Your body image is how you see and perceive your body. Your ideas, perceptions, imagination, and emotions all play a role in your body image.
What is body imaging ?
Your body image is the mental picture you've formed of yourself based on a variety of circumstances. Physical parameters, such as body size and weight, naturally play a role in defining your self-image. However, psychological, mental, and emotional elements have an equal influence on how you perceive yourself and how accepting you are of your body.
Your body image is how you see and perceive your body. Your ideas, perceptions, imagination, and emotions all play a role in your body image. It does not always represent what you see in the mirror or what others view.
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Corporate compliance programs help an organization: (Click on all that apply).
Prevent violations of the law
Detect violations of the law
O Correct violations of the law
O Retaliate against reporters
Answer: Correct violation of the law
You are the office manager for a busy primary care practice.over the past week you have notice that the one of your employees has been 15 minutes late every day.should you approach this employee? If so how do you manage the situation? What are the main points you would want to stress to this employee? Are there any consequences? What follow-up if any should be done
Answer:
Whether it’s bad traffic, oversleeping or caring for a sick pet, employees offer up lots of different excuses when they show up late for work. As the manager, you may overlook it the first time. But what if it becomes a pattern?
Employee lateness is a widespread problem. A 2016 survey by CareerBuilder found that one in four employees admits to showing up late for work once a month, whereas 13 percent of employees say it’s a weekly occurrence. Managers say they hear all sorts of excuses: “A black bear entered my carport and decided to take a nap on the hood of my car.” “I was detained by Homeland Security.” “My hair caught on fire from my blow dryer.”
Employees who rarely arrive late to work should probably be given the benefit of the doubt—as there are valid reasons for being late. (Tires really do go flat!) But it’s generally in a manager’s best interest to confront employees who frequently—or always—show up late.
Late employees can reduce business productivity, especially if they aren’t making up for lost work time at the end of their shifts. Moreover, it hurts the morale and work ethic of other employees who might resent that the late arrivers aren’t getting called out or disciplined for their lateness. It might even encourage other employees to start showing up late to work if they see no consequence for the bad behavior.
But don’t despair. Businesses have many opportunities to boost the odds that employees will show up when they’re supposed to. Here are ways to discourage employees from arriving late, as well as how to deal with those who regularly do:
Explanation:
A compound light microscope consists of how many lenses?
What trunk region contains the umbilical region, coxal region, and inguinal region?
superior posterior
inferior posterior
superior anterior
inferior anterior
Answer:
The lower region of the human body contains the umbilical region, coxal region, and inguinal region.
Explanation:
When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant you should palpate the _____ artery
Brachial
Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of?
Cardiac dysrhythmia
Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patients airway with the jaw thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should?
Carefully perform the head tilt chin lift maneuver
You should deliver chest compressions to an unresponsive adult patient in cardiac arrest by?
Compressing the sternum between the nipples
When performing chest compressions on an adult the EMT should compress
At least 2 inches
The most appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes
Administering oxygen and transporting immediately
In most cases cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by?
Respiratory arrest
What is the correct compression to ventilation ratio for adult cpr
30:2
A young male is unresponsive after overdosing on an opioid. He is not breathing and his pulse is weak. The EMT should immediately
Ventilate with a BVM
If gastric distention begins to make positive pressure ventilation difficult you should?
Reposition the patients airway
The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9 month old infant is?
1/3 the diameter of the chest or about 1 1/2"
What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilation when performing two rescuer child CPR
15:2
The AED gives the "no shock" message to a patient who is in cardiac arrest. What should you do?
Resume chest compressions
What is the maximum amount of time that should be spent checking for spontaneous breathing in an unresponsive child
10 seconds
When you are performing CPR on an adult or child. Approximately how often should you reassess the patient for return of respirations and or circulation
Every 2 min
You are off duty and come across a child lying on the ground at a playground unresponsive. She does not have a pulse and no one witnessed the collapse. What's should you do?
Do 5 cycles of CPR then call 911
When performing CPR on an infant where should you place hands
Place two fingers in the middle of the sternum just below the nipple lines
A technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to the neutral position or beyond
Active compression-decompression CPR
Noninvasive emergency lifesaving care that is used to treat medical conditions including airway obstruction, respiratory arrest and cardiac arrest
Basic life support
The combo of chest compressions and rescue breathing used to establish adequate ventilation and circulation in a patient who is not breathing and has no pulse
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
The total percentage of time during resuscitation attempt in which active chest compressions are being performed
Chest compression fraction
Rapid or deep breathing that lowers the blood carbon dioxide level below normal
Hyperventilation
A lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow
Ischemia
Brain damage is very likely on a brain that does not receive oxygen for?
6-10 min
What sequence of events describes the AHA chain of survival
Early access, early CPR, early defibrillation, early advanced care, integrated post arrest care
Answer:Brachial artery
Explanation:
When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant you should palpate the Brachial artery.
What are the different diagnoses in cardiology?In cardiology, most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of Cardiac dysrhythmia. Carefully perform the head tilt chin lift maneuver for trauma patients.
During cardiac arrest compressing the sternum between the nipples, these compressions help the patient, while performing chest compressions on an adult the EMT should compress at least 2 inches.
The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR is 30:2. Ischemia is the term used for lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow.
Therefore, you should palpate the Brachial artery, when assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant.
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What are the 3 components of an E/m code
Answer:These factors — history, exam, and MDM (HEM) — are known as the three key components of E/M level selection. Determining the correct type of history, exam, and MDM can feel intimidating even for seasoned coders because of the many requirements involved.
Explanation:
who has an
icted heel ulcer
A nurse in a long-term care facility plans the care of four clients following the 0700 morning change-of-
shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse collect data on first?
a
A client who has bronchitis and heann taking antibiotiotics yesterderday who has temperature of 38.30 oC
B. An older adult client who has diabetes, takes Chlorpropamide, and has a 0600 blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL
C. A client who has Alzheimer’s was reported to be restless during the night
D. A young adult client who has a L3 spinal cord compression fracture was reported to have been incontinent during the night
Being prepared for a fire emergency would include all of the following, EXCEPT ________.
Answer:
Open windows on the east side of the building of fire breaks out
A fire emergency would include all of the following, EXCEPT Open windows on the east side of the building if a fire breaks out.
What emergency would fire extinguishers include?Fire calls for gasoline, heat, and oxygen to burn. fireplace extinguishers follow an agent that will cool burning heat, smother gasoline or cast off oxygen so the hearth cannot maintain to burn. A portable fireplace extinguisher can quickly manage a small fire if carried out with the aid of an individual properly skilled.An extinguisher with an ABC score is suitable to be used with fires regarding regular combustibles, flammable liquids, and energized electrical gadgets. An extinguisher is rated for use with a couple of risks and needs to include a symbol for each threat type.Learn more about fire extinguishers here:-https://brainly.com/question/1180266
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which of the following do not occur in prokaryotic cell
Answer:
anaerobic respiration
Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
Vitamin H
Reservatrol
Beta Alanine
Vitamin C
Angina medicine for pfizer. pfizer has developed a new angina medicine. for efficient delivery, the new medicine requires an inhaler, which can be produced at a constant marginal cost of $2 per unit. pfizer has a patent that gives it a monopoly on its inhaler. if pfizer can perfectly price discriminate, then the consumer surplus is:__________
Angina is a medical condition characterized by chest pain due to insufficient blood flow to the heart. Pfizer, a pharmaceutical company, has developed a new angina medicine that requires an inhaler for efficient delivery. The inhaler has a constant marginal cost of $2 per unit, and Pfizer holds a monopoly on its production due to a patent.
Perfect price discrimination is a practice where a seller charges each consumer the highest price they are willing to pay for a good or service, capturing all consumer surplus. Consumer surplus is the difference between what consumers are willing to pay and the actual price they pay. In a perfectly competitive market, consumer surplus exists because some consumers pay less than their maximum willingness to pay.However, in the scenario where Pfizer can perfectly price discriminate, the consumer surplus is zero. This is because Pfizer will charge each consumer the maximum amount they are willing to pay for the inhaler. As a result, no consumer pays less than their maximum willingness to pay, and there is no surplus value for the consumers.To summarize, when Pfizer can perfectly price discriminate, the consumer surplus for the angina medicine and its inhaler is zero. This is due to the fact that each consumer is charged their maximum willingness to pay, eliminating any surplus value.For more such question on medicine
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Does hypertension have any symptoms
Answer:
you can have high blood pressure and experience no obvious symptoms until you experience a stroke or heart attack. in some people, severe high blood pressure can result in nosebleeds, headaches, or dizziness. Because hypertension can sneak up on you, it's especially important to monitor yor blood pressure regularly.
Answer:
yes it has symptoms but it doesn't fast. you can notice the symptoms when it is very serious. some of the symptoms are severe head aches, nosebleed, chest pain, etc... hope this help.
Explanation:
The shaft of the bone is called
Answer:
The shaft of the bone is called diaphysis.
Answer:
diaphysisThe diaphysis is the tubular shaft that runs between the proximal and distal ends of the bone.
Explanation:
Describe how to calculate the Rf value for a spot on a TLC plate.
Answer:
In thin-layer chromatography, the retention factor (Rf) is used to compare and help identify compounds. The Rf value of a compound is equal to the distance traveled by the compound divided by the distance traveled by the solvent front (both measured from the origin).
Explanation:
learned about it in school
what is meant by direct motor (pyramidal motor) system?
Each thick filament of a skeletal muscle fiber consists of
___________.
A. chains of myosin molecules
ules
B. six molecules coiled into helical structure
C. two actin protein strands coiled helically around each other
D. a rod- shaped structure with "heads' projecting from each end
Answer:
A. Chains of Myosin Molecules
Explanation:
The thick filaments are composed of myosin, and the thin filaments are predominantly actin, along with two other muscle proteins, tropomyosin and troponin.
"The protozoan that causes human malaria, Plasmodium falciparum, completes part of its life cycle inside human mature red blood cells (RBCs)... P. falciparum cells contain the most PfSET10 when the intraerythrocyte parasites are in an actively dividing life cycle phase. PfSET10 purified from parasites using antibodies specific for PfSET10 modifies histone H3."Q. The information in the passage suggests that PfSET10 has which function in var gene localization or expression? PfSET10:A. allows active and silent var genes to colocalize in the nucleus.B. marks the chromatin of the active var promoter for reexpression after mitosis.C. marks the chromatin of a silent var promoter to be expressed after mitosis.D. marks the chromatin of multiple var promoters for simultaneous expression.
The information regarding Plasmodium falciparum in the passage suggests that the function of PfSET10 in var gene localization or expression is to (B) mark the chromatin of the active var promoter for re-expression after mitosis.
Plasmodium falciparum is a single-celled parasitic organism that is responsible for causing malaria. Malaria is a disease that affects humans and other animals, causing fever, fatigue, and other symptoms. The parasite is transmitted through the bites of infected mosquitoes and enters the human body through the bloodstream.
In the passage, it is mentioned that P. falciparum completes part of its life cycle inside mature human red blood cells (RBCs). During this process, the cells contain the most PfSET10 when the intra-erythrocyte parasites are in an actively dividing life-cycle phase. The PfSET10 protein modifies histone H3 after being purified from parasites using antibodies specific to PfSET10.
In other words, PfSET10 has the function of marking the chromatin of the active var promoter for re-expression after mitosis, in var gene localization or expression. Therefore, the correct option is (B).
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Why did the doctor refer Mohammad Nassar for allergy testing?
Answer:
Explanation:
I think the doctor noticed how he was breathing in the last two days as it has gotten worse and tested him out. He can exercise, drink lots of water, eat healthier, have plenty of rest and don’t go near things that he is allergic to.
hope it helps
Why do surgical cases tend to have a higher relative weight (RW), and in turn payment, than medical cases?
Answer:
Surgical cases tend to have a higher relative weight because they are generally more resource extensive than medical cases
Explanation:
Surgical cases involves procedures where patients go under the knife, they are usually the preferred in extreme conditions or when a faster rate of healing is required. Hence, the reason they posses higher relative weight and cost than medical procedures.
Surgical procedures such as appendectomy, coronary artery bypass and several other surgery classes are often delicate processes which involves working directly on the body system. Hence, they are very delicate. The requirement for surgical treatment are often associated with conditions that require fast rate of healing or conditions which have to be treated urgently.These are reasons why surgical cases are weighed higher than medical cases and hence more cost due to the delicate, risky and healing rate of the process.
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Ordered: 130mg. Available 1gr/tablet. How many tablets should be given?
1.5 g this ensures the patient gets the right amount of perscription.
Answer:
2
Explanation:
I will assume that 'gr' stands for 'grain' and mot for 'gram' (sometimes used)
1 grain = 65 mg
130 mg/ 65 mg/tab = 2 tablets
studies indicate that if 100 patients are given a tricyclic antidepressant, 65 of them are likely to show improvement. if the same 100 patients are given an ssri, 65 of them will also respond, but not the same 65 that responded to the tricyclic antidepressant. what is a logical implication of this observation?
People with depression show it neurochemically in different ways, and as a result, they require different medications.
What is depression ?
A prolonged sense of melancholy and loss of interest are symptoms of depression, a mood illness.
While the clinical effectiveness of SSRIs is comparable to that of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), they have been found to be substantially better tolerated and have a far lower risk of toxicity in overdose. Different people are affected by depression in various ways. Speak with your doctor if you suspect you may be depressed. Medication and counselling are both effective treatments for depression. Self-help methods, peer support networks, and coping mechanisms can all be beneficial.
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Mrs. Brown, a 48-year-old woman, is living with a diagnosis of breast cancer. She has just come into the oncology clinic for her third round of chemotherapy. When asked how she is doing. Mrs. Brown starts speaking about how tired she is and how she is feeling burdened with keeping secrets from her daughter. Mrs. Brown has not told her daughter about her cancer diagnosis because she is afraid of how her daughter might react. Mrs. Brown says she is just barely holding on to things at this time, and she cannot take much more. She is also concerned about the chemotherapy and what she can expect, because the side effects are getting more intense.
Questions!!:
1. what should the nurse initially ask Mrs. Brown?
2.what should the nurse refrain from doing.
3.where does the experience lie for nurse guided by the human becoming theory?
4. How does human becoming theory guide the nurse in caring for their parents?
Is meconium staining in a newborn a normal finding and why ? 1-2
paragraphs. 4 sentences each.
Meconium staining in a newborn is not a normal finding. Meconium staining is a condition in which meconium, the baby's first stool, is released into the amniotic fluid before or during birth. When a baby's stool passes through the umbilical cord and into the placenta, meconium staining occurs.
Most babies who experience meconium staining are healthy, but it can be a sign of fetal distress in some cases. Meconium can be harmful to a baby because it can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS). MAS can cause breathing difficulties, pneumonia, and inflammation in the baby's lungs.
It can also cause the baby to be admitted to a neonatal intensive care unit (NICU).Therefore, meconium staining in a newborn is not a normal finding and requires careful attention to ensure that the baby is healthy.
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What is the acronym for "altered mental status"?
Answer: AMS
if you're in ophthalmology then its, AEIOU TIPS mnemonic for altered mental status
Put the following in the correct order of the process of inflammation:
Vasodilation → Adhesion → Emigration → Chemotaxis → Diapedesis → Phagocytosis.
Answer: Vasodilation, Adhesion, Emigration, Chemotaxis, Diapedesis. Phagocytosis.
The surgery was a success, but the client has gone into a myasthenic crisis on postoperative day 1. Which priority measure should the care team initiate immediately
Administering intravenous neostigmine, an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, is the priority measure to manage myasthenic crisis after surgery.
Myasthenic crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by severe weakness and respiratory muscle involvement in individuals with myasthenia gravis. In this scenario, the immediate priority measure for the care team is to administer intravenous neostigmine, which is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. Neostigmine increases the availability of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, at the neuromuscular junction, leading to improved muscle strength and respiratory function.
By blocking the breakdown of acetylcholine, neostigmine enhances neuromuscular transmission and helps reverse the weakness and respiratory compromise associated with myasthenic crisis. Timely administration of neostigmine is essential to stabilize the client's condition, prevent further deterioration, and ensure adequate ventilation.
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Using the CPT manual, select the correct modifier for the following case: Dr. Won, a radiologist, interpreted a cervical X-ray of the spine.
The modifier that should be reported is modifier _____.
Radiologists are medical doctors that specialize in diagnosing and treating injuries and diseases using medical imaging (radiology) procedures (exams/tests).
What is Radiologist?Such as X-rays, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), nuclear medicine, positron emission tomography (PET) and ultrasound.
Radiologists complete at least 13 years of training, including medical school, a four-year residency, and most often, an additional one- or two-year fellowship of very specialized training, such as radiation oncology, pediatric radiology, or interventional radiology.
They are certified by the American Board of Radiology, and they have exacting requirements for continuing medical education throughout their practicing years.
Therefore, Radiologists are medical doctors that specialize in diagnosing and treating injuries and diseases using medical imaging (radiology) procedures (exams/tests).
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Describe three (3) important nursing considerations when caring for a client with internal fetal monitoring.
When caring for a client with internal fetal monitoring, nurses need to be mindful of several important considerations. Firstly, it is crucial to monitor the client's vital signs regularly, including blood pressure and heart rate, as any changes in these indicators could indicate fetal distress.
Secondly, nurses should also pay close attention to the fetal monitor readings and interpret them accurately to ensure that the baby is tolerating labor well.
Lastly, it is important to ensure that the internal monitoring catheter is correctly positioned and secure to avoid any risk of infection or injury to the mother or baby. By carefully monitoring the client and interpreting the fetal monitor readings, nurses can help to ensure a safe and successful delivery.
The three important nursing considerations when caring for a client with internal fetal monitoring are: maintaining infection control, accurate interpretation of the fetal heart rate (FHR) and contractions, and providing patient education.
1. Maintaining infection control: Internal fetal monitoring requires the placement of an intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC) and a fetal scalp electrode (FSE). To minimize the risk of infection, nurses should ensure proper hand hygiene, aseptic techniques, and follow hospital protocols when inserting and managing these devices.
2. Accurate interpretation of the FHR and contractions: Nurses must be skilled in interpreting the FHR patterns and uterine contractions data provided by the internal fetal monitor. This involves continuous assessment of the baby's well-being, ensuring appropriate interventions are taken if necessary, and timely communication with the healthcare team.
3. Providing patient education: Nurses should educate the client and their family about the purpose, benefits, and risks associated with internal fetal monitoring. This helps alleviate anxiety and promotes a positive patient experience during labor and delivery.
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Which choice is a biotic factor of an ecosystem?
Responses
sun
sun
soil
soil
air
air
ants
by definition, drugs cannot come in liquid form. true or false