CMS develops national coverage determinations on an ongoing basis, and ______ create(s) edits for NCD rules, which are local coverage determinations.

Answers

Answer 1

CMS develops national coverage determinations on an ongoing basis, and Medicare Administrative Contractors (MACs) create edits for NCD rules, which are local coverage determinations.

1. CMS (Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services) continually develops and updates national coverage determinations (NCDs) to set policies and guidelines for covered medical services.
2. Medicare Administrative Contractors (MACs) are responsible for creating local coverage determinations (LCDs) based on NCD rules.
3. MACs tailor LCDs to specific regions, taking regional needs and medical practices into account.
4. MACs create edits for NCD rules to ensure that the LCDs are consistent with national policies while addressing local requirements.
5. These LCDs help healthcare providers understand which services are covered in their region and how to submit claims for Medicare reimbursement.

Medicare Administrative Contractors (MACs) create edits for NCD rules, which are local coverage determinations (LCDs).

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Related Questions

The most crucial reason for a cell to minimize errors in cell division is

Answers

Answer:

Cell’s who make errors when dividing further their risk for becoming cancerous

Explanation:

During cell division, DNA is replicated. If a mutation occurs during replication that cannot be repaired a cell will undergo apoptosis (programmed cell death). Sometimes, mutations occur to tumor suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes. These genes make sure a cell has no mutations before dividing/making the decision to start apoptosis. When these genes become mutated, the cell is less likely to correct potential mutations and is more at risk for becoming cancerous.

Why or why not are the majority of Hill's criteria difficult to apply to chronic disease epidemiology

Answers

Answer:

You "ll find your answer here: https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/1-majority-hill-s-criteria-difficult-apply-chronic-disease-epidemiology-please-specific-di-q61706853

A gland that secrets a hormone that regulates the body's use of calcium

Answers

Answer:

Parathyroid gland secrets a hormone called parathyroid hormone or parathormone (PTH) which regulates calcium usage in our body.

Hope it helps!

Answer:

parathyroid gland

Explanation:

The parathyroid gland secretes parathyroid hormone (PTH) which is responsible for monitoring blood calcium levels by mobilizing calcium reserves in the bone, increasing intestinal absorption and increasing renal excretion. Another hormone involved in regulated Ca blood levels is calcitonin, secreted by the thyroid gland. It lowers Ca blood levels by increasing its deposition in the bone.

a physician prescribed skelaxin 400mg tid x10 days for back pain. the available strength is skelaxin 800mg scored tablets how many tablets are needed for the entire prescripton

Answers

The quantity of tablet that is needed for the entire prescription are = 15 tablets

Calculation of dosage of drug

The desired dosage (D)= 400mg

The on hand dose (H) = 800mg/tab

The amount needed to be administered (A) = 400/800

= 0.5mg/tab

The quantity of tablet that would be given for 3 times daily for 10 days= 0.5 × 3×10

= 15 tablets

Therefore, the quantity of tablet that is needed for the entire prescription are = 15 tablets

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A variable such as intelligence that cannot be seen or measured directly is know as a(n)

Answers

A variable that cannot be seen or measured directly is known as a(n) latent variable. Other methods include observing how people behave in different situations, looking at their academic achievements, or analyzing their performance on tasks that require cognitive skills.

Latent variable refers to an underlying trait or characteristic that cannot be observed or measured directly. Intelligence is a prime example of a latent variable, since it cannot be measured directly. However, psychologists have developed several ways to measure intelligence indirectly.

Intelligence tests, which consist of a series of questions or problems that test various types of intellectual abilities, are the most common way of measuring intelligence. Other methods include observing how people behave in different situations, looking at their academic achievements, or analyzing their performance on tasks that require cognitive skills.

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Terrence F. Ackerman believes that:

a. paternalism is never justified.
b. illness can be an obstacle to personal autonomy.
c. depressed people are fully autonomous.
d. patients are never wrong about their medical decisions.

Answers

A…………………..……or c………..

Which information will the nurse include for a patient with newly diagnosed gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
a. "Peppermint tea may reduce your symptoms."
b. "Keep the head of your bed elevated on blocks."
c. "You should avoid eating between meals to reduce acid secretion."
d. "Vigorous physical activities may increase the incidence of reflux."

Answers

The nurse should give information like Keeping the head of your bed elevated on blocks for gastroesophageal reflux disease. Thus, option B is correct.

Gastroesophageal reflux disease is related to the stomach. This disease occurs when the acid present in the acid repeatedly flows back into the tube connecting from mouth to stomach. This will cause irritation and also makes damage to the lining of your esophagus.

The nurse's suggestion will be good, because if the acid pushes up to the stomach, then according to the inclined position, the acid will go into the stomach. It takes gravity as a favor to make this work.

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Which of the following classes of medications are considered bronchodilators? (select all that apply)
Long acting muscarinic antagonists
Short acting β 2 agonists
Long acting β 2 agonists
Short muscarinic antagonists

Answers

Answer:

The following classes of medications are considered bronchodilators: short acting β 2 agonists and long acting β 2 agonists. Long acting muscarinic antagonists are also bronchodilators, but short muscarinic antagonists are not. Therefore, the correct options are:

Short acting β 2 agonists

Long acting β 2 agonists

Note that bronchodilators are a class of drugs that relax the smooth muscle in the lungs, making it easier to breathe. Short acting bronchodilators work quickly but only last for a few hours, while long acting bronchodilators provide more sustained relief over a long period of time.

Explanation:

The classes of medications that are considered bronchodilators include short acting β 2 agonists, long acting β 2 agonists, and long acting muscarinic antagonists. Short muscarinic antagonists are not bronchodilators.


The classes of medications that are considered bronchodilators include:

1. Long acting muscarinic antagonists
2. Short acting β2 agonists
3. Long acting β2 agonists

There isn't a class specifically called "short muscarinic antagonists," so it does not apply to this list of bronchodilators.

Short acting 2 agonists, long acting 2 agonists, and long acting muscarinic antagonists are the drug classes that are regarded as bronchodilators. Bronchodilators are not present in short muscarinic antagonists.

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Obtain a medicine cup that is graduated into the metric (milliliters), apothecary (drams and ounces), and household (reaspoons and tablespoons) systems. Complete the following: 1. What is its capacity? _________ ounces _________ milliliters _________ tablespoons _________ drams 2. Practice pouring oral liquid medication by pouring the following amounts of water into the medicine cup. Place a check mark by each amount after it has been properly poured. _________ 20 mL _________ 4 drams _________ 1 ounce _________ 10 mL _________ 1/2 ounce _________ 1 tablespoon _________ 2 drams

Answers

1.) Capacity of the medicine cup can be expressed as:  1 fluid ounce- 30 milliliters- 2 tablespoons - 8 drams 2.) Place a check mark by each amount after it has been properly poured.
20 mL ✓- 4 drams ✓- 1 ounce ✓
- 10 mL ✓- 1/2 ounce ✓- 1 tablespoon ✓ - 2 drams ✓

1. The capacity of the medicine cup will depend on the specific cup you obtain. However, a typical medicine cup will have a capacity of 1 fluid ounce or 30 milliliters. In terms of tablespoons, 1 fluid ounce is equal to 2 tablespoons, and in terms of drams, 1 fluid ounce is equal to 8 drams. Therefore, the capacity of the medicine cup can be expressed as:

- 1 fluid ounce
- 30 milliliters
- 2 tablespoons
- 8 drams

2. To practice pouring oral liquid medication using the medicine cup, follow these steps:

- First, ensure that the medicine cup is clean and dry.
- Next, place the medicine cup on a level surface and ensure that it is stable.
- Then, using a measuring device such as a graduated cylinder or a measuring spoon, measure out the required amount of liquid medication.
- Pour the liquid medication into the medicine cup slowly and carefully, taking care not to spill any of the liquid.
- Check the level of the liquid in the medicine cup against the appropriate markings for the metric, apothecary, or household systems to ensure that the correct amount has been poured.
- Finally, place a check mark by each amount after it has been properly poured.

Using this method, you can practice pouring the following amounts of water into the medicine cup:

- 20 mL ✓
- 4 drams ✓
- 1 ounce ✓
- 10 mL ✓
- 1/2 ounce ✓
- 1 tablespoon ✓
- 2 drams ✓

Remember to always double-check the measurements and markings on the medicine cup to ensure that you are administering the correct amount of medication. It is also important to follow the instructions provided by your healthcare provider or pharmacist when administering oral liquid medication.

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Which of the following patients would be appropriate to help move using a transfer belt?

Ying, a patient with relatively good mobility who is recovering from back surgery

Ivy, a patient with limited mobility who has a feeding tube

Sandra, a patient with limited mobility who is recovering from an abdominal surgery

Paulo, a patient with relatively good mobility who is suffering from the flu

Answers

Answer: i think the answer is Ying,a patient with relatively good mobility who is recovering from back surgery.

Explanation:

The answer is Ying a patient with relatively good mobility who is recovering from back surgery

which advice would the nurse give the client to avoid lipodystrophy when self-administering insulin therapy

Answers

The advice that the nurse will give the client to avoid lipodystrophy when self-administering insulin therapy is B. Rotate injection sites.

Which advice would the nurse give the client to avoid lipodystrophy?

The trauma of repeated injections at the same place might lead to fibrous scar formation. Exercise has no effect on lipodystrophy, although it lowers blood sugar, which lessens the need for insulin.

Subcutaneous injections of insulin are administered; some intramuscular injections involve the Z-track method. After administering insulin, applying little pressure to the injection site encourages absorption.

Therefore, the advice that the nurse will give the client to avoid lipodystrophy when self-administering insulin therapy is to rotate injection sites.

In conclusion, the correct option is B.

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Which advice would the nurse give the client to avoid lipodystrophy when self-administering insulin therapy

1 Exercise regularly.

2 Rotate injection sites.

3 Use the Z-track technique.

4 Avoid massaging the injection site.

The doctor ordered Claforan 1400mg IM every 12 hours. The directions for the 2 gm vial state: Add 5 mL of diluent to yield an approximate concentration of 360mg/mL. How many mL will you give?

Answers

You will have to give 1200ml

Drugs Manufacturing the Naming

Recalling the Naming Process

How is the chemical name of a drug assigned?

a. The name describes the format of the drug, and is assigned by the FDA.
b. The name describes its chemical structure, and is assigned by IUPAC.
c. The name is identified by the drug manufacturer, and is a trade name.
d. The name is identified by the manufacturer and the USAN Counsel.

Answers

Answer:

B. The name describes its chemical structure, and is assigned by IUPAC.

Explanation:

I calculated it logically

Answer:

b. the name describes the chemical structure, and is assigned by IUPAC

Explanation:

chemical name of a drug is describing it's chemical structure.

Drugs of abuse trigger the release of dopamine within our brain, which allows the user to experience a temporary feeling of pleasure.a. Trueb. False

Answers

True. Drugs of abuse trigger the release of dopamine within our brain, which allows the user to experience a temporary feeling of pleasure.

What do you mean by Drug abuse?

Drugs abuse is defined as substances that are taken for non-medical purposes, and in amounts or in a manner that can lead to physical and/or psychological harm. These include illegal drugs such as cocaine, heroin, and marijuana, as well as prescription drugs taken for non-medical purposes such as painkillers and sedatives.

What is Dopamine?

Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that helps regulate movement, emotion, motivation, and pleasure in the brain. It is involved in many important functions, including reward-motivated behavior, such as learning and memory formation. Low levels of dopamine may be associated with depression and other mood disorders.

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why is nursing's collective voice weak in comparison to their numbers

Answers

Answer:

Multiple reasons

Explanation:

There are multiple reasons.

- only 20% of entire workforce members of prof organization

- other professions have united front and clout

- ANA now emphasizes increased membership

- nurses to support specific candidates and/or run for office (5 nurses in 114th congress)

- participate in community health promotion

What are withdrawal symptoms a person may experience when he or she stops using a medicine?

Select 4 correct answer(s)
Question 3 options:

Nervousness


Insomnia


Acne


Vomiting


Severe headaches


Itchiness

Answers

Answer:

Insomnia Acne vomiting severe headaches

25. The nurse observes a dient prepare a meal in the Kitchen of a rehabilitation faciley prior to
discharge. Which behaviors indicate the dient understands how to maintain balance saltel
(Select all that apply)
ngs a heavy can dose to body before Witing
b. Locks knees while preparing food on the counter
C. Widens stance while working near the sink
6.
Bends from the waist to pick trash off the floor
Leans forward to pull a pan from a high shelf,

Answers

The nurse observes a client prepare a meal in the Kitchen of a rehabilitation facility prior to discharge. the behaviors that  indicate the client understands how to maintain balance safely is Locks knees while preparing food on the counter.

What is a rehabilitation facility ?

After the acute medical illnesses have stabilized of patients , the patients with a variety of neurological, musculoskeletal, orthopedic, and other diseases are treated in rehabilitation facilities, also known as inpatient rehabilitation facilities. A rehabilitation facility is a business that offers programs and services to help people who have been hurt or are ill recover from their conditions.

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You are called to the delivery room to attend a birth. What are the 4 pre-birth questions you should ask the obstetric team to assess perinatal risk and facilitate communication

Answers

What is the expected gestational age? Is the amniotic fluid clear? Are there additional risk factors? What is our umbilical cord management plan? can be the 4 pre-birth questions you should ask the obstetric team to assess perinatal risk and facilitate communication.

What are perinatal risk factors?

Chronic maternal illness, certain maternal infections, toxin exposure, and nutritional deficiencies are all prenatal risk factors.

Pregnancy-related complications, prematurity and low birth weight, and infection exposure during pregnancy or at the time of birth are all risk factors in the perinatal period.

The 4 pre-birth questions you should ask the obstetric team to assess perinatal risk and facilitate communication can be:

What is the expected gestational age? Is the amniotic fluid clear? Are there additional risk factors? What is the umbilical cord management plan?

Thus, these questions can be asked by obstetric team to assess perinatal risk and facilitate communication.

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the nurse is performing an initial assessment of a patient in labor. what is the appropriate terminology for the relationship of the fetal body parts to one another?

Answers

C. Attitude.

The relationship between the various fetal bodily parts is known as attitude. The relationship between the mother's and the fetus' long axes (or spines) is called a lie. The term "presentation" describes the area of a fetus that travels first into the birth canal and into the pelvic inlet during term labor. The position of the fetus refers to how it sits in relation to all four quadrants of a mother's pelvis.

Birth Canal- The route through which bodily fluid leaves when a woman is menstruating. Another name for it is "the birth canal." The upper portion of the uterus is connected by a small, tubular structure called the fallopian tube. The birth canal is made up of the cervix and vagina.

The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,

Q. The nurse is performing an initial assessment of a client in labor. What is the appropriate terminology for the relationship of the fetal body parts to one another?

A. Lie

B. Presentation

C. Attitude

D. Position

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Glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids and androgens are:

Answers

Are synthesized in the zona reticularis

Lipophilic hormones are transported in blood ________ and bind to receptors located ________.
A) dissolved in the plasma : on the plasma membrane of the target cell
B) dissolved in the plasma : inside the target cell
C) bound to carrier proteins : on the plasma membrane of the target cell
D) bound to carrier proteins : inside the target cell
E) inside red blood cells : inside the target cell

Answers

The ideal response is A) dissolved in the plasma: on the target cell's plasma membrane.

Lipophilic hormones pass through the cell membrane and interact with receptors, usually found in the nucleus, to form bonds. The receptor for such hormone are usually exposed on the outer side of the cell. This modifies the receptor so that it can attach to DNA at a particular site (called the hormone response element). Lipid-soluble hormones enter the target cell and diffuse through the plasma membrane where they bind to a receptor protein. Lipophilic hormones do not dissolve in blood plasma and thus require a carrier protein to help them reach the target cell.

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Term birth, living male, cesarean delivery, with hemolytic disease due to ABO incompatibility. Code the baby’s record.
ICD-10-CM:
ICD-10-CM:

Answers

Full-term, live male, cesarean delivery(ICD 10 - O82), with hemolytic disease due to ABO incompatibility(ICD 10 - P55). Code in the baby registry.

ICD 10 - O82 Single delivery by cesarean sectionICD 10 - P55 Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn

What does the ICD mean?

The International Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, better known as the ICD, is one of the main epidemiological tools in everyday medical practice. The main function of the ICD is to monitor the incidence and prevalence of diseases, through universal standardization.

With this information, we can conclude that ICD-10 is the 10th revision of the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems

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1. What have you learned so far in this course that will help you conduct effective health assessments?

Answers

Answer: I learned how to take a bullet out of someone.

Explanation:

Explain at least 3 ways to improve interactions with
patients

Answers

Active listening, effective communication, and respect and empathy are three ways to improve interactions with patients.

Three ways to improve interactions with patients are:

Active Listening: Actively listening to patients involves giving them your full attention, maintaining eye contact, and demonstrating empathy. This helps establish trust, shows that their concerns are being heard, and allows for better understanding of their needs.Effective Communication: Clear and concise communication is essential. Using simple language, avoiding medical jargon, and providing information in a manner that patients can understand promotes better comprehension and fosters a collaborative relationship. It is also important to encourage patients to ask questions and address any doubts or uncertainties they may have.Respect and Empathy: Treating patients with respect and empathy is crucial for building a positive rapport. Showing genuine concern, being non-judgmental, and respecting their autonomy and cultural values creates a supportive environment. Recognizing and validating their emotions, fears, and anxieties can alleviate distress and enhance patient satisfaction.

Improving interactions with patients requires healthcare professionals to prioritize effective communication, active listening, and demonstrating empathy. These approaches not only contribute to better patient experiences but also facilitate accurate assessments, shared decision-making, and improved healthcare outcomes.

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HCPCS level II codes are: a. sometimes replaced by HCPCS level III temporary codes. b. intended for use by all private and public health insurers. c. maintained by the AMA's Editorial Board, which makes decisions about additions, revisions, and deletions. d. updated by CMS when necessary, without participation by the HCPCS National Panel.

Answers

Answer:

HCPCS Level II codes are alphanumeric medical procedure codes, primarily for non-physician services such as ambulance services and prosthetic devices,. They represent items, supplies and non-physician services not covered by CPT-4 codes (Level I).

Explanation:

When reading and analyzing a research study, what is the nurse's primary reason to question the link between the treatment and the outcome?​


The sample was large with no exclusion criteria
Threats to validity suggest alternate causes of the outcome
Randomization controlled researcher bias
The literature review included ten relevant, current articles

Answers

When reading and analyzing a research study,  the nurse's primary reason to question the link between the treatment and the outcome is the randomization controlled researcher bias and is therefore denoted as option C.

Who is a Nurse?

This is referred to as a healthcare professional who is specially trained in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery of the patient is achieved.

Researches involve random selections which make up a sample size and are done so as to prevent any bias from being present. We must note that not all randomization are unbiased especially in a research which is used to determine the outcome of a treatment. The presence of the bias doesn't depict the real effectiveness which is why it is questioned by the nurse.

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carlos has a family history of heart disease and stroke. to lower his risk of cardiovascular disease, carlos should

Answers

Carlos has a family history of heart disease and stroke. to lower his risk of cardiovascular disease, Carlos should make lifestyle changes such as eating a healthy diet low in saturated and trans fats, exercising regularly, quitting smoking, and managing stress. He should also work with his healthcare provider to ensure that his blood pressure and cholesterol levels are under control. Carlos may also be prescribed medications such as statins or blood pressure medications to further reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease.

Is jumping on a trampoline gravatational energy

Answers

Answer:There are Multiple different types of energy transfer, including gravitational potential energy, elastic energy, and kinetic energy.

Explanation:When you use your potential energy to jump, the trampoline uses its potential energy in its springs to push back against you.

True or False? inflatable ankle splint mechanical wheelchair condom excimer laser used in corneal surgery

Answers

Inflatable ankle splint mechanical wheelchair condom excimer laser used in corneal surgery the statement is false.

An "inflatable ankle splint" is a device used to immobilize and support an injured ankle, a "mechanical wheelchair" is a mobility device for people with disabilities, and a "condom" is a form of contraception. "Excimer laser" is used in corneal surgery, but it is not related to the other terms mentioned.Inflatable ankle splint: a medical device used to immobilize and provide support to the ankle joint.

Mechanical wheelchair: a wheelchair that uses mechanical components such as gears, levers, and wheels to facilitate movement.

Condom catheter: a type of external catheter used in males to manage urinary incontinence.

Excimer laser: a type of laser used in corneal surgery to reshape the cornea and correct refractive errors.

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Exercise is something that should be __________. A. painful B. inconvenient C. enjoyable D. exhausting Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D

Answers

Answer:

C. enjoyable

Explanation:

Hope this helps! :)

Exercise is something that should be enjoyable.

Why exercise is enjoyable?

Physical activity stimulates various brain chemicals and happy hormones that can make you feel happier, more relaxed and reduce anxiety.

By doing exercise regularly, you can feel better about your appearance and feel more confident.

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