Arrange the following events in the proper order in which they occur during meiosis I.
1 = Separation of homologous chromosomes
2 = Synapsis
3 = Crossing-over
4 = Independent assortment

Answers

Answer 1

The events of meiosis I should occur in the following order: 2, 3, 4, 1. The initial phase of meiosis I, known as synaptogenesis, is when homologous chromosomes link together to generate tetrads.

The exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes, known as crossing-over, comes next. The random alignment of the paternal and maternal chromosomes on the metaphase plate is known as independent assortment.

The homologous chromosomes finally separate and travel to the opposing poles, a process known as homologous chromosomal separation.

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Related Questions

Two hundred students were surveyed to find out what color to use for the school uniform. The results of the survey are shown in the following graph. What percent of students chose the color red? A. 12% B. 8% C. 32% D. 40%

Answers

Need more information on this

All animals areA) polytrophs.B) autotrophs.C) biotrophs.D) heterotrophs.

Answers

A heterotroph is an organism that consumes other organisms in a food chain.

So the answer is D) heterotrophs.

Plants on the other hand, are autotrophs, they are able to produce energy from solar energy, so they are the first one on the food chain.

could natural selection, at any level of organiza- tion, ever cause the extinction of a population or species?

Answers

Natural selection can cause the extinction of a population or species.

Natural selection is the process by which organisms with traits that are better suited to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce. Over time, this leads to the evolution of a species and the adaptation of populations to their environments.

However, natural selection can also lead to the extinction of a population or species if the environment changes in such a way that the traits that were once advantageous become disadvantageous. For example, if a new predator is introduced into an ecosystem, the population of prey species that lacked the necessary adaptations to escape the predator may decline and eventually become extinct.

Another example is the case of inbreeding depression, where populations that are too small and genetically isolated can experience a decline in fitness and an increased risk of extinction.

This can happen when populations are reduced to small sizes due to habitat loss, fragmentation, or other factors, and as a result, they become more susceptible to genetic drift, reduced heterozygosity, and the expression of deleterious recessive alleles.

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Which of the following correctly describes the activity and regulation of Ribonucleotide Reductase?
A. dTTP binding to the selectivity site stimulates binding of dATP to the activity site.
B. dTTP binding to the selectivity site stimulates binding of ATP to the catalytic site.
C. dTTP binding to the selectivity site stimulates binding of GDP to the catalytic site.
D. dTTP binding to the selectivity site stimulates binding of ADP to the catalytic site.

Answers

DTTP (deoxythymidine triphosphate) acts as an allosteric effector.

What is the role of dTTP in the regulation of RNR activity?

The correct option is A. Ribonucleotide Reductase (RNR) is an enzyme involved in the synthesis of deoxyribonucleotides, which are essential building blocks for DNA replication and repair.

The activity and regulation of RNR are critical for maintaining the balance of deoxyribonucleotide pools in the cell. In RNR, dTTP (deoxythymidine triphosphate) acts as an allosteric effector. It binds to the selectivity site of RNR and stimulates the binding of dATP (deoxyadenosine triphosphate) to the activity site.

This binding event promotes the catalytic activity of RNR, facilitating the conversion of ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides. By regulating the levels of dTTP, RNR ensures the proper balance of deoxyribonucleotides required for DNA synthesis and maintenance.

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thomas malthus and others predicted that surpassing a threshold population size would bring about catastrophic collapse. explain how humans have managed to increase the carrying capacity of the planet for our species in order to prevent collapse.

Answers

The "carrying capacity" of the Earth, or the most people it can sustain permanently, is still a matter of debate among scientists, with estimates varying considerably between 500 million to more than one trillion.

Why did Thomas Malthus think the population would outpace growth?

Thomas Malthus discovered that food production rose more gradually rather than exponentially. Malthus projected that the human population will ultimately become too high to be adequately maintained by the food supply due to these variations in population and food growth rates.

What remedies did Malthus propose to deal with the overpopulation?

Malthus suggested "moral constraint" as a remedy. In other words, he mandated forced sterilization when necessary, abstinence before to marriage, and the imposition of harsh penalties on so-called unprepared parents who had more children than they could sustain.

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what did the avery griffith and hershey-chase experiments determine

Answers

Hershey and Chase came to the conclusion that DNA, not protein, contained genetic information. The Hershey-Chase investigations were more widely and swiftly accepted among scientists than Avery's studies on bacterial changes.

DNA- Deoxyribonucleic acid, also referred to as DNA, is a sophisticated molecule that houses all of the data required to create and maintain a organism. DNA is a component of every living thing's cells. In fact, almost all of the cells in a multicellular creature have all of the DNA necessary for that organism.

Today, DNA has three separate purposes: genetic, immunological, and structural, all of which differ greatly from one another and depend in different ways on the bases and the sugar phosphate backbone.

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burned in different chambers at varying temperatures to see
how temperature impacts the amount of NO, produced by
coal combustion.
Explain how the results of the study would be expected to
change if the same experiment were repeated with natural
gas.

Answers

Natural gas only produces thermal oxides of nitrogen while coal produces both thermal and fuel oxides of nitrogen.

NO is a harmful gas that is produced as a byproduct of combustion and can lead to air pollution and respiratory issues when released into the atmosphere.

The higher the combustion temperature, the greater the amount of NO produced during coal combustion. In contrast, natural gas combustion does not produce as much NO because natural gas is primarily composed of methane and has a higher hydrogen-to-carbon ratio than coal, which results in less carbon dioxide and less NO production.

Natural gas combustion occurs at lower temperatures than coal combustion; hence, it produces less NO as a result. To summarize, the results of the study would be expected to show that natural gas combustion produces less NO than coal combustion, and this is attributed to the differences in the composition of coal and natural gas.

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Q- Epa scientists performed an experiment where coal was burned in different chambers at varying temperatures to see how temperature impacts the amount of NO produced by coal combustion explain how the results of the study would be expected to change if the same experiment were repeated with natural gas.

Someone plz help me :(

Someone plz help me :(

Answers

Answer:

C

Explanation:

Chemical energy stored in muscles transform to kinetic and heat energy

Answer:

C

Explanation:

Our body contains chemical energy, which later, when we r running or cycling gets transformed into kinetic and thermal energy

Do you think the processes that form and shape the small stream bed are similar to those that form and shape the Grand Canyon? Why or why not?

Answers

Answer:

Due to the flowing of stream and river.

Explanation:  

The processes that formed the small stream bed are similar to those that formed the Grand Canyon because both are formed by the flowing of river. The river flow through these regions and with this flow they takes rock particles with itself and makes several shapes and structures of that region. So we say that rivers and streams are responsible for the formation of  stream bed and Grand Canyon.

Which of the following biomes is found in
Brazil?
Desert
Savanna
Tundra
Chaparral

Answers

Answer:

Savanna

Explanation:

I am nice so dont be mean

The Savanna biome is found in Brazil. Therefore, the correct statement is option C.

What is biomass?

Biomass refers to the total mass of living organisms present in a particular ecosystem. Biomass includes the mass of living organisms such as plants, fungi, animals, bacteria, dead organic matter, etc.

Biomass can be used to generate heat or electricity and act as a source of energy by burning of wood or other plant material. It also used to produce biofuels from corn and sugarcane and bioplastics made from plant-based materials.

The biome found in Brazil is savanna. This biome is a tropical grassland ecosystem covering approximately 25 percent of the country's total land area. It involves a mix of grasses, shrubs, and trees, with a distinct dry and wet season, and is a home to a diverse range of species, including jaguars, capybaras, many species of birds, reptiles, and insects.

Therefore, savanna is the biome found in Brazil.

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What does the lunar rover do?
O moves astronauts around
O gives air to astronauts
O makes space rocks

Answers

The answer is the first one

Moves astronauts around

Which is NOT an effect of surface mining?
A)Groundwater can become polluted.
B)Natural habitats can be destroyed.
C)Air quality can suffer.
D)Pesticides can remain in the environment for long
periods of time.

Answers

Answer:

(č) is answer .

Explanation:

MARK ME AS A BRAINLIST PLZ

D bc it makes sense lolll

1 point
This is a solution that contains an equal amount of dissolved particles as within the cell; cell doesn’t change shape or size

Answers

Isotonic solution is a solution that contains an equal amount of dissolved particles as within the cell; cell doesn’t change shape or size.

What is a Solution?

This is referred to as a homogeneous mixture which consists of one or more solutes dissolved in a solvent such as water.

There are different types of solution and an example is Isotonic solution which contains an equal amount of dissolved particles as within the cell and the process of osmosis which involves the movement of solute molecules doesn't occur in the cell which is therefore the reason why the cell doesn’t change shape or size.

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All living things must have a method of replication

True or false!?

Answers

The answer is true!

Answer: True

Explanation:

Consider a locus that has two alleles Z1 and Z2. The relative fitness of the resulting genotypes is Z1Z1 = 1, Z1Z2 = 1 and Z2Z2 = 0. The frequency of Z2 in the current generation is 0.2. You track the population for 1,000 generations at which point you note that the Z2 allele is still in the population. Given that it is recessive lethal explain why it has not been purged by selection by the 1,000th generation. Please use the terms selection, homozygous and heterozygous when forming your response.

Answers

The recessive lethal nature of the Z2 allele allows it to persist in the population if there is a sufficient frequency of the heterozygous genotype (Z1Z2) that can carry the allele without being affected by its lethal effects.

The Z2 allele has not been purged by selection by the 1,000th generation because it is recessive lethal. In order for selection to act on an allele, it needs to be expressed in the phenotype and affect the fitness of individuals carrying that allele.

In this case, the Z2 allele is recessive lethal, which means that individuals who are homozygous for the Z2 allele (Z2Z2) do not survive to reproduce. Since the fitness of the Z2Z2 genotype is 0, individuals with this genotype will not pass on the Z2 allele to the next generation.

However, the Z2 allele can still persist in the population if it is present in the heterozygous genotype (Z1Z2). The fitness of the Z1Z2 genotype is 1, which means that individuals with this genotype survive and reproduce at the same rate as individuals with the Z1Z1 genotype.

Therefore, even though the Z2 allele is recessive lethal, it can still be maintained in the population if there is a sufficient frequency of the Z1Z2 genotype. In this case, the frequency of the Z2 allele in the current generation is 0.2, which means that there is a proportion of individuals who carry the Z2 allele in the heterozygous genotype.

Over the course of 1,000 generations, selection will act to increase the frequency of the Z1 allele and decrease the frequency of the Z2 allele. However, because the Z2 allele is recessive lethal, it may persist in the population at a low frequency if there is a balance between selection against the Z2Z2 genotype and selection for the Z1Z2 genotype.

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somebody pls pls help

somebody pls pls help

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

A union could be guilty of unfair labour practices: during the union organizing campaign C during contract negotiations during the term of the collective agreement G Call of the options

Answers

A union could be guilty of unfair labor practices is; during the union organizing campaign, during contract negotiations, and during the term of the collective agreement. Option D is correct.

During the union organizing campaign; Unions can engage in unfair labor practices during the organizing campaign by using coercion, intimidation, or other improper tactics to influence employees' decisions regarding union representation.

During contract negotiations; Unions may engage in unfair labor practices during contract negotiations by engaging in bad faith bargaining, refusing to negotiate in good faith, or using coercive tactics to gain advantages in bargaining.

During the term of the collective agreement; Unions can commit unfair labor practices during the term of the collective agreement by violating the terms of the agreement, engaging in discriminatory practices, or interfering with the rights of employees protected under labor laws.

Hence, D. is the correct option.

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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is

"A union could be guilty of unfair labor practices: A) during the union organizing campaign B) during contract negotiations C) during the term of the collective agreement D) all of the options."--

Cells can interact by releasing proteins or other molecules as chemical signals. How do cells receive these signals?



Answers

Answer: Cells typically receive signals in chemical form via various signaling molecules.

Rangelands are important for providing and maintaining habitat for wildlife including insects, birds, and big game. What type of ecological service is maintaining habitat?
A. Regulating
B. Cultural
C. Supporting
D. Provisioning

Answers

The type of ecological service that is maintaining habitat for wildlife including insects, birds, and big game is "supporting."

Ecological services are the benefits that humans gain from natural ecosystems. There are four types of ecological services: provisioning, regulating, supporting, and cultural. They are referred to as ecological services because they are essential to human well-being and the survival of the ecosystem. Maintaining habitat is an example of an ecological service that is supporting. This is because maintaining habitat helps the survival of many different species by giving them a place to live, shelter, and food. Rangelands play a significant role in supporting this ecological service as they provide a natural home for a wide range of species including insects, birds, and big game. Rangelands are a crucial source of food and habitat for wildlife. They help maintain the ecological balance of the ecosystem by providing the necessary resources for the different species of animals that inhabit the ecosystem. They are important for the survival of many different species of animals, including insects, birds, and big game. Therefore, they play a critical role in maintaining the ecological service of supporting the ecosystem.

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When do monsoon winds create a land breeze?

A. spring

B. fall

C. summer

D. winter

Answers

C,summer

Explanation:

summer is the most you have air trust me



Which reactions in glycolysis are the source of energy for the formation of ATP and NADH?

Answers

The reactions in glycolysis that generate ATP and NADH are phosphoglycerate kinase (Step 6) and pyruvate kinase (Step 10).

In glycolysis, which is the initial step in glucose metabolism, several reactions generate energy in the form of ATP and NADH. The following reactions in glycolysis contribute to the production of ATP and NADH:

Glycolysis Step 6: In the reaction catalyzed by phosphoglycerate kinase, 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate is converted to 3-phosphoglycerate. This reaction transfers a high-energy phosphate group from 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to ADP, forming ATP. This is the first occurrence of ATP generation in glycolysis.Glycolysis Step 7: In the reaction catalyzed by phosphoglycerate mutase, 3-phosphoglycerate is converted to 2-phosphoglycerate. This reaction does not directly generate ATP or NADH.Glycolysis Step 10: In the reaction catalyzed by pyruvate kinase, phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) is converted to pyruvate. This reaction transfers a high-energy phosphate group from PEP to ADP, forming ATP. This is the second occurrence of ATP generation in glycolysis.

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There are many stars and other objects in the universe. True False

Answers

Answer:

true

Explanation:

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Those pictures taken by the Hubble Telescope are not lying!!!

There indeed many many many many other celestial objects out there. Even in our own galaxy (milky Way) , there are an estimated 100 thousand million stars (10^11-10^12). There are millions upon millions of galaxies too, so the statement is true.

Which statement best explains why the skin cell and intestinal epithelial cell are different?
Choose 1 answer:
Skin cells and epithelial cells each make a different set of proteins, which determines each cell
type's structure and function.
Skin cells contain genes that cause the cell to have fingerlike projections along one side, while
intestinal epithelial cells do not.
Intestinal epithelial cells and skin cells contain the same proteins, but the cells are different due
to their roles in the body.

Which statement best explains why the skin cell and intestinal epithelial cell are different?Choose 1

Answers

The statement 'Skin cells and epithelial cells each make a different set of proteins, which determines each cell type's structure and function.' is correct. It is known as differentiation.

What is differentiation?

Differentiation refers to the cellular phenomenon for which different genes are expressed in specific cell types.

Differentiation leads to the formation of different cell types that have specific functions/roles.

Differentiation depends on gene expression pattern that influences the type and amount of proteins in a given cell.

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Can you fill in the blank spaces thx!

Can you fill in the blank spaces thx!

Answers

Once upon a time there were very nice birds with long tail, and beautiful heads, and printed wings living in a mountain called Mountain Leguma.

What are birds?

This question refers to the Emily Dickinson's poem "Hope." In that particular poem, the poet compares the feeling of hope to a bird. She says that lets Hope is the thing with feathers as she is referring to birds.

She says that hope never dies; it always lives in us, giving us the motivation to keep going, and to fight. She also says that even though hope gives us so much, it never asks for anything in return.

Therefore, Once upon a time there were very nice birds with long tail, and beautiful heads, and printed wings living in a mountain called Mountain Leguma.

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I Name the following: 1. It is the mechanism of inheritance of characters from the parental generation to the offspring.​

Answers

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

even with some characteristics it can be past down with out even being around said parent mostly things like habits example: being more likely to have a addiction to anything doesn't have to be bad substances it part of ur gene make up

The red shift of light from most galaxies is evidence that

Answers

Astronomers have discovered that, in general, the further away a galaxy is, the more red-shifted its light is. This means that the further away the galaxies are, the faster they are moving. ... Red-shift data provides evidence that the Universe, including space itself, is expanding.

Your Welcome :)

Answer: This means that the further away the galaxies are, the faster they are moving. ... Red-shift data provides evidence that the Universe, including space itself, is expanding. Redshift and blueshift describe how light shifts toward shorter or longer wavelengths as objects in space (such as stars or galaxies) move closer or farther away from us. ... When an object moves away from us, the light is shifted to the red end of the spectrum, as its wavelengths get longer.

Explanation: Mark me as brainliest please please please!!!

Which plant structures are common to all angiosperms?sporesflowersconesendoskeleton

Answers

A plant structure common to all angiosperms are the flowers, that are reprodutive structures formed from four whorls of modified leaves. The angiosperms have two structures that ensures their reprodutive sucess: flowers and fruits, being the flowers the one that form a cooperative evolutionary relationship with insects, and other animals to help disperse the pollen from the female plant gametophytes.

Which produces more energy, aerobic respiration or
fermentation?
a. Fermentation
b. Respiration
c. They produce the same amount of energy
d. It depends on the type of cell

Answers

Answer:

aerobic respiration

Explanation:

Aerobic respiration produces more usable chemical energy in the form of ATPs than fermentation because aerobic respiration involves the complete oxidation of glucose and the release of carbon dioxide and water as end products.

4. Give examples of pesticides that have caused food-associated poisoning. To what extent can these poisonings be prevented?

9. Name three acts and/or amendments that regulate food safety in the United States. Describe their purposes and the types of foods and com- ponents of foods to which they apply.

11. Discuss the risk factors for foodborne illness. Describe practical methods for the prevention of foodborne illness and indicate how you apply them in your own home or business.

12. What are the procedures that a local health department might use for investigating an outbreak of foodborne illness? (Refer to Exhibit 11.2). What factors could have been responsible for the S. aureus outbreak described in the exhibit?

Answers

Pesticides such as organophosphates, carbamates, and pyrethroids have caused food-associated poisoning.

Pesticides like organophosphates, carbamates, and pyrethroids have been linked to food-associated poisoning when used improperly or in excessive amounts. To prevent such poisonings, it is essential to follow recommended application rates, use protective gear during application, store pesticides safely, and adhere to guidelines provided by regulatory authorities.

The Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) aims to prevent foodborne illnesses by shifting the focus from responding to contamination incidents to preventing them. The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) sets safety standards for all domestic and imported foods, ensuring they are safe, wholesome, and properly labeled. The Bioterrorism Act requires food facilities to register with the FDA and implement safety measures to protect the food supply from intentional contamination.

Foodborne illnesses can result from factors such as poor hygiene, improper cooking temperatures, cross-contamination between raw and cooked foods, and consumption of contaminated items. Practical methods for prevention include frequent handwashing, using separate cutting boards for raw and cooked foods, cooking meats to recommended temperatures, and storing perishable foods in the refrigerator.

During an outbreak investigation, a local health department may conduct interviews with affected individuals to identify potential sources of contamination. They will collect samples for laboratory analysis to confirm the presence of pathogens. In the S. aureus outbreak described in the exhibit, factors like improper food handling, inadequate refrigeration, or contaminated food ingredients may have contributed to bacterial growth and subsequent illness among consumers.

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Out of the following four options, the concentration at which dsDNA will have the highest Tm is a.10 mm b.1000 μM c.100 mm d. 1M

Answers

The correct option is C: The concentration at which dsDNA will have the highest Tm is 100 mM.

Which concentration will result in the highest Tm for dsDNA?

Out of the given options, the concentration at which double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) will have the highest melting temperature (Tm) is 100 mM. Tm is the temperature at which half of the DNA strands in a double helix become denatured or separated.

It is influenced by factors such as DNA sequence, length, and ionic conditions, including the concentration of ions in the solution. In general, increasing the concentration of salt ions, such as potassium or magnesium, can stabilize the double helix and raise the Tm.

In this context, a concentration of 100 mM is likely to provide an optimal ionic environment for maintaining the stability of dsDNA, resulting in a higher Tm compared to lower or higher concentrations. It is important to note that the Tm can vary based on the specific DNA sequence and experimental conditions.

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Jamar is competing in a triathlon which requires him to run 5 miles, swim 2 miles, and then bike for 12 miles. Jamar starts his race at 8:00 AM sharp and it takes him 50 minutes to complete the running section. Jamar swims half as fast as he runs, but he bikes four times as fast as he runs. What time does Jamar finish the triathlon? Be sure to include AM or PM in your answer. HELP NOW!The price of gas went from $2.53 to $2.46. What is the percentof change, rounded to the nearest tenth of a percent? What are some different donut stores. What two things determine the amount that is withheld from your paycheck?your standing within your household (married, single, head of household) and whether you have dependentsthe status of your work visathe amount of money that you make on a weekly or monthly basis What is one of the powers of congress Which of the following statements about socioeconomic status is not true?a) People of low SES tend to behave in unhealthy ways.b) People of low SES tend to have more stress.c) People of low SES are to blame for their poor health.d) Black Americans tend to have lower SES than whites. Find (f +g)(x) where f(x) = x+ 3 and g(x) = x + 4. Would sound travel faster in an oven or a freezer? what factors made possible the unification of italy and germany in the latter half of the 19th century classify the following topics as relating to microeconomics or macroeconomics. topic microeconomics macroeconomics the relationship between the inflation rate and changes in the quantity of money "Question Answer ABCO The differential equation y"" +9y' = 0 is A First Order & Linear B First Order & Nonlinear C Second Order & Linear D Second Order & Nonlinear a) Show using IS and LM curves why money is neutral in the classical supply case.b) Explore the short run and long run effects of an inflow of Special Drawing Rights (SDR) on interest rate, output, and employment, assuming a flexible exchange rate, limited mobility of capital and the BoP curve is flatter than the LM curve.c) Discuss the short run and long run effects of an increase in tax on interest rate, output, and employment, assuming a flexible exchange rate, limited mobility of capital and the BoP curve is steeper than the LM curve. NEED SOME HELP HERE answer What is the common ratio in the exponential function? Which of the following is an example of subjective information? Red roses Three leaves Tall tree Green plant Complete the chart below detailing the characteristics of some vitamins Elaine operated a business selling body lotions and creams. She would often display her products on tables set up on the sidewalk immediately in front of her store. To make her products more visible, she had strong floodlights attached to the top of the storefront, which automatically came on when it began to get dark and were used to illuminate the tables on the sidewalk. On a Tuesday afternoon it began to suddenly get dark and rain lightly, but Elaine was busy inside the store and did not have an opportunity to get out and cover the tables on the sidewalk. Unknown to Elaine, a bottle of lotion had fallen onto the sidewalk and the contents had leaked onto the walkway in front of the table. As a pedestrian crossed in front of her store the floodlights came on suddenly and the pedestrian, briefly blinded by the lights, slipped on the spilled lotion. Elaine came running out of the store as a man helped the woman who had fallen back to her feet. Elaine heard the woman tell the man she was okay, only a bit shaken, and that it was her own fault for not looking where she was going. The rain had spread the lotion even further on the sidewalk so Elaine quickly got a mop and cleaned up the mess. Meanwhile, the woman who had fallen limped off muttering about the bright spots floating in her eyesight. 1. Discuss what Elaine should do to minimize the potential fall out and what practical steps she should take that would assist with any legal issues. 2. Name and discuss preventative measures that should be put in place to eliminate something like this from ever happening again. digital systems, inc. (dsi), makes storage media and other peripheral computer products. a dsi product may be unreasonably dangerous due to How many inches are there in 32 feet?A. 96 inchesB. 384 inchesC. 128 inchesD. 1,152 inches Where do most of the rivers in North Carolina flow to?