The cocaine-induced sensation of bugs crawling under the skin is called "formication." It is a type of tactile hallucination that is commonly experienced during cocaine use and can lead to intense scratching and skin picking.
Formication is a well-known phenomenon among cocaine users and is thought to be caused by the drug's effects on the central nervous system. The sensation is described as feeling like insects are crawling, biting, or stinging under the skin, which can be distressing and lead to compulsive behaviors. In addition to cocaine use, formication can also occur in individuals with certain medical conditions, such as delirium tremens, withdrawal from drugs or alcohol, or psychiatric disorders such as schizophrenia. It is important for individuals experiencing formication to seek medical attention and address any underlying issues that may be contributing to this sensation.
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cocaine-induced sensation of bugs crawling under the skin is called_____.
8. O2 binds to ---------------------- in the hemoglobin of the red blood cell; in order for O2 to bind, the ------------------ must be in the ----------------- oxidation state.
Answer:
Explanation:
Oxygen binds with the iron group present in the center of hemoglobin, which is further connected in a form of pyrrole ring having coordination of nitrogen.
O₂ binds to heme in the hemoglobin of the red blood cell. In order for O₂ to bind, the iron must be in the +2 oxidation state.
What is a red blood cell?It contains a protein known as hemoglobin.It is responsible for the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide.Mature RBCs do not have a nucleus and mitochondria.What is hemoglobin?It is an iron-containing metalloprotein.The four nitrogen atoms in the ring's center coordinates with the iron ion.What are the oxidation numbers of the iron?The iron may be either in the +2 or in the +3 state.
Which state of iron binds to oxygen?The +2 state of iron can bind to O₂.
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You are assessing a 25-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant. She is experiencing regular contractions that are approximately 3 minutes apart and states that her amniotic sac broke 2 hours ago. After taking the standard precautions, you should:
Hogan looker 20characterminimum
Answer:
Hello my guy
Explanation:
Was the deceased on any medication?
a nurse is teaching a pt about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer, what statement should the nurse include in the teaching
Answer:
you should avoid eating red meat prior to testing
Explanation:
A fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) is a cost-effective, non-invasive method for colon cancer screening, which can be used in asymptomatic patients. The FOBT test is used to identify hidden blood in stool samples, which may be indicative of colon cancer and the presence of polyps in the colon/rectum. It has been shown that screening by FOBT can significantly reduce mortality from colorectal cancer. Two days before the FOBT test, it is imperative to avoid red meats and other foods (e.g., beets, carrots, cauliflower, cucumbers, grapefruit, broccoli, cantaloupe, etc), which might lead to false alarms.
After the nurse counsels a primiparous, breastfeeding client about diet and nutritional needs during the lactation period, which client statement indicates a need for additional teaching?
Answer:
The correct answer or statement would be - "I should drink at least five glasses of fluid daily."
Explanation:
For the breastfeeding patient, drinking 8 to 10 glasses of liquid daily is suggested anyhow. Breastfeeding ladies need an increased level of nutrient D intake for calcium absorption.
A breastfeeding lady requires an additional 500 cal/day over the prescribed nonpregnancy admission to deliver quality breast milk. Breastfeeding ladies need sufficient calcium for blood coagulating and solid bones and teeth.
Thus, the correct answer or statement would be - "I should drink at least five glasses of fluid daily."
Cell Physiology
Choose the correct answer:
1- Phospholipase C signaling pathway involves
a- Protein kinase A
b-Tyrosine kinase
c- Inositol triphosphate
d-Protein phosphatase
2) Ribosomes are responsible for synthesis of all proteins except
a- Cytoplasmic proteins
b- Lysosomal proteins
c-mitochondrial protein
d-Nuclear protiens
3) Simple diffusion through bilipid layer involve the following except
a-hydrophobic molecules
b-lipophilic molecules
c- charged molecules
d- low molecular weight molecules
4) microtubules can perform all the following except
a-Cytoskeleton
b- tracts used by myosin
c- move sister chromatids apart during mitosis
D
low molecular weight molecules
which single dietary change can result in a 5% drop in ldl levels? group of answer choices consuming no more than 500 milligrams of sodium a day consuming as little dietary cholesterol as possible consuming 2 glasses of red wine a day consuming 5 to 10 milligrams of soluble fiber a day
Consuming 5 to 10 milligrams of soluble fiber a day is the single dietary change that can result in a 5% drop in LDL levels.
Soluble fiber is a type of fiber that dissolves in water and forms a gel-like substance in the digestive tract. This gel-like substance binds with cholesterol and prevents it from being absorbed into the bloodstream, which can lead to a reduction in LDL levels.
Foods that are high in soluble fiber include oats, barley, beans, lentils, peas, fruits such as apples and citrus fruits, and vegetables such as carrots and broccoli. Consuming these foods on a regular basis can help to increase the intake of soluble fiber and lower LDL levels.
It is important to note that while consuming soluble fiber can be helpful in lowering LDL levels, it is not a standalone solution. A healthy diet that is low in saturated and trans fats, and high in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats is recommended for optimal heart health. Additionally, regular physical activity and maintaining a healthy weight can also help to lower LDL levels and reduce the risk of heart disease.
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You’ve been hired by Central Hospital for your first job as a phlebotomist. You start next Monday, but first you need to read the employee handbook, which includes a description of personal characteristics for the successful phlebotomist. Dependability? Check—you’ve been holding down a steady job for more than 2 years. Positive attitude? Check—your nickname at the warehouse is “Can do.” Professional appearance? Uh-oh—no piercings, no visible tattoos, no artificial nails. You’ve got them all. When Monday rolls around, what should you do? Forget about the job? Tell your supervisor, “This is me—deal with it”? What would you do? Why?
When working in a hospital as a phlebotomist, the professional has to follow all the rules of the place, because piercings, earrings and nails can cause some biosafety problem in some procedures.
Biological risksThe employer must prohibit the use of adornments in the work stations of all workers in the service. Are considered adornments:
Wedding ringsRingsBraceletsWatches for personal useNecklacesEarringsBroochesExposed piercingsTies and Badges hanging with a cord.
The ban on the use of adornments protects the worker from biological risks due to the possibility of microorganisms adhering to the surfaces of objects.
With this information, we can conclude that the employer is correct in prohibiting the use of some adornments.
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How does dialysis stimulate the kidneys
how important is the function of each organ in our body
the school nurse is conducting a health class with a group of high school students on the topic of sex and sexuality issues. the nurse determines the session is successful when the students correctly choose which aspect as most important?
The nurse determines the session is successful when students correctly select the important aspects of the problem of sex and sexuality "Adolescents need to know how to use condoms correctly to avoid sexually transmitted infections."
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are various infections that can be transmitted from one person to another through sexual contact. And it can also spread through blood, semen, or other bodily fluids.
Condoms are not 100 percent effective at preventing STIs. This means that there is still a possibility that STIs can be contagious even if they have sex with a condom. But using it correctly can still help prevent the transmission of 98% of STIs.
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If the oculomotor nerve of your right eye is damaged, how will your eyes respond in an eye exam?.
The eyes will react differently during an eye exam if your right oculomotor nerve is damaged. The left eye will continue to function normally while the right eye will have trouble responding directly and consensually.
By regulating ipsilateral eye movements, pupil constriction, and elevation of the top eyelid, the oculomotor (third) cranial nerve contributes significantly to the function of the efferent visual system. In light of this, injury to the third cranial nerve may result in diplopia, pupil mydriasis, and/or ptosis of the upper eyelid. The oculomotor nerve aids in coordinating and adjusting eye position while moving. Saccades, fixation, accommodation, smooth pursuit, vestibular-ocular reflex, and optokinetic reflex are a few eye movements that help with this process.
Thus, we can conclude that if your right oculomotor nerve is injured, your eyes will respond to an eye exam differently.
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A 34 pound child with epilesy is prescribed tegretol (carbamazepine) 15 mg/kg/day, taken in four doses/ Tegretol suspension is 100 mg/5ml whats the vollume of one dose of medication?
Answer:
volume = 11.56ml
Explanation:
Composition of Tegretol Suspension = 100mg/5ml
This means that:
100mg = 5ml
1 mg = 5/100 ml
1 mg = 0.05ml
prescribed dosage = 15mg/kg/day
weight of child = 34 pounds
1 pound = 0.4535 kg
∴ 34 pounds = 0.4535 × 34 = 15.419 kg
∴ prescribed dose = 15mg/kg
1kg = 15mg
∴ 15.419kg = 15 × 15.419 = 231.285mg
composition = 100mg/5ml
100mg = 5ml
1 mg = 5/100 = 0.05ml
∴231.285mg = 0.05 × 231.285
= 11.56ml
what type of drug test measures the amount of a drug in the specimen
The type of drug test that measures the amount of a drug in the specimen is called quantitative drug testing.
Quantitative drug testing is the type of drug test that measures the amount of a drug present in the specimen. This is done by measuring the drug's concentration in the specimen (blood, urine, hair, saliva) in nanograms per milliliter (ng/mL). This test is also known as a toxicology screen.
The quantitative drug test is more complex than the qualitative test, which only detects the presence of a drug in the specimen, as it provides information on the drug's concentration, helping doctors determine the level of drug use, how long the drug has been in the body, and if it's within the therapeutic range or toxic range. It can also be useful in monitoring the effectiveness of drug treatment programs.
Quantitative drug testing is typically performed in a clinical laboratory or hospital, and it is used for a variety of reasons, including drug overdose, drug treatment, forensic investigations, workplace drug testing, and sports drug testing. In conclusion, quantitative drug testing is the type of drug test that measures the amount of a drug in the specimen and is used for a variety of purposes.
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What action can you take as a team during and after a resuscitation attempt that
helps individual team members perform better and brings awareness to system
strengths and deficiencies?
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
Overthinking
Practicing mutual respect
Debriefing
Criticizing
Debriefing is the action can you take as a team during and after a resuscitation attempt that helps individual team members perform better and brings awareness to system strengths and deficiencies.
What is debriefing?Debriefing is a fundamental action during critical response processes such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
Debriefing refers to the actions and procedures that involve communication between the members of a medical team in a clinical case.
Debriefing can result in a fundamental issue for understanding a medical problem/issue and thus safe lives.
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an indirect coomb's test is performed on a pregnant rh-negative client to predict fetal risk for which disorder? hesi
An indirect Coombs' test is performed on a pregnant Rh-negative client to predict the fetal risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN).
HDN is a condition in which a fetus's red blood cells are destroyed by the mother's immune system, leading to anemia, jaundice, and in severe cases, brain damage or death. This occurs when the mother's immune system produces antibodies against the Rh factor present on the fetus's red blood cells, causing them to attack and destroy the fetal cells.
The indirect Coombs' test is used to detect the presence of Rh antibodies in the mother's blood. If antibodies are detected, it indicates that the mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor, and there is a risk of the fetus developing HDN. Further testing and monitoring may be required to manage the risk and prevent complications.
In summary, the indirect Coombs' test is an important tool for predicting the fetal risk of HDN in Rh-negative pregnant clients, enabling healthcare providers to take appropriate measures to ensure the health and safety of both mother and baby.
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A pregnant 26-year-old woman presents for an ultrasound at 16 weeks gestation. She has a past medical history significant for a pregnancy loss at 22 weeks gestation prior to her current pregnancy. Ultrasound confirms a shortened cervix. In addition to cervical cerclage, what additional lifestyle modifications should be recommended for this patient?A. Avoid coitusB. Bed restC. Cessation of exerciseD. No lifting over five pounds
A 26-year-old pregnant lady arrives for an ultrasound at 16 weeks gestation with a history of pregnancy loss at 22 weeks gestation. A shortened cervix is confirmed by ultrasound, and in addition to cervical cerclage, the following lifestyle changes are recommended for this patient:
A. Avoid coitus - Avoiding coitus can help lower the chance of future difficulties caused by the shorter cervix.
B. Bed rest - This can help relieve cervical pressure and reduce the risk of premature labour.
C. Stopping high-impact or vigorous exercise can help minimise the chance of premature labour.
D. Avoid lifting anything more than five pounds - This can help reduce tension on the cervix and lower the chance of problems.
These lifestyle changes are intended to help the patient's pregnancy by reducing risks connected with a shorter cervix. Always seek personalised advice and recommendations from a healthcare professional.
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How does delirium differ from dementia and alzheimer's disease?
Although both delirium and dementia are neurological disorders that can lead to disorientation and diminished cognitive function, they differ significantly in a number of important ways. Delirium is a quick, reversible alteration in the brain brought on by a disease, medicine, or substance addiction.
It is an acute, short-term syndrome. Disorientation, confusion, trouble focusing, and behavioural abnormalities are some of the signs of delirium. Dementia is a chronic, degenerative disorder brought on by a slow loss of brain activity.
The most prevalent kind of dementia, Alzheimer's disease is characterised by memory loss, language difficulties, and behavioural problems. Frontotemporal dementia, Lewy body dementia, and vascular dementia are other types of dementia. Dementia symptoms might differ depending on the kind, but often involve memory loss.
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A nurse is reviewing contraceptive failure rate. Which statement should the nurse identify as being accurate?
a. It varies from couple to couple, depending on the method and the users.
b. It refers to the minimum level that must be achieved to receive a government license.
c. It refers to the percentage of users expected to have an accidental pregnancy over a 5-year span.
d. It increases over time as couples become more careless.
A nurse is reviewing contraceptive failure rate. The statement that the nurse should identify as accurate is that "It refers to the percentage of users expected to have an accidental pregnancy over a 5-year span."
What is contraceptive failure?
Contraceptive failure refers to the chance that a contraceptive method will fail. This could result in unintended pregnancies. Contraceptive failure rate varies from couple to couple depending on the method of contraceptive used and the users. It is important to use contraception properly to avoid unwanted pregnancies and sexually transmitted infections. There are many different methods of contraception available today. Some methods are more effective than others, but no method of contraception is 100% effective.The statement in option C is accurate because the contraceptive failure rate refers to the percentage of users expected to have an accidental pregnancy over a certain span of time, usually five years.
Therefore, option c is the correct answer.
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Which of the following is found in eukaryotic genes but not prokaryotic genes?
a) introns
b) repressors
c) operons
The correct answer is (a) introns, which is found in eukaryotic genes but not prokaryotic genes.Explanation:Prokaryotic and eukaryotic genes are significantly different in structure, organization, and regulation. The nucleoid region, a plasmid, and an operon are the three main components of prokaryotic genes.
In contrast, eukaryotic genes have a distinct nucleus containing DNA molecules as chromosomes. Eukaryotic genes have introns and exons, as well as promoters and enhancers to control gene expression.Operons are a group of genes that operate together and are regulated by a single promoter in prokaryotic cells.
In contrast, eukaryotic genes, which have complex chromatin arrangements, are regulated by transcription factors and enhancers that work together to control gene expression.Introns, on the other hand, are segments of DNA that are not expressed in protein synthesis and are unique to eukaryotic genes.
They must be removed via RNA splicing in order for the gene to be expressed. As a result, introns are found in eukaryotic genes but not in prokaryotic genes. Therefore, the correct option is (a) introns.
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TRUE OR FALSE drag each statement to the correct box to indicate whether it is true or false of the results shown in the figure, which depicts patterns of molecular divergence between strains of the hiv-1 virus.
True: The HIV-1 genome's V3 loop region's pattern of divergence points to a background of positive selection. In both of these genes, divergence at synonymous and nonsynonymous locations is clocklike.
What is called molecular?One or more atoms make up molecules. If there are multiple, the atoms may be distinct or identical (for example, an oxygen molecule has two oxygen atoms) (a water molecule has two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom).The number of atoms in biological compounds like DNA and proteins can reach thousands. Molecular compounds are chemical entities that take on specific molecule shapes. Examples include typical substances like water (H2O) and carbon dioxide (CO2) .
How molecules are formed?A molecule is produced when two or more atoms interact and connect with one another. When a bond is created between two atoms, each shares one electron. A covalent bond results in the formation of a molecule. The number and location of chemical bonds, as well as how atoms, groups, or ions are arranged in a molecule
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2 year old Caucasian not gaining weight , foul smelling stools, what is the responsible cause for the effect
Answer:
malabsorption syndrome: chronically poor nutrient absorption. consequences: little weight gain, smelly poop
Also Gastroenteritis - can be viral or bacterial. Intestinal parasites can spread because the child has touched contaminated food, water, or possibly poop from someone/somewhere else that is contaminated already. This can cause death. It can lead to severe dehydration.
Explanation:
An outpatient comes to the laboratory for a PT. He had been in the hospital 6 weeks earlier for treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
PT: 14.0 sec
Thromboplastin International Sensitivity Index (ISI): 2
PT reference range: 11-13 sec (for this laboratory)
aPTT: not requested
1. Interpret the coagulation results.
2. What is the patient’s international normalized ratio (INR)?
3. Based on all the data provided, what condition is most likely?
4. Is the patient taking enough oral anticoagulant?
5. What is the risk for this patient?
The patient's coagulation results show a prolonged PT of 14.0 sec and an INR of 1.4. These findings indicate a delay in blood clotting and suggest an ongoing need for anticoagulation therapy due to the patient's history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). It is important to assess the patient's oral anticoagulant dosage to determine if it is adequate.
The elevated INR and prolonged clotting time pose an increased risk of bleeding for the patient. The PT result of 14.0 sec is higher than the reference range of 11-13 sec, indicating a delay in blood clotting. The INR can be calculated as INR = (PT patient / PT control) x ISI, which gives a value of 1.4 in this case. An INR above the reference range indicates that the patient's blood takes longer to clot than normal. Based on the patient's history of deep vein thrombosis and elevated INR, the most likely condition is an ongoing need for anticoagulation therapy.
This therapy is required to prevent the formation of blood clots. However, the adequacy of the patient's oral anticoagulant dosage should be assessed to ensure it is at an appropriate level. The increased INR and prolonged clotting time indicate an increased risk of bleeding for the patient. It is important to monitor the patient closely and adjust the anticoagulant therapy as needed to maintain a balance between preventing clot formation and minimizing bleeding risk.
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Which class of diuretic can decrease calcium in the body?
Explanation:
Thiazode Diuretics can decrease calcium in the body.What is the appropriate procedure for using an ice water bath with a student who is having a serious heat reaction?
Immediately immerse the player entirely into the ice bath.
Remove the student's equipment and shirt, and then submerge all but the head in the ice water bath.
Cool the student down before going to an ice bath to avoid shocking their system. Wait for EMS to arrive to determine if an ice bath is appropriate treatment.
An ice water bath with a student suffering from heat reaction is used by removing the student's equipment and clothes and then submerging all but the head in the ice water bath. Thus, option b is correct.
What is an ice water bath?An ice water bath is a method and cold therapy that reduces inflammation, soothes muscles, provides a boost, and enhances the breathing rate. It can be used for medical issues like heat reactions.
To use the ice bath the excess clothes of the person suffering must be removed so that the increased temperature is dealt with. The water in the tub must be about 35-58 degrees Fahrenheit in temperature.
Emerge the whole body except for the head of the person in the water for approximately 30 minutes. Add ice to maintain the cold temperature and then lift the person when the body temperature is reduced.
Therefore, the ice bath is given in case of heat reaction.
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what technique would you use to move rosemary, a 15-year-old patient who has just had spinal surgery?
Answer:
The technique I would use to move rosemary, a 15-year-old patient who has just had spinal surgery shall be " The Logrolling technique "
Theory theory refers to the ability to think about other people's thoughts.
True
False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
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The Nuclear Medicine section lists body systems by name for character 2. There is one character 2 heading that is not identified with the word systems. These terms are all:
Answer:
hope this helps
Explanation:
the body systems in which the procedure is preformed.
An astronaut weighs 20kg on the moon. How would his/her weight change when returning to Earth?
Answer: 196
Explanation:
The mass of the object was stated in the scenario, not the apparent weight on the moon. To calculate the weight on Earth, multiply the mass by gravitational acceleration.
20 x 9.8 = 196