directions, because the currents are in opposite directions. B The magnetic fields are in opposite directions, because the region is on opposite sides of the wires: to the right of wire 1 and to the left of wire 2. с The magnetic fields are in the same directions, because both wires are long and straight. D The magnetic fields are in the same directions, because the currents have the same magnitude. The magnetic fields are in the same directions, because the currents are in opposite directions and are on opposite sides of the wires: to the right of wire 1 and to the left of wire

Answer:

friction and spin

Explanation:

There are two things that make the ball bounce backwards: friction and spin. Friction is a force that occurs whenever two objects are pressed together. ... Rubber balls are very elastic, which means that when they hit something they bounce back in the opposite direction.