Heavy drinkers with Wernicke's disease (vitamin b1 deficiency) also usually exhibit memory deficits and other mental problems associated with Korsakoff's psychosis
Korsakoff's psychosis is an extreme thiamine deficiency-induced amnesia. It is most commonly seen among alcoholic patients with extremely poor nutrition, but it is essential to keep in mind that the vital factor is a dietary deficiency, not alcohol.
Korsakoff's psychosis can thus arise in any disease in which vitamin b1 intake is not maintained, and heavy drinking is involved. Korsakoff's psychosis may cause memory deficits and other mental problems in them.
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When is quality control used in pregnancy testing kits?
-Without using the urine specimen
-To confirm the blood specimen pregnancy test
-to use as a comparison to the original pregnancy test results
-only if it is built in the pregnancy testing kit
Answer:
to confirm the blood specimen pregnancy test
Explanation:
i might be wrong
Khalil has a flock of sheep that he has just paid the vet a huge amount of money to deworm. Within just a few months, Khalil's sheep are once again infested with them. What can Khalil do to hopefully prevent the sheep from picking up worms after they are treated this time?
Answer: Khalil can use the practice of 'DOSE AND MOVE' method.
Explanation:
A parasite can be defined as an organism that depends on another organism, usually referred to as it's host, for all or part of its life cycle while obtaining it's metabolic requirements. These organisms are capable of infesting both man and animals. The most common parasite that infests sheep includes:
--> lung worms
--> stomach worms
--> liver fluke and
--> Intestinal parasites.
The parasitic infections of these worms has caused alot of economic loss for sheep producers that is why they often at times DEWORM their sheep. Deworming is a process by which anthelmintic drugs are given to animals to get rid of intestinal worms.
To ensure an effective deworming treatment is carried out, farmers like Khalil as advised to practice 'DOSE AND MOVE' method.
This method ensures that once the sheep is treated, it is moved to a new area for pasture to minimize them from being reinfested rapidly again. Reinfection usually occurs when these animals pick up the larve of the parasite while grazing, therefore moving them to a new location can minimize it. Also deworming at regular basis is equally advised after moving the cattle to a new pasture location.
A COTA® is preparing a client with T1 spinal cord injury for discharge to home alone. What is the BEST recommendation for required home assistance?
A. Homemaking assistance for a few hours daily.
B. Homemaking assistance for several hours daily.
C. Attendant care 24 hours a day.
D. Attendant care 12 hours a day.
Answer:
As it is a T1 pathology, it is not considered so serious, but it does require help or home care due to the spinal involvement.
The correct answer would be: D. Attendant care 12 hours a day
Explanation:
Spinal injuries can be severe or medium severity.
This depends on the type of spinal damage and in which area of the spinal cord it occurs, it will alter different mobility or movements.
Reilly is a nursing assistant working with Hunter. Reilly didn't get a chance to read Hunter's chart before entering
Hunter's room. Reilly introduces himself and says he is going to take Hunter's vitals. Hunter seems to understand but
is quiet. When Reilly turns away to get equipment, he keeps talking to Hunter to make him comfortable. He notices that
when he turns away from Hunter, Hunter waves his arms until Reilly is speaking directly face-to-face. Reilly looks at
Hunter's chart and brings in an interpreter for sign language. Which kind of communication barrier did Reilly
overcome?
Answer:
A language communication barrier
Explanation:
sign LANGUAGE :D
Why is it important to endure that all entries are posted to monthly statements correctly? if items are not posted correctly, how could this potentially impact the way patients view their clinic? how could not posting transactions affect the clinic?
Answer:
If items are not posted correctly, patients may believe that the clinic is not keeping accurate records. This could potentially impact the way patients view their clinic. Not posting transactions could also affect the clinic's bottom line.
Explanation:
Hope this helps!
Ensuring all entries are posted correctly is crucial for maintaining accurate financial records and building trust with patients.
Accurate posting of entries to monthly statements is essential for several reasons. First and foremost, it ensures that the clinic's financial records are precise and reliable. Any errors or omissions in the entries can lead to discrepancies in the clinic's financial statements, which may result in incorrect assessments of the clinic's financial health and performance.
When patients receive monthly statements, they expect them to be accurate and transparent. Incorrectly posted entries can lead to billing errors, overcharging, or undercharging patients, which can cause frustration and dissatisfaction among patients. It may lead to a loss of trust in the clinic's billing practices and overall quality of service.
Additionally, if transactions are not posted correctly, it can create confusion and difficulties in tracking patient payments, outstanding balances, and insurance reimbursements. This can result in delayed or missed payments, cash flow issues, and challenges in managing the clinic's revenue.
Moreover, inaccurate financial records can lead to compliance and regulatory issues. If the clinic is audited or required to provide financial documentation, discrepancies in the records can raise red flags and result in penalties or fines.
On the other hand, accurate posting of transactions ensures that the clinic maintains a high level of professionalism and credibility. Patients feel confident in the clinic's financial practices, leading to increased patient satisfaction and loyalty.
In conclusion, accurate posting of entries to monthly statements is crucial for maintaining financial integrity, building trust with patients, and ensuring the smooth financial operations of the clinic. By prioritizing accuracy and attention to detail, the clinic can avoid potential negative impacts on patient perceptions and establish a positive reputation within the community.
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Velma is taking digoxin for heart failure. What is a result of untreated heart failure?
The heart rate is decreased.
Norepinephrine levels decrease.
Urination is greatly increased.
The heart muscle enlarges.
Untreated heart failure can lead to a variety of negative outcomes. One significant result is that the heart muscle may enlarge, which can lead to further complications and a decrease in overall heart function.
This is because untreated heart failure causes the heart to work harder than it should, and the increased strain on the muscle can cause it to become weaker over time. In addition to heart muscle enlargement, untreated heart failure can also lead to other problems. For example, reduced blood flow to the kidneys can cause them to stop functioning properly, leading to a buildup of waste products in the body. This can cause symptoms like frequent urination and fluid retention, as well as more serious complications like kidney damage and failure. Fortunately, there are many effective treatments for heart failure, including medications like digoxin. These medications can help to improve heart function and reduce the risk of complications like heart muscle enlargement. By working closely with a healthcare provider and following a personalized treatment plan, people with heart failure can manage their condition and live a full and active life.
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What does the prefix in the term bradypnea mean?
The prefix "brady-" in the term "bradypnea" means "slow". "Pnea" refers to "breathing". Therefore, "bradypnea" means "slow breathing".
The prefix in the term bradypnea means "slow." Bradypnea is a medical term that describes a decreased respiratory rate or slow breathing.
It is derived from two Greek words: brady, meaning slow, and pnea, meaning breathing or respiration. Bradypnea is a condition that affects a person's breathing rate, and it is characterized by the reduced number of breaths per minute.
A person with bradypnea might breathe slower than 12 times per minute, which can result in poor oxygenation in the body. The most common causes of bradypnea include sleep apnea, heart disease, stroke, and side effects of medication.
Some people may experience bradypnea as a side effect of general anesthesia or opioid drugs. Bradypnea can be dangerous when it is not treated promptly, especially in newborns and elderly people. Therefore, it is important to consult a healthcare professional if you notice any unusual changes in breathing patterns.
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We intend to save the company $20,000 next month
Answer:
As a team, we have conducted a thorough analysis of the company's financial data to identify potential cost-saving opportunities. Our results indicate that by implementing strategic changes we can expect to save the company no less than $20,000 next month. We believe these savings are not only achievable but essential in securing the long-term financial health of our organization. As professionals committed to our collective success, we will continue to monitor spending closely and make informed decisions aimed at maximizing cost-effectiveness across all areas of the business.
A new vaccine has been approved to treat a new strain of the flu virus. The two agencies that most likely played a
role in the development and approval of the vaccine are the
FDA and CMS
CDC and FDA
NIOSH and CMS
CDC and NIOSH
Save and Exit
I'm pretty sure the answer would be B: CDC and FDA, the CDC would definitely control and secure the virus, and figure out ways to improvise the vaccine, and the FDA will work on the vaccine and deliver out the vaccine
The ______ name is assigned by the U.S. Adopted Name Council.
Answer:
USAN COUNCIL
Explanation:
A drug that elevates the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain by blocking an enzyme that deactivates these neurotransmitters would most likely be used to treat:
A drug that elevates the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain by blocking an enzyme that deactivates these neurotransmitters would most likely be used to treat **depression**.
Norepinephrine and serotonin are neurotransmitters that play crucial roles in regulating mood, emotions, and overall mental well-being. Imbalances or deficiencies in these neurotransmitters have been linked to the development of depression. By blocking the enzyme responsible for their deactivation, the drug can increase the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain, potentially alleviating the symptoms of depression. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are a class of drugs that work in a similar manner by blocking the reuptake of serotonin, thereby increasing its availability in the brain. These medications are commonly prescribed for the treatment of depression and certain anxiety disorders. It is important to note that the specific drug and treatment approach may vary depending on the individual's condition, and a healthcare professional should be consulted for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment recommendations.
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What body landmark does the ACL start from?
O Intercondylar notch
0 Tibial tuberosity
O Medial condyle
0 Fibular head
Answer:
The ACL originates from deep within the notch of the distal femur. Its proximal fibers fan out along the medial wall of the lateral femoral condyle. There are two bundles of the ACL: the anteromedial and the posterolateral, named according to where the bundles insert into the tibial plateau.
during the analyis of absorbic acid in a 500 mg vitamin c tablet a studnt found the tablet actually contained 487 mg .what is the percent error
percent error = 2.60%
The actual value = of 500mg
Contained value or experimental value = 487mg
calculate the difference between the Actual value and the contained value
difference between Actual and contained values = (500 - 487) = 13
The formula for calculating the error percentage is
% error = difference between Actual value and Contained value * 100 / Actual value
% error = actual value - contained value * 100 / Actual value
substituting the values in the above formula
% error = (13 / 500) * 100
% error = 0.026 * 100
% error = 2.60 %
2.60% is the answer.
The error percentage is 2.60 %
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The percent error of the analysis of 500 mg vitamin C tablet which contains only 487 mg is 2.6%.
The percent error in measuring is the difference between the actual value and the experimental value divided by the actual value, expressed as a percentage. The formula is:(|experimental value - actual value| / actual value) x 100Given data: Actual value = 500 mg Experimental value = 487 mg Percent error = ?
Using the formula above, the percent error in analyzing 500 mg of Vitamin C tablet which actually contains only 487 mg is:(|experimental value - actual value| / actual value) x 100= (|487 - 500| / 500) x 100= (13 / 500) x 100= 2.6%Hence, the percent error in analyzing the absorbic acid in the given vitamin C tablet is 2.6%.
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you respond for an elderly femaile who has apparently taken the wrong medication. she tells you that she thought she took and
A senior woman who appears to have taken the incorrect prescription is likely experiencing presbyopia as a result.
What medical issue would you most likely detect in a patient who exhibits a steady deterioration in mental state but no signs of trauma?Consider toxic or metabolic reasons, such as medication overdose, withdrawal symptoms, or the results of drug-drug interactions, if there are no evidence of trauma and no indications of infection.
What leads to elderly people's altered mental state?Acute brain dysfunction symptoms like delirium, stupor, and coma are often the precursors to changes in mental status. These modifications take hours or days to materialize, and they are typically brought on by a potentially fatal underlying medical condition.
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question;-
You respond for an elderly female who has apparently taken the wrong medication. She tells you that she thought she took and aspirin for her headache, but instead she is feeling real tired. You check her medication and see that the aspirin looks like her sleeping pills. Which of the following likely lead to the problem?
A) Presbyopia
B) Presbycusis
C) Menopause
D) Proprioception
Define the term regulatory condition
stored form of sugar in the human body
Answer:
glucose? or maybe insulin.
Explanation:
Answer: glycogen
Explanation:
Glucose is the main source of fuel for our cells. When the body doesn't need to use the glucose for energy, it stores it in the liver and muscles. This stored form of glucose is made up of many connected glucose molecules and is called glycogen.
How would a separate procedure be explained if a coder was explaining the meaning of it?
(If that procedure is in the same anatomic area as a more comprehensive procedure.)
Explanation:If a code description includes the term “separate procedure”, if that procedure is in the same anatomic area as a more comprehensive procedure (for example, lyse of adhesions followed by a colectomy) only the more comprehensive procedure, the colectomy, is reported.
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Which is the first task that needs to be done during the initial telephone contact between the home health nurse and the client?
During the initial telephone contact between the home health nurse and the client, essential information must be shared like introduction if the nurse, information about the referral, and the nurse should ask the client for a home visit for medical care.
Home health nurse is the one who makes visit to the patient's home to provide them the treatment or take care of them when they find themselves unable to do so. The nurse can guide about medications, dress the wounds and keep a check on the health status of the patient.
Medical care is the treatment of any disease or condition by the clinicians and experts. It involves proper diagnosis of symptoms, identification of the disease, and the appropriate treatment.
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Substance abuse service providers typically take a non-confrontational approach to the addiction. a. True b. False
The statement "Substance abuse service providers typically take a non-confrontational approach to the addiction" is false because substance abuse service providers do not typically take a non-confrontational approach to addiction. Thus, option B is correct.
In fact, many evidence-based approaches used in substance abuse treatment involve a confrontational or challenging stance towards addiction. These approaches recognize the need to address denial, resistance, and the harmful effects of addiction.
Therapeutic interventions such as motivational interviewing (MI) and cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) are commonly employed in substance abuse treatment.
While MI emphasizes empathy and collaboration, it also involves confronting ambivalence and helping individuals recognize the negative consequences of their substance use. CBT, on the other hand, challenges distorted thinking patterns and behaviors associated with addiction.
Moreover, interventions like community reinforcement approach and contingency management involve setting clear boundaries and consequences for substance use, which can be seen as a confrontational approach.
The goal of these confrontational approaches is to help individuals develop insight, motivation, and the necessary skills to overcome addiction. By addressing denial and challenging self-destructive beliefs and behaviors, substance abuse service providers can effectively support individuals on their path to recovery.
In conclusion, substance abuse service providers typically do not take a non-confrontational approach to addiction. Confrontational approaches are often employed in evidence-based treatments to address denial, resistance, and the underlying issues associated with substance abuse. Thus, option B is correct.
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Select the correct answer.
How do nurse aides communicate their clients' condition with the doctor who is treating the clients?
A. using the clients' charts
B. by calling the doctor up
C. explaining nonverbally
D. asking the clients to explain
Which of the following is NOT one of the basic components of emotion identified in the text?
A. pupil contraction
B. conscious experience
C. expressive behavior
D. physiological arousal
Answer:
A. pupil contraction
Explanation:
Which are pathology suffixes
Answer:
Patho-: A prefix derived from the Greek "pathos" meaning "suffering or disease." Patho- serves as a prefix for many terms including pathogen (disease agent), pathogenesis (development of disease), pathology (study of disease), etc. The corresponding suffix is -pathy.
Explanation:
1. In what school-related situations would inattentional blindness likely cause problems? Describe
the situation.
Answer:
The term "inattentional blindness" was first coined by psychologists Arien Mack, Ph.D., and Irvin Rock, Ph.D., who observed the phenomenon during their perception and attention experiments. "Because this inability to perceive, this sighted blindness, seemed to be caused by the fact that subjects were not attending to the stimulus but instead were attending to something else.
Explanation:
You believe you are paying attention to the road, but you miss the automobile swerving into your lane of traffic because you were distracted, which leads to a collision.
What Is Inattentional Blindness?
When a person fails to perceive an obvious but unexpected visual stimulation in their field of vision, they are said to be inattentional blind (Simons & Chabris, 1999).
This momentary unawareness is probably caused by the plethora of visual stimuli that demand attention.
When a child is focused on an object or an event, they typically miss out on other information. Inattentional blindness is the name for this frequent occurrence.
We used a motion task to investigate the developmental variation of inattentional blindness and to investigate the age-related degree of these phenomena.
Therefore, high mental work load likely cause problems.
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Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about immunizations?
1) Knowing that risk of falls are greater for some patient groups, "How Might We" improve, including educating patients and families about the risk of falls in an effort to reduce the total amount?
Things to Consider:
DEFINE THE PROBLEM: (i.e.: Generating and Conceptualizing)
DETERMINE THE SOLUTION: (i.e.: Moving through Conceptualizing to Optimizing)
IMPLEMENT THE SOLUTION (i.e.: Moving through Optimizing to Implementing)
DEFINE THE PROBLEM:
The problem is the increased risk of falls among certain patient groups. Falls can lead to injuries, decreased mobility, and longer hospital stays. To address this, we need to improve patient and family education about the risk of falls and preventive measures.
DETERMINE THE SOLUTION:
Conduct a thorough assessment: Identify patient groups that are at a higher risk of falls, such as older adults, individuals with certain medical conditions, or those on specific medications. Assess their specific needs and challenges regarding fall prevention.Develop educational materials: Create clear, concise, and visually engaging educational materials that explain the risk factors and consequences of falls. Provide practical tips and strategies to reduce the risk, such as maintaining a clutter-free environment, using assistive devices, and engaging in appropriate physical activities.Engage healthcare providers: Collaborate with healthcare providers to reinforce fall prevention education during patient visits. Providers can incorporate fall risk assessments into routine care and discuss preventive measures with patients and their families.Involve families and caregivers: Educate family members and caregivers about the risk of falls and their role in prevention. Provide resources and training on assisting patients in fall prevention strategies, proper use of assistive devices, and recognizing early signs of fall risk.IMPLEMENT THE SOLUTION:
Disseminate educational materials: Make the educational materials easily accessible to patients, families, and healthcare providers. Distribute printed materials in clinics, hospitals, and community centers. Utilize digital platforms, such as websites, patient portals, and mobile apps, to provide online access to educational resources.Conduct educational sessions: Organize workshops or group sessions to provide in-person education on fall prevention. These sessions can be conducted in healthcare settings, community centers, or senior centers. Consider including interactive elements, demonstrations, and Q&A sessions to enhance engagement.Integrate education into discharge planning: Incorporate fall prevention education into the discharge process for hospitalized patients. Ensure that patients and their families receive information about fall risks, prevention strategies, and available resources upon leaving the healthcare facility.Monitor and evaluate effectiveness: Continuously assess the impact of the education efforts by tracking fall rates and collecting feedback from patients, families, and healthcare providers. Adjust the educational materials and approaches based on the feedback received to improve their effectiveness.By following these steps, healthcare organizations can improve patient and family education about the risk of falls, empower individuals to take preventive measures, and ultimately reduce the total number of falls among at-risk patient groups.
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a milky pleural fluid that stains strongly positive with sudan iii indicates:
A milky pleural fluid that stains strongly positive with Sudan III indicates chylothorax.
Chylothorax is a medical condition that occurs when lymphatic fluid known as chyle accumulates in the pleural cavity. The condition is diagnosed when a milky pleural effusion contains a high level of triglycerides, which can be tested by staining the fluid with Sudan III. In addition, it is most commonly seen after thoracic surgery or malignancy (cancer).
The symptoms of chylothorax are chest pain, shortness of breath, coughing, and rapid breathing. Chylothorax can also cause a person to feel weak and fatigued. Treatment for chylothorax involves finding and treating the underlying cause and sometimes draining the accumulated fluid from the pleural space.
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\What part of the CPT manual will you find these services or procedures in? (Answers can be used more than once.)
A. Evaluation and management
B. Anesthesia
C. Surgery
D. Pathology and laboratory
E. Radiology
F. Medicine
The section of the CPT manual where the services or procedures can be found is surgery, medicine, evaluation and management, radiology, and pathology and laboratory. Hence, the correct answer is option C, option F, option A, option E, and option D.
What is CPT?The Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) is a medical code set that is commonly used to describe medical, surgical, and diagnostic services and procedures. The American Medical Association (AMA) manages the CPT code set, which is updated on a yearly basis.
The CPT manual is divided into six sections, which are: Evaluation and Management, Anesthesia, Surgery, Radiology, Pathology and Laboratory, and Medicine. The Evaluation and Management codes are used to bill for office visits and other services related to the evaluation and management of patients. Anesthesia codes are used to bill for anesthesia services during surgical procedures.
The Surgery section of the CPT manual includes codes for a variety of surgical procedures, organized by anatomical site. The Radiology section of the CPT manual includes codes for diagnostic imaging procedures, such as X-rays, CT scans, and MRI scans.
The Pathology and Laboratory section of the CPT manual includes codes for diagnostic tests, such as blood tests, urinalysis, and microbiology tests. The Medicine section of the CPT manual includes codes for services that do not fall under the other five sections, such as immunizations, psychotherapy, and dialysis.
In conclusion, the part of the CPT manual that lists the various services or procedures is divided into categories such as surgery, medicine, evaluation and management, radiology, and pathology and laboratory. Therefore, the accurate response would be choice C, choice F, choice A, choice E, and choice D.
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The client has a hematocrit of 22.8 nd a hemoglobin of 7.2 mg/dl. the doctor has ordered two units of packed red blood cells to be infused. which nursing interventions should the nurse implement?
Hematocrit and Hemoglobin are the two blood tests that are used to determine whether a person has anemia. Anemia is a condition in which the body lacks enough healthy red blood cells to carry sufficient oxygen to the body's tissues.
The following are some of the nursing interventions for a client with anemia who has a hematocrit of 22.8 and a hemoglobin of 7.2 mg/dL: Observing for indications of hypoxia while infusing packed red blood cells. Administering packed red blood cells as ordered, paying close attention to the speed of infusion. Monitoring the client's vital signs before and during blood transfusion.
Administering antihistamines and/or acetaminophen before and during the transfusion, if ordered .Ensuring that the packed red blood cells are compatible with the client's blood type. Verifying the client's identity as well as the blood product's identity. If any signs of transfusion reaction occur, discontinue the infusion promptly and begin treatment. The treatment for the reaction varies depending on the severity of the response. If the response is severe, the transfusion should be discontinued.
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Which of the following is the best action to take initially with a client who presents with poor oral control of liquids and solids, coughing and choking while eating and drinking, and a history of hospitalizations associated with pneumonia?
A.Thickening liquids so that the client will be better able to control oral movements for swallowing
B.Obtaining a modified barium-swallow study to determine appropriate interventions
C.Evaluating the client’s ability to eat a variety of foods in order to determine which foods are safest
D.Prescribing that the client be NPO, since aspiration is present
The best action to take initially with a client who presents with poor oral control of liquids and solids, coughing and choking while eating and drinking, and a history of hospitalizations associated with pneumonia is obtaining a modified barium-swallow study to determine appropriate interventions.
The correct answer is B.
The client in the given case seems to have dysphagia, which is defined as difficulty or discomfort in swallowing, which puts the client at high risk of aspiration and subsequent pneumonia. Dysphagia can be caused by a number of disorders including stroke, neurological diseases, or structural abnormalities. A modified barium-swallow study is a radiological procedure that assesses the client's swallowing function and detects the underlying structural or functional abnormalities.
The study provides real-time visualization of the oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal phases of swallowing, which helps in identifying the specific swallowing problems and allows for the development of individualized interventions.
In summary, the best action to take initially with a client who presents with poor oral control of liquids and solids, coughing and choking while eating and drinking, and a history of hospitalizations associated with pneumonia is Obtaining a modified barium-swallow study to determine appropriate interventions.
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the nurse is caring for a client whose diabetic nephropathy has resulted in anemia. what is the cause of this client's anemia?
Answer:
Below
Explanation:
Kidneys are not producing enough erythropoieten (EPO)
as well as anemia of chronic disease.