By keeping your skin hydrated, you can help keep the elastin that your skin needs to keep from scarring. Using topical creams such as coconut oil will keep your skin moisturized and make stretch marks less likely. Even without treatment, almost all stretch marks will fade over time.
Answer:
there is no way to get rid of them completely
Explanation:
if you drink lots of water, exfoliate, moisturize, etc
What are the two main muscles in the upper arm?
The upper arm is the portion of the arm located between the shoulder and the elbow. It is composed of two main muscles: the biceps brachii and the triceps brachii.
The biceps brachii is a two-headed muscle that is located on the front of the upper arm. It originates from the scapula (shoulder blade) and inserts on the radius bone (one of the two bones in the forearm). The biceps brachii is responsible for flexing the elbow joint, which is the motion of bringing the hand towards the shoulder. It also assists in supinating the forearm, which is the motion of turning the hand palm-up. The biceps brachii is a commonly exercised muscle and is often associated with upper arm strength and size.
The triceps brachii is a three-headed muscle that is located on the back of the upper arm. It originates from the scapula and inserts on the ulna bone (the other bone in the forearm). The triceps brachii is responsible for extending the elbow joint, which is the motion of straightening the arm. It also assists in adducting the arm, which is the motion of bringing the arm towards the body. The triceps brachii is a large muscle that covers a significant portion of the back of the upper arm, and it is also commonly exercised muscle.
In summary, the biceps brachii and triceps brachii are the two main muscles in the upper arm. The biceps brachii is responsible for flexing the elbow joint and supinating the forearm while the triceps brachii is responsible for extending the elbow joint and adducting the arm. Both muscles play important roles in upper arm movement and strength.
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Please tell me what goes in the top blank, and if you could, tell me if I put the other stuff in the right blank!
Explanation:
I could but I would need to know the question is that you need to solves put the answer in the blanl
what other organelles has its own genes
The organelle that has its own genes are the mitochondria and chloroplast.
Mitochondria are often referred to as the "powerhouses" of the cell because they are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP. They contain their own DNA, which is separate from the DNA found in the nucleus of the cell. This DNA is used to produce the proteins needed for the mitochondria to function properly.
Another organelle that has its own genes is the chloroplast, which is found in plant cells. Chloroplasts are responsible for photosynthesis, the process by which plants convert sunlight into energy. Like mitochondria, chloroplasts contain their own DNA, which is used to produce the proteins needed for photosynthesis.
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If the activation energy required for a chemical reaction were reduced, what would happen to the rate of the reaction?
The rate would increase.
The rate would decrease.
The rate would remain the same.
The rate would be zero
Answer:
The rate would increase.
What is the differences between gmo and transgenic cell?
Answer:
Differences between GMO and the Transgenic cell is given below:-
Explanation:
Genetically modified organisms (GMOs):-
Genetically modified organisms ( GMOs) are those species that used genetic engineering techniques to change their genomes. We have novel gene configurations which do not occur throughout the species' genetic variability. This may require the addition of genes or the silencing of the. GMO genes.Transgenic cell:-
Transgenic organisms represent a particular example of GMOs. They are when genome modification includes the genetic material from another species. Like GloFish, marine anemones have genes inserted in them and are thus called transgenic.What is an Obligate anaerobe? How do obligate anaerobes, like the bacteria C. Botulinum, get energy ?
Answer:
See the answer below
Explanation:
Obligate anaerobes are microbes that can only survive in oxygen-deficient environments. They are killed by the normal atmospheric level of oxygen and will only thrive in environments whose oxygen levels are lower than that of normal atmospheric level.
Obligate bacteria such as Clostridium botulinum obtain their energy through anaerobic respiration processes such as fermentation and anaerobic respiration. During this process of fermentation, the lactic acid pathway is mostly used but other fermentation pathways such as propionic acid, mixed acid, acetogenesis, and methanogenesis pathways can be used.
Which is one of the six fundamental elements that are found in living organisms?
O helium
O sodium
O oxygen
chlorine
Answer:
Oxygen
Explanation:
Oxygen is one of the six fundamental elements in living organisms
Answer:
Oxygen is correct !!!!!!!Explanation:
6 steps of genetic engineering
Answer:
Genetic engineering is accomplished in three basic steps.
These are
(1) The isolation of DNA fragments from a donor organism;
(2) The insertion of an isolated donor DNA fragment into a vector genome and
(3) The growth of a recombinant vector in an appropriate host.
Explanation:
Stages of genetic engineering include:
identify a section of DNA that contains the required gene from the source chromosome,extract required gene,insert a required gene into vector/bacterial plasmid,insert plasmid into the host cell,grow transformed cells to produce a GM organismGenetic engineering is a method of modifying or manipulating the DNA of organisms to change their characteristics or create new ones. Here are the six steps of genetic engineering:
1. Identification of target gene
2. Isolation of the target gene
3. Insertion of the target gene into a vector
4. Transformation of host cells
5. Selection and screening of transformed cell
6. Verification of gene expression
Finally, the expression of the target gene is verified to ensure that it is functioning properly and producing the desired trait or characteristic in the organism.
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_____ - is the study of how things work; gathering new information, new investigations.
Q: What's the answer?
Answer:
science
Explanation:
Constriction of the ________ decreases hydrostatic pressure in the nephron's filtering structures; the _________.
Select one:
1. Afferent arterioles, glomerular capillaries
2. Efferent arterioles, proximal convoluted tubules
3. Renal vein, peritubular capillaries
4. Renal arteries, juxtaglomerular apparatus
5. Vasa recta, ascending loop of Henle
As stated in the preceding statement glomerular capillaries, afferent arterioles
What does hydrostatic pressure mean?The definition of hydrostatic pressure is. "The pressure that a liquid at equilibrium experiences at any given time as a result of the force of gravity." As the gravity of the fluid increases that whenever a downward pressure is applied, hydrostatic pressure directly proportional to the distance measured from the surface.
What does osmosis' hydrostatic pressure mean?Osmotic pressure, which is connected toward the protein concentration on each side of a membrane forcing water to towards the region had greater concentration, is different from hydrostatic pressure, which is the pressure of body water against a membrane.
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What would flow faster: Pouring ketchup out of a bottle (no squeezing) or pumping cough medicine out of a syringe?
Answer:
A=water
B=water from thin tube
C=pumping cough medicine out of a syringe
26. Which statement is true regarding an alteration or change in DNA?
1. It is always advantageous to an individual.
2. It is always passed on to offspring.
3. It is always detected by the process of chromatography
4. It is always known as a mutation.
Answer:
THE STATEMENT : IT IS ALWAYS KNOWN AS MUTATION[EARTH SCIENCE NOT BIOLOGY]
Hello everyone can y'all help me please? Thanks!
What are the three main types of rock and how do they form? Quick explanation please
Answer: igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic.
Explanation: Igneous rocks form when molten rock
Sedimentary rocks form when particles settle out of water or air, or by precipitation of minerals from water
Metamorphic rocks form under extreme heat or pressure
which definition goes where idefk I’ll give u brainlist biology teacher driving me nuts omfmsjajhahwahsn
Which characteristics or structures from the list are found in plant cells? Select all that apply.
nucleus
chloroplast
irregular shape
cell wall
tiny storage vacuoles
cell membrane
Plz help :X
Answer:
nucleus,chloroplast,cell wall, cell membrane
Explanation:
Is it possible today for a eukaryotic cell to live without mitochondria or chloroplasts?
Answer:
No it is not possible
Explanation:, eukaryotic cells cannot live without mitochondria and chloroplasts; they provide the energy cells need to survive.
Why is PCR testing the best method for fetal DNA typing? Explain your answer a. The results are obtained in 4-5 days
b. It is relatively inexpensive, and anyone can perform the testing c. It has probe for all genes playing a role in hemolytic disease of the newborn d. It is considered inaccurate, but it is the only test available for DNS typing
PCR testing is the best method for fetal DNA typing due to its specificity, sensitivity, speed, and ability to detect specific genes. However, it requires specialized equipment and trained personnel.
PCR (polymerase chain reaction) testing is considered the best method for fetal DNA typing for several reasons, but not all the options listed in the question are accurate.
Firstly, PCR testing is highly specific and sensitive, which makes it a reliable method for detecting fetal DNA in maternal blood.
This is important because traditional methods for fetal DNA typing, such as amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling, are invasive and carry risks for the mother and fetus.
PCR testing, on the other hand, requires only a small sample of maternal blood and can detect fetal DNA with a high degree of accuracy.
Secondly, PCR testing is relatively fast, with results typically obtained within a few days. This allows for early detection of fetal genetic abnormalities or other conditions, which can be critical for treatment decisions and parental planning.Thirdly, PCR testing is a highly standardized and automated process, making it relatively inexpensive and widely available.
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In unit 4, you learned about the executive branch. First, identify which executive branch and bureaucratic agencies might be involved in the work to combat climate change. Second, explain how climate change might constitute a collective action problem, which you learned about in unit 1, and how it can be difficult to encourage individuals to fulfill a social responsibility of this type.
The Executive Branch was covered in Unit 4. Identify the executive branch and bureaucratic organizations that may be involved in the fight against climate change first.
A government agency or for-profit company that has a rigidly enforced chain of command and standardized operational processes is said to be bureaucratic. In both the public and private sectors, it is an administrative structure that is based on hierarchy, policies, and regulations. Is called bureaucratic.
Climate change, as it is commonly understood, is the continual rise in the average global temperature and its effects on the planet's climate system. In a broader sense, climate change also refers to past, significant shifts in Earth's climate.
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Check all of the parameters that are monitored by public health practitioners to identify population health issues Check all of the o Genetic background o Environmental conditions oBehaviors/lifestyle choices o Emerging infectious agents o Antimicrobial resistance
The parameters that are monitored by public health practitioners to identify population health issues are Genetic background, Environmental conditions, Behaviors/lifestyle choices, Emerging infectious agents, and Antimicrobial resistance.
Public health is the science of safeguarding and enhancing the health of entire communities by taking measures to promote healthy behaviors, identifying sources of public health threats, and enforcing laws and policies that support health.
Public health practitioners are people who work to ensure the health of individuals and communities, improve the health of populations, and make health systems more equitable.
Public health practitioners monitor population health issues to help in planning, implementing, and evaluating public health interventions.
The following are the parameters that are monitored by public health practitioners to identify population health issues:
Genetic background:Public health practitioners track population genetics to evaluate inherited conditions and diseases that are associated with certain ethnic groups.
This information assists public health professionals in making decisions regarding screening programs and other preventive measures.
Environmental conditions:Public health practitioners track environmental parameters to evaluate and predict how changes in the environment can influence human health.
The monitoring of air and water quality, the safety of food, and other environmental factors can be used to predict and prevent population health problems.
Behaviors/lifestyle choices:Public health practitioners track individual behaviors and lifestyle choices such as physical activity, smoking, alcohol consumption, and diet to determine the health status of the population.
This information helps public health professionals to determine the prevalence of certain diseases and design interventions to reduce their risk.
Emerging infectious agents:Public health practitioners track infectious agents that pose a potential threat to the population's health.
The tracking and surveillance of infectious agents can assist public health professionals in developing intervention strategies that minimize the spread of disease.
Antimicrobial resistance:Public health practitioners track antimicrobial resistance to determine the impact of antibiotics on public health.
The tracking of antimicrobial resistance can assist public health professionals in developing intervention strategies to minimize the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
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1) Points A and B in the diagram show two processes
taking place at interactions in Earth's oceanic crust.
a) Describe the process taking place at point A.
b) Describe the process taking place at point B.
continent
oceanic
crust
mantle
magma
B
continent
oceanic
crust
mantle
a)The process taking place at point A in the diagram is subduction, where oceanic crust is forced beneath the continental crust and into the mantle.
b) The process taking place at point B in the diagram is seafloor spreading, where new oceanic crust is formed at mid-oceanic ridges as magma rises to the surface, creating new crust.
a)The process taking place at point A in the diagram is subduction. Subduction occurs when two tectonic plates collide and the denser oceanic crust is forced beneath the less dense continental crust. At this point, the oceanic crust descends into the mantle through a subduction zone. This process is driven by the difference in density between the two crustal plates and the convection currents in the mantle.
b) The process taking place at point B in the diagram is seafloor spreading. Seafloor spreading occurs at mid-oceanic ridges, where two tectonic plates are moving apart. Magma rises from the mantle and erupts onto the seafloor, creating new oceanic crust. As the magma cools and solidifies, it forms a new layer of crust. Over time, the new crust spreads out from the ridge, pushing the existing crust away and creating a continuous process of crustal formation.
Together, these processes of subduction and seafloor spreading contribute to the dynamic nature of Earth's oceanic crust, shaping the geology and plate tectonics of our planet.
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I have two questions about dental impressions in forensics.
1. What kind of "print" is a bite mark? (latent, patent or plastic)
2. What did you consider when deciding what kind of "print" a bite mark is?
Answer:latent (i did not consider anything)
which is “older” the chocolate chips or the cookie dough? (Remember: older means formed first)
I need help with that question I been struggling with it and having a hard time pls help me out and is due today
Answer:
The cookie dough.
Explanation:
The dough has to be made before you can put the chocolate chips in it.
Answer:
chocolate chip
Explanation:
the human digestive system is comprised of specialized cells, tissues, and organs. which lists the parts from least complex to most complex?
The human digestive system is a complex structure consisting of specialized cells, tissues, and organs that work together to break down food and extract nutrients from it, arranged in their order of least complex to most complex forms.
These parts are arranged in a specific order, from the least complex to the most complex, as described below.
1. Cells: The human digestive system is made up of various specialized cells that perform specific functions. For example, the stomach has cells that produce hydrochloric acid, while the small intestine has cells that produce enzymes that break down food.
2. Tissues: Groups of similar cells that perform a specific function are called tissues. In the human digestive system, there are four main types of tissues: epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissue. Each of these tissues plays a critical role in the digestive process.
3. Organs: Organs are structures that are made up of different types of tissues and work together to perform a specific function. The human digestive system has several organs, including the mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, liver, and pancreas. Each of these organs plays a crucial role in the digestive process.
4. Organ systems: The human digestive system is part of a larger organ system known as the digestive system. This system is responsible for processing food, extracting nutrients from it, and eliminating waste products. Other organ systems in the human body include the respiratory system, the circulatory system, the nervous system, and the endocrine system.
The digestive system thus works in conjunction with these systems to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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You need to quickly determine if any bacteria are growing in your new broth media. The fastest way to check for growth would be to use:
Answer:
You need to quickly determine if any bacteria are growing in your new broth media. The fastest way to check for growth would be to use: a chemostat.
Explanation:
All but one of the following statements is true of uterine function. Select the statement that is not true of uterine function.
A) The endometrium has a functional layer that the embryo will implant into.
B) Its rhythmic, reverse peristalsis can propel sperm toward the egg.
C) The narrow portion of the uterus near the cervix is the most typical site of fertilization.
D) The myometrium contracts to expel the fetus during child birth
A population culture begins with 15 strands of bacteria and then doubles every 4 hours. This can be modeled as 15(2)^((t)/(4)), where t is time in hours. How many strands of bacteria are present at 12
At 12 hours, there are 120 strands of bacteria present.
The population of bacteria can be modeled using the equation P(t) = \(15(2)^(t/4)\), where P(t) represents the number of strands of bacteria at time t in hours.
To find the number of strands of bacteria at 12 hours, we substitute t = 12 into the equation:
P(12) = \(15(2)^(12/4)\)
P(12) = \(15(2)^3\)
P(12) = 15(8)
P(12) = 120
Therefore, at 12 hours, there are 120 strands of bacteria present.
It's important to note that the given population model assumes exponential growth, where the number of strands doubles every 4 hours. Starting with an initial population of 15 strands, the exponent in the equation (t/4) represents the number of doubling periods that have occurred. Each doubling period corresponds to 4 hours of time.
In this case, at 12 hours, three doubling periods have occurred (12/4 = 3). Starting with the initial 15 strands, each doubling period doubles the population, resulting in a final count of 15 * \(2^3\) = 120 strands of bacteria at 12 hours.
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the nitrogenase enzyme complex is made of which enzymes? select one or more: a. ammonia reductase b. dinitrogenase c. dinitrogenase reductase d. nitrate reductase
The nitrogenase enzyme complex consists of two types of enzymes, dinitrogenase and dinitrogenase reductase. So the answer is option b and c.
Nitrogenase enzyme complex is responsible for biological nitrogen fixation. It takes part in reduction of atmospheric molecular nitrogen to ammonia in soil. Nitrogenase enzyme complex are usually found in nitrogen fixing bacteria. The component I is dinitrogenase and component II is dinitrogenase reductase.
Component II is an iron-protein complex and is to key function is two transfer a pair of electrons from hydrolysis of ATP to component I. This electrons are used for the reduction and fixation of atmospheric nitrogen as ammonia.
So the components of the nitrogenase enzyme complex are dinitrogenase and dinitrogenase reductase.
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you can infer from the model that primary producers take in more carbon via photosynthesis than they release via cellular respiration true false
The given statement is true Based on the model, it can be inferred that primary producers take in more carbon via photosynthesis than they release via cellular respiration. This inference is supported by the basic principle of photosynthesis, which involves the absorption of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and the release of oxygen, as well as the production of glucose.
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(4pts) analysis of nutrition label report table cp.5: calculations for nutrition label analysis Calorie Breakdown Table view List View Mass in one serving (g) Calories in one serving (kcal) Fat 1 Carbohydrates 20 Protein 1 (Ipts) Calculated total Calories per serving (kcal) Total Calories per serving from label: 100 Cal
The nutrition label report table CP.5 provides calculations for nutrition label analysis, including the calorie breakdown for one serving size.
It includes information about the mass in one serving, the calories in one serving, and the amounts of fat, carbohydrates, and protein per serving.
The table also includes calculated total calories per serving, which is different from the total calories per serving listed on the label. In this case, the calculated total calories per serving is not provided, but the total calories per serving from the label is listed as 100 calories.
To calculate the total calories per serving, we need to consider the calories contributed by each nutrient (fat, carbohydrates, and protein). Here's the calorie breakdown for each:
1. Fat: 1 gram of fat provides 9 kcal, so 1 x 9 = 9 kcal.
2. Carbohydrates: 1 gram of carbohydrate provides 4 kcal, so 20 x 4 = 80 kcal.
3. Protein: 1 gram of protein provides 4 kcal, so 1 x 4 = 4 kcal.
Now, to find the calculated total calories per serving, we add up the calories from each nutrient:
Fat: 9 kcal
Carbohydrates: 80 kcal
Protein: 4 kcal
Total calculated calories per serving: 9 + 80 + 4 = 89 kcal.
In conclusion, the calculated total calories per serving based on the given data is 89 kcal, which is a bit different from the 100 kcal stated on the nutrition label. This discrepancy might be due to rounding, the presence of other nutrients, or a difference in the actual nutrient content compared to what is listed on the label.
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The total Calories per serving from the label is 100 kcal, which is close to our calculated total of 93 kcal. There might be some rounding differences or additional components in the food product contributing to the difference.
From this table, we can see that one serving of this food product contains 1 gram of fat, 20 grams of carbohydrates, and 1 gram of protein. The total number of calories in one serving is listed as 100 calories on the label.
To analyze this information further, we can calculate the total number of calories in one serving based on the macronutrient breakdown provided in the table. To do this, we need to know the number of calories per gram for each macronutrient. Fat contains 9 calories per gram, while both carbohydrates and protein contain 4 calories per gram.
Using this information, we can calculate the total number of calories in one serving as follows:
- Fat: 1 gram x 9 calories per gram = 9 calories
- Carbohydrates: 20 grams x 4 calories per gram = 80 calories
- Protein: 1 gram x 4 calories per gram = 4 calories
- Total calories: 9 calories + 80 calories + 4 calories = 93 calories
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What is the direction of the moving force of air? Responses
Answer:
Explanation:
The pressure gradient causes the air to move horizontally, forcing the air directly from a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure. The Coriolis force deflects the direction of the flow of air and causes the air to flow parallel to the isobars.
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