Based on the payback period criterion, we should accept a project if the payback period is less than some cu-toff value. Option A is the naswer.
In financial management, the payback period is an important investment appraisal criterion that is frequently used to evaluate various investment options. A project is deemed viable if the payback period criterion is met. As a result, when evaluating investment choices, the payback period is an essential element to consider.The payback period criterion for determining the suitability of a project is that the payback period of a project should be less than some cu-toff value.
The payback period is deemed appropriate if it is less than the cu-toff value, which varies depending on the nature and length of the project. So, if the payback period is less than the cu-toff value, a project should be accepted. Option A is the answer.
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Refrigerant 134a enters the evaporator of a refrigeration system operating at steady state at -8oC and a quality of 20% at a velocity of 5 m/s. At the exit, the refrigerant is a saturated vapor at -8oC. The evaporator flow channel has constant diameter of 1.7 cm. Determine the mass flow rate of the refrigerant, in kg/s, and the velocity at the exit, in m/s.
Refrigerant 134a enters the evaporator of a refrigeration system operating at a steady-state at -8oC and a quality of 20% at a velocity of 5 m/s. The mass flow rate of the refrigerant is 0.0594 kg/s and the velocity at the exit is 24.191 m/s.
From the information given, we can use the properties table of refrigerant-134a to determine the values of the specific volume of saturated liquid and vapor at -8° C.
\(\mathbf{v_f= 0.0007570 \ m^3/kg}\)\(\mathbf{v_g= 0.092438 \ m^3/kg}\)Now the specific volume of the refrigerant at the inlet of the evaporator can be computed by using the formula;
\(\mathbf{v_1=v_f +x(v_g-v_f)}\)
where;
x (quality of refrigerant) = 20% = 0.20\(\mathbf{v_1=0.0007570 +0.2(0.092438-0.0007570)}\)
\(\mathbf{v_1=0.0007570 +0.2(0.091681)}\)
\(\mathbf{v_1=0.0007570 +0.0183362}\)
v₁ = 0.0191 m³/kg
The density of the refrigerant at the inlet of the evaporator is:
\(\mathbf{\rho_1 = \dfrac{1}{v_1}}\)
\(\mathbf{\rho_1 = \dfrac{1}{0.0191} }\)
\(\mathbf{\rho_1={52.356 \ kg/m^3}}\)
However, the density of the refrigerant at the outlet of the evaporator is:
\(\mathbf{\rho_g = \dfrac{1}{v_g}}\)
\(\mathbf{\rho_g= \dfrac{1}{0.0092438} }\)
\(\mathbf{\rho_g={10.818 \ kg/m^3}}\)
Recall that:
the diameter of the evaporation flow channel = 1.7 cm = 0.017 mvelocity of refrigerant at the entrance of evaporation \(v_1\) = 5 m/sNow, the mass flow rate of the refrigerant can be computed by using the formula:
\(\mathbf{m = \rho_1 \Big[ \dfrac{\pi}{4} \times d^2 \Big] v_1 }\)
\(\mathbf{m = 52.356 \Big[ \dfrac{\pi}{4} \times (0.017)^2 \Big] 5 }\)
mass flow rate (m) = 0.0594 kg/s
Also, the velocity of the refrigerant at the exit of the evaporator is determined by using the formula:
\(\mathbf{m=\rho_2 \Big[ \dfrac{\pi}{4} \times d^2 \Big] v_2}\)
\(\mathbf{ 0.0594 kg/s = 10.818 \Big[ \dfrac{\pi}{4} \times (0.017)^2 \Big] v_2 }\)
\(\mathbf{v_2 = 24.191 \ m/s}\)
Therefore, we can conclude that the mass flow rate of the refrigerant is 0.0594 kg/s and the velocity at the exit is 24.191 m/s.
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pls discuss the concepts in which architectural forms/visuals correlate in the design process
Answer:
Visual connectivity refers to the tangible aspects of a space; extent to which a place can be viewed from other places. It is believed that the design properties of a spatial layout of an atrium leaves unobstructed views horizontally and vertically.
Explanation:
the brake lights are not working on the vehicle with the circuit shown. with the brake pedal pressed, the technician observes the dmm readings shown. which of these could be the cause?
On the vehicle with the circuit depicted, the brake lights are not functional. The technician examines the dmm readings while applying the brakes and notices that a short to ground might be the issue.
Motor vehicles include cars, trucks, motorcycles, vans, and other on- and off-road vehicles, as well as self-propelled agriculture and construction equipment. An airplane is a type of vehicle that can fly, has wings, and one or more engines. Despite the fact that it can also refer to other types of vehicles, such helicopters, the word "aircraft" is usually used to denote planes. Any piece of machinery used to transport goods, live animals, or both is referred to as a vehicle. Cars, trucks, buses, wagons, motorbikes, bicycles, boats, airplanes, and spacecraft are just a few examples of vehicles. Some dictionaries, meanwhile, underline that the phrase only refers to equipment that transports people, live cargo, or goods on land
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Portable electronic machines known as AEDs are used to analyze and treat life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. They are an automated and external type of a device known as what?
Note that it is correct to state that Portable electronic machines known as AEDs are used to analyze and treat life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. They are a type of defibrillator.
What is the explanation for the above response?Note that AED's are a kind of defibrillator that are created and designed to be used by laypeople or people of low medical skills instead of medical professionals.
This device can analyze the heart's rhythm and indicated if the patient will need to be shocked with electricity to restore balance to their hearts Rythm.
Thus, it is correct to state that AEDs are an automated and external type of a device known as defibrillator.
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need urgent help!!
Determine the point(s) P on the line e with equation x−6 = ( y−3)/4 = ( 1−z)/3
for which the line connecting P with Q(2, −6, 5) is perpendicular to e.
The quartiles divide a set of observations into four portions, each representing 25% of the observations, together with the minimum and maximum values of the data set. The interquartile range, a measurement of variation around the median, is calculated using quartiles.
How are quartiles determined?In order to quartile a set of data with n items (numbers), we choose the n/4th, n/2nd, and n/4th items. Interpolation between the adjacent items is used if indexes n/4, n/2, or 3n/4 are not integers.For instance, the first quartile Q1 of ordered data is the 25th item, the second quartile Q2 is the 50th item, and the third quartile Q3 is the 75th item. The fourth quartile Q4 would be the highest item of data, and the zeroth quartile Q0 would be the minimum item; however, these extreme quartiles are referred to as the minimum and maximum of a set, respectively.Calculation:Statistical file: {2, -6, 5}
Quartile Q1: -6
Quartile Q2: 2
Quartile Q3: 5.
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value : 10.00 points Determine the centroid of the area shown by direct integration. It is given that / = 2a. Y= mx Y =kx2
The centroid of an area can be determined by using the formulas for the x-coordinate and y-coordinate of the centroid. Thus, the centroid of the given area is (a^3/6, m*a^3/6).
How to determine the centroid of the area shown by direct integration?
The centroid of an area can be found by using the following formulas for the centroid's x and y coordinates:
x-coordinate of centroid = (1/A) * ∫xdy
y-coordinate of centroid = (1/A) * ∫ydx
where A is the area of the region, and the integrals are taken over the limits of the area.
Given the equations y = mx and y = kx^2, we can find the x-coordinate and y-coordinate of the centroid as follows:
x-coordinate of centroid = (1/2a) * ∫x*(kx^2) dx from x = 0 to x = a
x-coordinate of centroid = (1/2a) * (1/3) * ∫x^3 dx from x = 0 to x = a
x-coordinate of centroid = (1/2a) * (1/3) * ((a^4)/4)
x-coordinate of centroid = (1/6) * a^3
y-coordinate of centroid = (1/2a) * ∫(mx)*(kx^2) dx from x = 0 to x = a
y-coordinate of centroid = (1/2a) * (m/3) * ∫x^3 dx from x = 0 to x = a
y-coordinate of centroid = (1/2a) * (m/3) * ((a^4)/4)
y-coordinate of centroid = (m/6) * a^3
So, the centroid of the area is (a^3/6, m*a^3/6).
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Realiza las siguientes conversiones.
4 Hm2 a Dm2=_______________
21345 Cm2 a M2=_____________
0,592 Km2 a M2=______________
0,102 M2 a Cm2=______________
23911 Km2 a Hm2=_____________
Answer:
a) 4 hectómetros cuadrados equivalen a 400 decámetros cuadrados.
b) 21345 centímetros cuadrados equivalen a 2,135 metros cuadrados.
c) 0,592 kilómetros cuadrados equivalen a 592000 metros cuadrados.
d) 0,102 metros cuadrados equivalen a 1020 centímetros cuadrados.
e) 23911 kilómetros cuadrados equivalen 2391100 hectómetros cuadrados.
Explanation:
a) 4 hectómetros cuadrados a decámetros cuadrados:
Según las unidades de área y sus escalas utilizadas por el Sistema Internacional de Pesos y Medidas, un hectómetro cuadrado equivale a 100 decámetros cuadradps. Entonces, obtenemos el dato equivalente por la siguiente regla de tres simple:
\(x = 4\,Hm^{2}\times\frac{100\,Dm^{2}}{1\,Hm^{2}}\)
\(x = 400\,Dm^{2}\)
4 hectómetros cuadrados equivalen a 400 decámetros cuadrados.
b) 21345 centímetros cuadrados a metros cuadrados:
Según las unidades de área y sus escalas utilizadas por el Sistema Internacional de Pesos y Medidas, un metro cuadrado equivale a 10000 centímetros cuadrados. Entonces, obtenemos el dato equivalente por la siguiente regla de tres simple:
\(x = 21345\,cm^{2}\times \frac{1\,m^{2}}{10000\,cm^{2}}\)
\(x = 2,135\,m^{2}\)
21345 centímetros cuadrados equivalen a 2,135 metros cuadrados.
c) 0,592 kilómetros cuadrados a metros cuadrados:
Según las unidades de área y sus escalas utilizadas por el Sistema Internacional de Pesos y Medidas, un kilómetro cuadrado equivale a 1000000 metros cuadrados. Entonces, obtenemos el dato equivalente por la siguiente regla de tres simple:
\(x = 0,592\,km^{2}\times \frac{1000000\,m^{2}}{1\,km^{2}}\)
\(x = 592000\,m^{2}\)
0,592 kilómetros cuadrados equivalen a 592000 metros cuadrados.
d) 0,102 metros cuadrados a centímetros cuadrados:
Según las unidades de área y sus escalas utilizadas por el Sistema Internacional de Pesos y Medidas, un metro cuadrado equivale a 10000 centímetros cuadrados. Entonces, obtenemos el dato equivalente por la siguiente regla de tres simple:
\(x = 0,102\,m^{2}\times \frac{10000\,cm^{2}}{1\,m^{2}}\)
\(x = 1020\,cm^{2}\)
0,102 metros cuadrados equivalen a 1020 centímetros cuadrados.
e) 23911 kilómetros cuadrados a hectómetros cuadrados:
Según las unidades de área y sus escalas utilizadas por el Sistema Internacional de Pesos y Medidas, un kilómetro cuadrado equivale a 100 hectómetros cuadrados. Entonces, obtenemos el dato equivalente por la siguiente regla de tres simple:
\(x = 23911\,km^{2}\times \frac{100\,Hm^{2}}{1\,km^{2}}\)
\(x = 2391100\,Hm^{2}\)
23911 kilómetros cuadrados equivalen 2391100 hectómetros cuadrados.
URGENT NEED HELP BY AN HOUR
C++ ONLY
Given a line of text as input: (1) output the number of characters excluding the three characters commonly used for end-of-sentence punctuation( period, exclamation point, and question mark), (2) then output the number of end-of-sentence punctuation characters that were found. You can just do (1) to pass the first few test cases for partial credit, then do (2) for full credit.
Ex: If the input is "Listen, Sam! Calm down. Please.", the output is:
28
3
Ex: If the input is "What time is it? Time to get a watch! O.K., bye now.", the output is:
43
5
Using the knowledge in computational language in python it is possible to write a code that output the number of characters excluding the three characters commonly used for end-of-sentence punctuation.
Writting the code:import re
def check_sentence(text):
result = re.search(r"^[A-Z][A-Za-z\s]*[\.\?!]$", text)
return result != None
print(check_sentence("Is this is a sentence?")) # True
print(check_sentence("is this is a sentence?")) # False
print(check_sentence("Hello")) # False
print(check_sentence("1-2-3-GO!")) # False
print(check_sentence("A star is born.")) # True
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Were you surprised by the “pie data”? Is it true for you, your family, and your friends? Why or why not?
this is a coding question, and pie data is a misprint. It is actulaly big data.
Answer:
No because it is something to gain knowledge of peoples lives.
Answer: i was not suprised because, it is something all people need to know to gai knowledege about it.
A horizontal force P is applied to a 130 kN box resting on a 33 incline. The line of action of P passes through the center of gravity of the box. The box is 5m wide x 5m tall, and the coefficient of static friction between the box and the surface is u=0.15. Determine the smallest magnitude of the force P that will cause the box to slip or tip first. Specify what will happen first, slipping or tipping.
Answer:
SECTION LEARNING OBJECTIVES
By the end of this section, you will be able to do the following:
Distinguish between static friction and kinetic friction
Solve problems involving inclined planes
Section Key Terms
kinetic friction static friction
Static Friction and Kinetic Friction
Recall from the previous chapter that friction is a force that opposes motion, and is around us all the time. Friction allows us to move, which you have discovered if you have ever tried to walk on ice.
There are different types of friction—kinetic and static. Kinetic friction acts on an object in motion, while static friction acts on an object or system at rest. The maximum static friction is usually greater than the kinetic friction between the objects.
Imagine, for example, trying to slide a heavy crate across a concrete floor. You may push harder and harder on the crate and not move it at all. This means that the static friction responds to what you do—it increases to be equal to and in the opposite direction of your push. But if you finally push hard enough, the crate seems to slip suddenly and starts to move. Once in motion, it is easier to keep it in motion than it was to get it started because the kinetic friction force is less than the static friction force. If you were to add mass to the crate, (for example, by placing a box on top of it) you would need to push even harder to get it started and also to keep it moving. If, on the other hand, you oiled the concrete you would find it easier to get the crate started and keep it going.
Figure 5.33 shows how friction occurs at the interface between two objects. Magnifying these surfaces shows that they are rough on the microscopic level. So when you push to get an object moving (in this case, a crate), you must raise the object until it can skip along with just the tips of the surface hitting, break off the points, or do both. The harder the surfaces are pushed together (such as if another box is placed on the crate), the more force is needed to move them.
A garden hose attached with a nozzle is used to fill a 20-gallon bucket. The inner diameter of the hose is 1 inch and it reduces to 0.5 inch at the nozzle exit. If the average velocity in the hose is 8ft/s, determine
a) the volume and mass flow rates of water through the hose.
b) how long it will take to fill the bucket with water.
c) the average velocity of water at the nozzle exit.
Answer:
a). \($0.0436 \ ft^3/s$\) , \($2.72 \ lb \ m/s$\)
b). \($61.32 \ s$\)
c). 32. ft/s
Explanation:
a). The volume flow rate of the water is given by :
\($\dot V = uA$\)
\($=u \pi \left( \frac{d}{2}\right)^2$\)
\($=\frac{u \pi d^2}{4}$\)
\($=\frac{8\ ft/s \ \pi \left(\frac{1}{12}\right)^2}{4}$\)
\($= 0.0436 \ ft^3/s$\)
The mass flow rate of the water is given by :
\($\dot m = \rho \dot V$\)
\($= 62.4 \times 0.0436$\)
\($=2.72 \ lb \ m/s$\)
b). The time taken to fill the container is
\($\Delta t = \frac{V}{\dot V}$\)
\($=\frac{20 \ gal}{0.0436 \ ft^3/s}\left( \frac{1 \ ft^3}{7.4804 \ gal}\right)$\)
\($=61.32 \ s$\)
c). The average velocity at the nozzle is :
\($u=\frac{\dot V}{A}$\)
\($=\frac{\dot V}{\frac{\pi d^2}{4}}$\)
\($=\frac{0.0436}{\frac{\pi \left(\frac{0.5}{12}\right)^2}{4}}$\)
= 32. ft/s
6. She folded the clean towel and put in the closet.
A Mass Noun
C. Count Noun
B. Collective Noun
D. Possessive Noun
Can you answer this!!!
Answer:
C. Count Noun
Explanation:
what is engineering design process
Answer:
The engineering design process is a common series of steps that engineers use in creating functional products and processes
Using the Equilibrium Equation (F1d1 = F2d2), find F1, if d1 = 30ft, and F2 = 1050lb, and d2=22ft. Please state your answer in pounds and round to the nearest whole number.
Answer:
77 lb
Explanation:
Equation: F₁d₁ = F₂d₂
Knowns:
d₁ = 30 ft
F₂ = 105 lb
d₂ = 22 ft
Solving for F₁:
1). F₁•30 = 105•22
2). F₁•30=2,310
3).\(\frac{F_1\cdot 30}{30}=\frac{2310}{30}\)
4). F₁ = 77 lb
Which of the following is not a load limiting factor for cranes? a. use of jib booms b. low wind speeds c. out of level d. side loading
Answer:
Explanation:
b. low wind speeds is not a load limiting factor for cranes.
-Why is it said that using faulty PPE could be just as dangerous as using no PPE at all?
Answer:
Explanation:
"Safety helmet" redirects here. It is not to be confused with hard hat.
Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) agents wearing Level B hazmat suits
Personal protective equipment (PPE) is protective clothing, helmets, goggles, or other garments or equipment designed to protect the wearer's body from injury or infection. The hazards addressed by protective equipment include physical, electrical, heat, chemicals, biohazards, and airborne particulate matter. Protective equipment may be worn for job-related occupational safety and health purposes, as well as for sports and other recreational activities. "Protective clothing" is applied to traditional categories of clothing, and "protective gear" applies to items such as pads, guards, shields, or masks, and others. PPE suits can be similar in appearance to a cleanroom suit.
The purpose of personal protective equipment is to reduce employee exposure to hazards when engineering controls and administrative controls are not feasible or effective to reduce these risks to acceptable levels. PPE is needed when there are hazards present. PPE has the serious limitation that it does not eliminate the hazard at the source and may result in employees being exposed to the hazard if the equipment fails.[1]
Any item of PPE imposes a barrier between the wearer/user and the working environment. This can create additional strains on the wearer; impair their ability to carry out their work and create significant levels of discomfort. Any of these can discourage wearers from using PPE correctly, therefore placing them at risk of injury, ill-health or, under extreme circumstances, death. Good ergonomic design can help to minimise these barriers and can therefore help to ensure safe and healthy working conditions through the correct use of PPE.
Practices of occupational safety and health can use hazard controls and interventions to mitigate workplace hazards, which pose a threat to the safety and quality of life of workers. The hierarchy of hazard controls provides a policy framework which ranks the types of hazard controls in terms of absolute risk reduction. At the top of the hierarchy are elimination and substitution, which remove the hazard entirely or replace the hazard with a safer alternative. If elimination or substitution measures cannot apply, engineering controls and administrative controls, which seek to design safer mechanisms and coach safer human behavior, are implemented. Personal protective equipment ranks last on the hierarchy of controls, as the workers are regularly exposed to the hazard, with a barrier of protection. The hierarchy of controls is important in acknowledging that, while personal protective equipment has tremendous utility, it is not the desired mechanism of control in terms of worker safety.rly PPE such as body armor, boots and gloves focused on protecting the wearer's body from physical injury. The plague doctors of sixteenth-century Europe also wore protective uniforms consisting of a full-length gown, helmet, glass eye coverings, gloves and boots (see Plague doctor costume) to prevent contagion when dealing with plague victims. These were made of thick material which was then covered in wax to make it water-resistant. A mask with a beak-like structure which was filled with pleasant-smelling flowers, herbs and spices to prevent the spread of miasma, the prescientific belief of bad smells which spread disease through the air.[2] In more recent years, scientific personal protective equipment is generally believed to have begun with the cloth facemasks promoted by Wu Lien-teh in the 1910–11 Manchurian pneumonic plague outbreak, although many Western medics doubted the efficacy of facemasks in preventing the spread of disease.[3]
Types
Personal protective equipment can be categorized by the area of the body protected, by the types of hazard, and by the type of garment or accessory. A single item, for example boots, may provide multiple forms of protection: a steel toe cap and steel insoles for protection of the feet from crushing or puncture injuries, impervious rubber and lining for protection from water and chemicals, high reflectivity and heat resistance for protection from radiant heat, and high electrical resistivity for protection from electric shock. The protective attributes of each piece of equipment must be compared with the hazards expected to be found in the workplace. More breathable types of personal protective equipment may not lead to more contamination but do result in greater user satisfaction.[4]
The use of a faulty PPE could be just as dangerous as not using any PPE at all because the user is still exposed to potential hazards and harm.
What is PPE?PPE is an acronym for personal protective equipment and it can be defined as a terminology that is used to denote any piece of equipment which offer protection to different parts of the body while working in a potentially hazardous environment.
Some examples of personal protective equipment (PPE) used to protect the different parts of the body are:
RespiratorsFace maskFace shieldGlovesBootsHelmetAccording to OSHA, the use of a faulty PPE could be just as dangerous as not using any PPE at all because the user is offered little or no protection at all.
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What is the advantage of having the engine in the front of the car?
For starters, most vehicles are front-wheel drive (FWD), so it makes sense to have the engine over the wheels that need traction. This makes the vehicle much more stable, and also helps maintain a relatively balanced weight distribution when accelerating.
The use of a front motor offers two main advantages: better engine cooling and more uniform weight distribution.
What are the advantage of having an engine in the front of the car?
In this problem we have the case of a car, whose motor is in the front of the car. Now we proceed to summarize advantages of a front motor:
Engine cooling - Better cooling of the engine, especially in critical parts such as radiators. Less risk of overheating.Weight distribution - Offers a more uniform mass distribution in the vehicle, critical when car accelerates.To learn more more on cars: https://brainly.com/question/33357158
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1.4 A body with a mass of 2.5 tons moves on a horizontal surface. To maintain constant velocity, a force of 10 kN is used to drive the body. What is the coefficient of friction between the body and the horizontal surface?
Answer:
μ ≈ 0.408
Explanation:
The coefficient of friction is the ratio of friction force to normal force. The normal force is ...
F = mg = (2500 kg)(9.8 m/s²) = 24.5 kN
Then the coefficient of friction (μ) is ...
μ = (10 kN)/(24.5 kN) ≈ 0.408
Effectively,how many valence electrons are there in each atom within q silicon crystal?
Answer:
Four valence electrons
Silicon is having an atomic number of 14 which means It has two electrons in its first shell, eight electrons in the second shell, and four electrons in the third shell.
who designs each page or screen with which a user interacts?
Answer:
UI Design
Explanation:
Adam is conducting software testing by reviewing the source code of the application. what type of code testing is adam conducting?
Adam conducting static code analysis.
What is static code analysis?
Static program analysis stands for the analysis of computer programs performed without managing them, in contrast with dynamic program analysis, which stands for performed on programs during their execution.
Static analysis, also named static code analysis, exists as a method of computer program debugging that is accomplished by examining the code without executing the program. The process furnishes an understanding of the code structure and can assist ensure that the code adheres to industry standards.
By static code analysis, you can help developers discover errors before they compile or run the code and alert them about any other problems, such as a lack of inline documentation, bad coding standards, security issues, performance issues, and so on.
Hence, Adam conducting static code analysis.
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Explain biometric senser.
Biometric sensors are used to collect measurable biological characteristics from a human being, which can then be used in conjunction with biometric recognition algorithms to perform automated person identification.
Answer:
Biometric sensors are used to collect measurable biological characteristics (biometric signals) from a human being, which can then be used in conjunction with biometric recognition algorithms to perform automated person identification.
Problem 3 The exothermic reaction of stillbene (A) to form the economically important trospophene (B) and methane (C), i. E. , A B+C was carried out adiabatically and the following data recorded: X 0 0. 2 0. 4 0. 45 0. 5 0. 6 0. 8 0. 9 -ra (mol/dm3-min) 1. 0 1. 67 5. 0 5. 0 5. 0 5. 0 1. 25 0. 91 The entering molar flow rate of A was 300 mol/min. Answer and draw the Levenspiel plots for the followings. (a) What are the PFR and CSTR volumes necessary to achieve 40% conversion? (VPFR 72 dm3, VCSTR = 24 dm3) (b) Over what range of conversions would the CSTR and PFR reactor volumes be identical? (c) What is the maximum conversion that can be achieved in a 105-dm3 CSTR?
(d) What conversion can be achieved if a 72-dm3 PFR is followed in series by a 24-dm CSTR? (e) What conversion can be achieved if a 24-dm3 CSTR is followed in a series by a 72-dm² PFR?
According to the proposed statement about the exothermic reaction of stillbene, we answer the questions:
a) The PFR volume necessary to achieve 40% conversion is 72 dm³, and the CSTR volume necessary to achieve 40% conversion is 24 dm³. This can be determined by using the Levenspiel plot and finding the intersection of the conversion line at 40% with the PFR and CSTR curves.
(b) The CSTR and PFR reactor volumes would be identical over the range of conversions from approximately 0.2 to 0.45. This can be determined by finding the intersection of the PFR and CSTR curves on the Levenspiel plot.
(c) The maximum conversion that can be achieved in a 105-dm³ CSTR is approximately 0.8. This can be determined by finding the intersection of the CSTR curve with the vertical line at 105 dm³ on the Levenspiel plot.
(d) The conversion that can be achieved if a 72-dm³ PFR is followed in series by a 24-dm³ CSTR is approximately 0.7. This can be determined by finding the intersection of the PFR curve with the vertical line at 72 dm³, then finding the intersection of the CSTR curve with the vertical line at 24 dm³, and finally finding the intersection of these two points on the conversion axis.
(e) The conversion that can be achieved if a 24-dm³ CSTR is followed in series by a 72-dm³ PFR is approximately 0.85. This can be determined by finding the intersection of the CSTR curve with the vertical line at 24 dm³, then finding the intersection of the PFR curve with the vertical line at 72 dm³, and finally finding the intersection of these two points on the conversion axis.
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A tractor transmission converts linear energy into which of the following energy types ?
- potential energy
- kinetic energy
- rotational energy
- gravitational energy
estimate the average, maximum day and peak hours water demand for a community of 55000population.
calculate the design water capacity of the water distribution system and the water treatment plant assume average water demand of 170lcpd
The combined design water capacity of the water treatment facility and distribution system should be 19,221,000 litres per day.
What is the equation for the highest daily demand?Maximum Day Demand (MDD) x 1.80 W3-01.3 System Parameters = Peak Hour Demand (PHD). A. Average Day Demand (ADD) multiplied by 2.25 to get Maximum Day Demand (MDD).
Average water demand = Population x Average water demand per capita
Average water demand = 55,000 x 170 liters per capita per day
Average water demand = 9,350,000 liters per day
Maximum day water demand = 1.5 x 9,350,000 liters per day
Maximum day water demand = 14,025,000 liters per day
Peak hour water demand = 170 liters per capita per day x 55,000 people x 2 / 24 hours x 4 peak hours
Peak hour water demand = 9,067 liters per hour
Fire demand = 3 liters per second x 60 seconds per minute x 24 hours
Fire demand = 5,400 liters per day
Design water capacity = 14,025,000 liters per day + 5,400 liters per day + (0.2 x 9,350,000 liters per day)
Design water capacity = 19,221,000 liters per day
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A well-hydrated human body is made up of about _______ percent water.
Answer:
70%
Explanation:
Which of the following is a Dashboard Scoreboard for alignment of the business where information is constantly flowing through the Tiers so immediate actions can be taken?
Answer:
What is a dashboard?
A dashboard is an information management tool used to track KPIs, metrics, and key data points that are relevant to your business, department, or a specific process. Dashboards aggregate and visualize data from multiple sources, such as databases, locally hosted files, and web services. Dashboards allow you to monitor your business performance by displaying historical trends, actionable data, and real-time information.
Dashboards actually take their name from automobile dashboards and they are used in much the same way. For the sake of an analogy, let’s look at a car. There may be hundreds of processes that impact the performance of your vehicle if you look under the hood. Your car’s dashboard summarizes this using visualizations so you can focus on what matters most: safely driving your vehicle.
For businesses, there are hundreds of processes that impact your performance if you look ‘under the hood’, so to speak. And with a wealth of data made available these days, managing and extracting value from it can be difficult. Simplifying data analysis and distribution through tools like dashboards is a way to help businesses rev their engines and make smarter, better, faster data-driven decisions.
And a well designed dashboard levels up your approach to information management. Everyone in the business, regardless of role, has questions about your company performance, whether it be campaign performance, new wins, or churn rate. Dashboards bring everyone (and your metrics) together in one place to answer these questions.
Explanation:
What is the use of 2-channel relay module?
The 2 Channels Relay Module is a handy piece of equipment that may be used to manage high voltage, high current loads including motors, solenoids, lamps, and AC loads.
What does the relay module do?The primary purpose of a relay module is to turn on and off electrical systems and equipment. Moreover, it isolates the control circuit from the object or system that it is controlling.
What function does the relay module in Arduino serve?Relay modules function as electrical switches that can be turned on or off to control whether current flows through them or not. Low voltages like 3.3V, as in the case of the ESP32, ESP8266, etc., or 5V, as in the case of your Arduino, can be used to control them.
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what is the rts/cts protocol designed to reduce or prevent?
a. negative acknowledgements
b. CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) errors
c. collisions
d. handshakes
The RTS/CTS (Request-to-Send/Clear-to-Send) protocol is designed to prevent collisions in wireless communication. Collisions occur when two or more devices try to transmit data at the same time, resulting in data corruption or loss.
The RTS/CTS protocol is used to avoid collisions by allowing a device to check if the wireless medium is free before transmitting. When a device wants to transmit data, it sends an RTS frame to the receiving device, requesting permission to transmit. The receiving device then responds with a CTS frame, indicating that it is ready to receive the data. This process ensures that only one device transmits at a time, preventing collisions and improving the overall efficiency of the wireless network.
While the RTS/CTS protocol does involve handshakes between devices, it is primarily designed to prevent collisions rather than improve handshaking. It also does not directly address negative acknowledgements or CRC errors. Instead, it focuses on avoiding collisions, which can be a significant issue in wireless networks with multiple devices competing for the same channel. By implementing the RTS/CTS protocol, wireless networks can reduce collisions, improve data transmission rates, and minimize the potential for data loss or corruption.
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Consider a 5 m long, air-filled section of a coaxial transmission line, given that the radius of the inner conductor is 10 cm and the inner radius of the outer conductor is 20 cm? If the current is 100 mA, how much magnetic energy is strored in the air medium between the conductors. This problem is similar to Example 2 in the Time Varying Fields folder in the Example Bank.
a) 200.89 nj
b) 3.47 nj
c) 10.45nj
d) 80.9nj
Answer: b) 3.47 nj
Explanation:
Given that;
length l = 5m
radius of inner conductor r = 10cm = 0.1m
radius of outer conductor D = 20cm = 0.2m
current I = 100A = 100×10⁻³ = 0.1
medium between conductor in air u₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷
Energy in a coaxial cable transmission line is
w = u₀ /2π I² en(b/a)
we substitute
L = 4π × 10⁻⁷ /4π ×10⁻²× 5 en (20/10)
L =3.4657 × 10⁻⁹ J
L = 3.4657 nJ ≈ 3.47 nJ