At what ages is the facial skeleton usually mature enough for secondary orthognathic surgery?

Answers

Answer 1

Facial skeleton is mature for secondary  at age 18 for females and 21 for males, after growth completion.

The facial skeleton is typically considered mature enough for secondary orthognathic surgery once growth is completed, which is typically around the age of 18 for females and 21 for males.

At this point, the bones of the face have reached their final size and shape, making it possible to perform orthognathic surgery to correct any remaining facial abnormalities.

However, it's important to note that each patient's individual growth and development may vary, and some may reach skeletal maturity earlier or later than the average age range.

Additionally, the timing of secondary orthognathic surgery may also depend on the specific surgical goals and treatment plan for each patient, which should be evaluated by a qualified orthodontic and surgical team.

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Related Questions

This week, you are learning more about the heart and the circulatory system. After reading your chapter, answer the following prompts.

• List three of the effects that aging has on the circulatory system.

• Which one do you feel has the most significant impact on the system and why?

• Which one do you feel has the least impact on the system and why?

Answers

The arteries would be stiffened as you age.

The stiffening of the arties is the most significant impact of aging

The accumulation of plaque in blood vessels may have the least impact on the system

What is aging?

The least detrimental effect on the body may be caused by the buildup of plaque in blood vessels because it frequently responds well to medicines and lifestyle changes and may not present symptoms until later in life.

It can, however, raise the risk of significant health issues like heart attacks and strokes if left untreated.

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Why are infant feeding problems more common in extremely low birthweight and very low birthweight infants

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Infant feeding problems are more common in extremely low birthweight (ELBW) and very low birthweight (VLBW) infants Because they may have immature gastrointestinal systems and delays in neurodevelopment,

ELBW infants weigh less than 1000 grams, while VLBW infants weigh between 1000 and 1500 grams at birth, these infants often face difficulties in coordinating sucking, swallowing, and breathing during feeding. Additionally, they may have immature gastrointestinal systems, which can result in poor digestion and absorption of nutrients. Furthermore, ELBW and VLBW infants are at a higher risk of developing medical complications, such as necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) and gastroesophageal reflux (GER), which can further exacerbate feeding problems. These infants also frequently require prolonged hospital stays and are often exposed to invasive medical procedures, potentially leading to oral aversion and difficulties in transitioning to oral feeding.

Premature infants with ELBW and VLBW may also experience delays in neurodevelopment, which can contribute to feeding difficulties. Lastly, these infants often have a lower reserve of energy and nutrients, making it crucial for them to receive adequate nutrition for proper growth and development. This puts increased pressure on caregivers and healthcare providers to ensure these infants are fed appropriately and receive the necessary support to overcome feeding challenges. So therefore immature gastrointestinal systems and delays in neurodevelopment are more common infant feeding problems.

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What effect does parathyroid hormones have on bones?

Answers

Answer:

Parathyroid hormone regulates serum calcium through its effects on bone, kidney, and the intestine: In bone, PTH enhances the release of calcium from the large reservoir contained in the bones. Bone resorption is the normal destruction of bone by osteoclasts, which are indirectly stimulated by PTH.

Parathyroid hormones have bones in them so they expand and open to bigger bones causing problems

A nurse is preparing a medication that is supplied in ounces but the prescription is in milliliters. How many milliliters equal 1 ounce

Answers

To convert ounces to milliliters, 1 ounce is equal to approximately 29.5735 milliliters. Therefore, when preparing a medication supplied in ounces but prescribed in milliliters, the nurse can use the conversion factor of 29.5735 milliliters per ounce to accurately determine the volume in milliliters.

To determine the number of milliliters equivalent to 1 ounce, it is important to note that 1 ounce is a unit of volume in the imperial system, commonly used in the United States, while milliliters are a unit of volume in the metric system, widely used in healthcare settings.

The conversion factor between ounces and milliliters is as follows: 1 ounce is equal to approximately 29.5735 milliliters. This conversion factor is based on the fact that 1 ounce is equivalent to 1/32 of a U.S. gallon, and 1 U.S. gallon is equal to 128 fluid ounces, which in turn is equivalent to approximately 3785.41 milliliters.

Therefore, when preparing a medication supplied in ounces but prescribed in milliliters, the nurse can use the conversion factor of 29.5735 milliliters per ounce to convert the given amount in ounces to the corresponding volume in milliliters. This ensures accurate and precise medication administration based on the prescribed dosage in milliliters.

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The client states that prior to exams at school, the client has abdominal cramping and diarrhea. what does the nurse suspect is the trigger for these signs and symptoms?

Answers

The nurse should suspect a functional diarrhea disorder as a trigger for the symptoms.

What is functional diarrhea disorder?

Functional diarrhea (FD), one of the functional gastrointestinal disorders, is characterized by chronic or recurrent diarrhea not explained by structural or biochemical abnormalities.

The treatment of Functional diarrhea (FD) is intimately associated with establishing the correct diagnosis.

Thus, from the information given we can conclude that the client is describing functional diarrhea disorder where the diarrhea occurs as a result of stress or anxiety.

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QUESTION 2 What relationship exists between the method presented here and the FRAS assay
O general positive correlation
O general negative correlation
O no correlation
O strong negative correlation​

Answers

General positive correlation

A nurse is teaching a client who has type one diabetes mellitus about the peak time of neutral protamine hagedorn (MPH) inulin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
1. NPH insulin peaks in 1-5 hours
Regular insulin has an onset of 30 to 60 min, peaks in 1 to 5 hr, and lasts up to 10 hr.
2. NPH insulin is peakless
Insulin glargine has an onset of 70 min, it is peakless, and it has a duration of 24 hr
3. NPH insulin peaks in 6-14 hours
NPH insulin has an onset of 60 to 120 min, peaks in 6 to 14 hr, and has a duration of 16 to 24 hr.
4. Insulin peaks in 12-24 hours
Insulin detemir has a slow onset, peaks between 12 and 24 hr, and has a duration that varies with the dosage.

Answers

peaks in 6 to 14 hr, and has a duration of 16 to 24 hr.

4. Insulin peaks in 12-24 hours

Insulin detemir has a slow onset, peaks between 12 and 24 hr, and has a duration that varies with the dosage.

1. NPH insulin peaks in 1-5 hours

Regular insulin has an onset of 30 to 60 min, peaks in 1 to 5 hr, and lasts up to 10 hr.

2. NPH insulin is peakless

Insulin glargine has an onset of 70 min, it is peakless, and it has a duration of 24 hr

*3. NPH insulin peaks in 6-14 hours*

*NPH insulin has an onset of 60 to 120 min, peaks in 6 to 14 hr, and has a duration of 16 to 24 hr.*

4. Insulin peaks in 12-24 hours

Insulin detemir has a slow onset, peaks between 12 and 24 hr, and has a duration that varies with the dosage.

hope this helps good luck!!

What are ethical dilemmas?

Answers

Answer: An ethical dilemma is a conflict between alternatives where choosing any of them will compromise some ethical principle and lead to an ethical violation.

Explanation:

Which of the following vitamins is not added to grains during enrichment?riboflavinVitamin B6thiaminniacin

Answers

The following vitamins is not added to grains during enrichment is b. Vitamin B6

Vitamin B6 is not added to grains during the enrichment process. Grain enrichment is a process where certain vitamins and minerals are added back to refined grains after they have been lost during milling. This is done to improve their nutritional value and maintain a balanced diet. The main vitamins that are typically added during the enrichment process are riboflavin, thiamin, and niacin, all of which belong to the B-vitamin family.

Riboflavin (B2) plays a key role in energy production, thiamin (B1) is important for nerve function and energy metabolism, and niacin (B3) aids in digestion and nervous system function. Although Vitamin B6 is also essential for proper bodily function, including brain development and the production of hormones, it is not one of the standard vitamins added to grains during the enrichment process. So therefore the correct answer is b. vitamin B6 isnot added to grains during enrichment.

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Tumors that originate within the central nervous system (CNS) are due to __________.
a lack of centrioles within neuronal cell bodies
uncontrolled division of neurons in adults
uncontrolled divisions of neuroglia
all of the above

Answers

Tumors that originate within the central nervous system (CNS) are due to uncontrolled divisions of neuroglia.

A neoplasm is a type of abnormal and excessive tissue growth. Neoplasia refers to the process of forming or producing a neoplasm. A neoplasm's growth is uncoordinated with that of the normal surrounding tissue, and it continues to grow abnormally even after the original trigger is removed. When this abnormal growth forms a mass, it is referred to as a tumour.

Uterine fibroids, osteophytes, and melanocytic nevi are examples of benign tumours (skin moles). They are restricted and localised and do not develop into cancer. Carcinoma in situ is one type of potentially malignant neoplasm. They are localised, do not invade and destroy, but may develop into cancer over time.

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3. Which abbreviation stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube?​

Answers

The abbreviation EDTA stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube.

What is EDTA?

EDTA is a chelating agent that binds to calcium ions, which prevents the blood from clotting. This allows the blood to be collected and transported without clotting, which is important for many laboratory tests.

EDTA is the most common type of blood collection tube used in clinical laboratories. It is used to collect blood for a variety of tests, including complete blood counts, chemistry tests, and blood cultures.

EDTA blood collection tubes are typically lavender in color. They are labeled with the abbreviation "EDTA" and the volume of blood that is required for the test.

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The antibiotic bacitracin binds to bactoprenol after it inserts a
peptidoglycan monomer into the growing bacterial cell wall.

Explain how this can lead to the death of that bacterium

Answers

Bactoprenol is indeed a peptidoglycan transporters that cycles monomers and places them somewhere at cell wall's growth point.

As bacitracin binds to this bactoprenol, the orientation of the peptidoglycan to the cell membrane fluidizes, allowing potassium ions to move from the protoplasts.

As a result of interfering with cell wall production and changing membrane potential, the bacterial cell is lysed.

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Migraine headaches are most closely linked with an: Group of answer choices undersupply of serotonin. undersupply of acetylcholine. oversupply of GABA. oversupply of glutamate.

Answers

Answer:

Serotonin is thought to be the underlying neurotransmitter involved in migraine, based on a lower than normal level of serotonin (5-HT) which increases during attacks.

Public health achievements over the past 100 years, are credited with changing the major causes of death from ________ to ________.

Answers

Answer:

Infectious disease ; chronic disease

Explanation:

Infectious diseases are diseases that can be passed from one person to another. They are usually caused by pathogenic microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi, virus and protozoa. This was deadly in the past and could be due to poor hygienic conditions. Various treatment by health professionals have ensured that there is a decline in the mortality rate as a result of this type of disease.

Chronic disease such as diabetes, hypertension etc which is the type that involves a long term treatment plan and efficient management could last up to several years is now the major cause of death presently.

Where in the gastrointestinal track do drugs delivered orally have their highest absorption?

Answers

Answer: The small intestine

Explanation:

during a nonstress test, when monitoring the fetal heart rate, the nurse notes that when the expectant mother reports fetal movement, the heart rate increases 15 beats or more above the baseline. this occurs about 4 or 5 times during the testing period. the nurse interprets this as:

Answers

The nurse would interpret these findings as a normal, reassuring result of the nonstress test.

When a fetal heart rate increases by 15 beats or more above the baseline in response to fetal movement, it is known as an "acceleration" and is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being. During a nonstress test, the goal is to see at least two accelerations in a 20-minute period. However, if the nurse observed 4 or 5 accelerations during the testing period, this would indicate a very reassuring result and suggest that the fetus is in good condition. Therefore, the nurse would interpret these findings as a normal, reassuring result of the nonstress test.

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TRUE/FALSE. Patients should be screened for contraindications and precautions every time they receive a dose of vaccine.

Answers

True. Patients should be screened for contraindications and precautions every time they receive a dose of vaccine.

This is because the patient's health status may have changed since their last vaccination, and new information about the vaccine's safety and effectiveness may have become available. Additionally, some vaccines have specific contraindications or precautions that must be taken into account when administering them, such as allergies to vaccine components or certain medical conditions that could increase the risk of an adverse reaction.

Screening for contraindications and precautions is typically done through a standardized questionnaire or checklist, which can help ensure that patients receive the appropriate vaccines and that any potential risks are identified and addressed

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Your patient needs to have their vitals checked before leaving the facility. The policy is that only nurses can perform this activity, and the two on shift today
are currently busy doing paperwork. Your patient has been in the clinic for several hours and is anxious to leave.

Answers

The nurses should stop the doing the paperwork and go attend to those patient if it seems forever finishing the paper and then come back to it later. it would be very annoying to have to wait a long time before the nurses attend to you and that might end up pushing those patents away from that hospital because then those patients would think they don't attend to them fast and may even end up causing a bad name for the hospitals.

What should be included in the change of shift report?

It should have the patient's medical record, current medication, allergies, pain levels and pain regime plan, and discharge instructions.

Providing these sorts of pieces about your patient in your end of shift report decreases the risk of an oncoming nurse putting the patient in danger.

Thus, this could be the answer.

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Whole milk has 3.25% milk fat in it. Knowing that you just had 10 grams of milk fat, how many grams of milk did you drink?

Answers

Answer:

307.69 grams

Explanation:

hope it's useful to you

Whole milk has 3.25 % milk fat in it. That means 100 grams has 3.25 % of milk fat. so,10 grams of milk has 0.325 milk fat in it.

What is milk fat?

Milk is important for the growth of the body. It plays for the growth and development of the body. 100 grams of milk fat has 3.25 % milk fat in it.

100 grams = 3.25 % of milk fat.

10 grams = x

x = 10 * 3.25 / 100

 =0.325  %

Milk contains lots of proteins and minerals. It is essential for the growth of the body. It also contains important minerals such as calcium and proteins.

Therefore, Whole milk has 3.25 % milk fat in it. That means 100 grams has 3.25 % of milk fat. so,10 grams of milk has 0.325 milk fat in it.

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Okay guys please 1-10

Okay guys please 1-10

Answers

1-10 = -9



goolduck !!


have a good day <3
10/10

Wish I could have the skills to do that :(

Automated sentence building is a means of electronic transcription. T/F?

Answers

The given statement, "Automated sentence building is a means of electronic transcription" is a false statement because  automated sentence building is a process of generating sentences automatically using computer algorithms, while electronic transcription is the conversion of spoken language into written text using electronic devices or software.

However, Automated sentence building is a method used for automatic summarization, which involves reducing the input text into a shortened version consisting of only the main points and ideas. It is often used in Natural Language Processing (NLP) and other related fields to create summaries of long articles or other textual content. In essence, the purpose of automated sentence building is to make it easier for humans to understand and analyze large amounts of information by breaking it down into its most important elements.

The electronic transcription method is used for the conversion of speech into written or electronic text using software applications. It is often used in a wide range of industries, including legal, medical, and entertainment, as well as for creating subtitles for videos and other multimedia content.

Therefore, the given statement is false since automated sentence building and electronic transcription are two distinct concepts used in different fields.

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Which Of The Following Syringes Should Be Used To Measure 0.72 ML?

A:5 ml syringe
B:tuberculin syringe
C:3 ml syringe
D:insulin syringe

Answers

using the tuberculin syringe after rounding the number 0.72 to just 0.7

A tuberculin syringe should be used to measure 0.72 ML. The correct option is B.

What is tuberculin syringe?

Tuberculin syringes are devices that include a needle to measure and deliver a specific amount of liquid. They are used to oversee medicines, vaccines, or other substances subcutaneously or intradermally.

A tuberculin syringe should be used to measure 0.72 ML.

Thus, the correct option is B.

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a dog has learned to come to the kitchen whenever he hears the can opener operating. what is the unconditioned response? A coming to the kitchen B. sound of can opener and C food.​

Answers

In classical conditioning, the unconditioned response (UCR) is the natural or automatic response to an unconditioned stimulus (UCS). In this scenario, the unconditioned response would be: C - food

What is stimulus?

The unconditioned response is the natural or automatic response to the unconditioned stimulus, which is the food in this case. The dog has learned to associate the sound of the can opener (conditioned stimulus) with the delivery of food (unconditioned stimulus), which results in the dog's natural response of coming to the kitchen to receive the food (unconditioned response).

Over time, the sound of the can opener may become a conditioned stimulus, which elicits a conditioned response of coming to the kitchen, even in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus of food.

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For a dog learning to come to the kitchen whenever he hears the can opener operating, the unconditioned response is C - food.

Why do dogs conform to conditioned learning?

Dogs, like many other animals, are capable of learning through conditioning, which involves forming associations between stimuli and responses. This is because the dog's natural response to food is to feel hungry and be attracted to it, and this response occurs without any prior learning or conditioning.

The sound of the can opener and coming to the kitchen are conditioned responses, which means they have been learned through association with the unconditioned stimulus (food) over time.

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If an active duty service member is injured on the job, who would you bill?

Answers

Answer:

The general rule is that the Army will not compensate Soldiers for an injury or illness sustained outside of military service. For compensation, a Soldier's medical condition must have been incurred or aggravated in the line of duty and in a duty status authorized by federal law and Army Regulation.

Explanation:

Therefore, if you are eligible for benefits from the Department of Veterans Affairs, and you are disabled because of an injury incurred or aggravated during military service, you will be able to collect benefits from the Department. Benefits can also be sought for contraction or aggravation of a disease.

Your benefits are the same as those of an active duty service member if you were on active duty for more than 30 days when injured . You can be eligible for Line of Duty care if you have been on active duty for less than 30 days at the time of your injury.

What happens if a military member is hurt?As a general rule, the Army will not pay Soldiers for an illness or injury contracted outside of active duty. A Soldier's medical condition must have been acquired or exacerbated in the line of duty and while performing a duty status permitted by federal legislation and Army Regulation in order for compensation to be grantedTraumatic Injury Protection Program for Service members under Group Life Insurance: In the event that you suffer a qualifying loss as a result of a traumatic injury, you may be eligible for compensation up to $100,000.

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the nurse is caring for a female patient who has an exacerbation of lupus erythematosus. what does the nurse understand is the reason that females tend to develop autoimmune disorders more frequently than men?

Answers

Autoimmune disorders are conditions in which the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own healthy tissues. There are many autoimmune disorders, and Lupus Erythematosus is one of them. It is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs and tissues in the body. Women tend to develop autoimmune disorders more frequently than men, and there are several reasons for this.

Firstly, hormones play a significant role in the development of autoimmune disorders. Estrogen, for instance, can stimulate the immune system, which can lead to an increased risk of developing autoimmune disorders. Secondly, genetics also play a role in the development of autoimmune disorders. Certain genes can make individuals more susceptible to autoimmune disorders, and some of these genes are more prevalent in female.

Lastly, environmental factors such as infections, stress, and exposure to chemicals can also contribute to the development of autoimmune disorders. In summary, the nurse understands that several factors contribute to the higher prevalence of autoimmune disorders in women, including hormonal, genetic, and environmental factors.

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When henrietta lacks’ tumor was harvested and distributed, what relevant recommendations of the belmont report were followed or not followed?.

Answers

Radium therapy was used to treat Henrietta Lacks' tumor. This was the most effective medical treatment at the time for this terrible sickness.

What sets Henrietta Lacks cells unique from others?

The first and, for a while, the only human cell line capable of limitless reproduction was developed as a result of Henrietta Lacks' cell donation.

Why did doctors stop giving Henrietta blood transfusions?

Henrietta required regular blood transfusions since by the time the tumor had grown throughout her body, her kidneys had failed. One of the doctors noted that because Henrietta needed so many transfusions, they should all be put on hold "until her deficit with the blood bank was made up."

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Kevin is 11 years old with no chronic medical conditions who comes to your pharmacy on September 30 for his flu shot. He completed the primary series of DTaP, IPV, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and Hib, and had a physician-diagnosed case of chickenpox at 2 years of age. Which of the following would also be appropriate to recommend for Kevin today?
Tdap, HPV, MenACWY, MMR

Answers

Kevin is 11 years old and has already completed the series of DTaP, IPV, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and Hib vaccine and has had chicken pox at the age of 2. The vaccines which will be now recommended to him are Tdap, HPV, MenACWY and MMR.

The correct option is option a,

Tdap vaccine basically can prevent against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis. Tetanus results in painful stiffening of the muscles in the body. Diphtheria leads to heart failure, difficulty in breathing, and even paralysis, or sometimes death. Pertussis is also known as the whooping cough.

Human papillomavirus vaccines are the vaccines which prevent infection by some particular types of the human papillomavirus. The MenACWY vaccine is basically given through a single injection in the upper arm and basically protects against four different strains of meningococcal bacteria The MMR vaccine is a vaccine which is given against measles, mumps, and rubella, abbreviated as MMR.

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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is

"Kevin is 11 years old with no chronic medical conditions who comes to your pharmacy on September 30 for his flu shot. He completed the primary series of DTaP, IPV, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and Hib, and had a physician-diagnosed case of chickenpox at 2 years of age. Which of the following would also be appropriate to recommend for Kevin today?

a. Tdap, HPV, MenACWY, MMR

b. DTaP, HPV, PCV13, MMR

c. Tdap, HPV, MenACWY, PCV13

d. HPV, MenACWY, PCV13, MMR"--

What are the physical and chemical properties for the transdermal route drugs ?

Answers

To be delivered transdermally, an ideal drug should have the following properties: low molecular weight (less than 1000 Da), affinity for lipophilic and hydrophilic phases, low melting point, have a short half-life and non-irritating

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describe the process of communication between two neurons at the synaptic cleft. how do SSRI’s impact this communication? Use the following words in the explanation, Action potential, Axon terminal, Dendrite, Neurotransmitter, receptor, synapse, vesicles, calcium ions

Answers

Action potential Axsen terminal dendrite neurotransmitter receptors synapse vesicles and calcium ions are the answer

2. Which of the following features make
online pharmacies an appealing option to
patients?
O A. Avoiding sales tax
B. Being able to develop a personal
relationship with the pharmacist
O C. Privacy and convenience
D. Wider selection of brand-name
medications to choose from

Answers

The online pharmacy store offers   Privacy and convenience. Option C

What is an online pharmacy store?

We know that an online pharmacy store is the kind of pharmacy store where there is no physical contact between the pharmacist and the person that wants to purchase the drugs. In other words, the person that is buying the drugs only needs to meet with the store electronically.

This would offer a good convenience and privacy to the kind of patients that does not want to be seen or known due to the peculiarity of the kind of drugs that they are buying.

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label each graph with the correct expression , im extremely stuck genome-wide crispr screens of t cell exhaustion identify chromatin remodeling factors that limit t cell persistence there is suposed to be a fourth answer? what is itv. The intestinal enzymes (choose the correct ones) a. Are secreted into the lumen b. Are embedded on the luminal membrane c. Digest within luminal cells not in the lumen d. Digest carbohydrates e. Di Find the area under the standard normal distribution curve between z=0 and z=0.31 What is the answer for this one The following table represents the highest educational attainment of all adult residents in a certain town. If an adult is chosen randomly from the town, what is the probability that they have a high school degree or some college, but have no college degree? Round your answer to the nearest thousandth. The freedom of speech clause detailed the First Amendment prohibits the government from interfering with the right of the people to express themselves verbally AND IN PRINT.True or False identify the true statements regarding the graph. the total population and the population of heterozygotes have the same mean value of the trait. the distributions that represent the two homozygous populations have the same standard deviation. the distribution that represents the bb homozygous individuals has a greater mean value of the trait than the heterozygous individuals. the distribution of homozygous dominant individuals has a greater sample size than the distribution of the total population. FILL THE BLANK. according to the psychodynamic model, an individual with anxiety is likely repressing their ____ impulses Building a Strong Relationship with the Business.Select one of the four building blocks (competence, credibility, interpersonal interaction, trust) and describe why you believe it is vitally important to the relationship between IT and Business teams.Support your position by discussing at least one strengthening criteria for that building block, perhaps even an example from your own experiences. In Wittig Reaction, the reaction will be run using _____ as solvent. _______ is added to the residue to leach out your product. Your crude product is recrystallized from _______a. Hexanesb. Methanolc. Methanol "For our subsistence here, the means hitherto hath been the yearly access of newcomers, who have supplied all our wants, for Cattle, and the fruits of our la[b]ours, as board, pale, smiths work etc: If this should fail, then we have other means which may supply us, as fish, viz: Cod, bass and herring, for which no place in the world exceeds us..Our civil Government is mixed: the freemen choose the magistrates every year...and at 4 courts in the year 3 out of each town (there being 8 in all) do assist the magistrates in making laws, imposing taxes, and disposing of lands: Our Churches are governed by Pastors, Teachers ruling Elders and Deacons, yet the power lies in the whole Congregation and not in the Presbytery [not in a larger council of churches] further than for order and precedence. For the natives, they are near all dead of the smallpox, so the Lord hath cleared our title to what we possess." -Letter written in Boston from John Winthrop to Sir Nathaniel Rich Mounting Conflict with Native Americans by John Winthrop (05/22/1634) Which statement best describes the colonists attitude towards Native Americans? A) They felt the land belonged to both of societies and that they needed to work out land treaties. B) They were worried about the spread of disease among Natives and if it could spread to their settlements. C) Due to their Christian beliefs, they had compassion on the Natives and showed respect for their traditions. D) They felt their religion was superior and that God had foreordained them to control the land they settled. The _____ is the core of the business side of the dental practice., It's not unusual for students who see this demonstration to claim that the "red stuff" is rust (meaning the compound iron III oxide). Brainstorm some empirical data (information that you could collect in the lab) that would prove or disprove the claim that the "red stuff" is rust. What are the functions and duties of a commission agent? what water is removed from the body when a person drinks a lot is taken what does desponible mean what happens during the first quarter moon what does it mean when we say two things are correlated, and what are positive and negative correlations.(Ap Psychology) are there any discrepancies when you assess your macronutrient intake by % of calories versus gram weights? how do you explain these discrepancies?