adverse childhood experiences: expanding the concept of adversity. american journal of preventive medicine

Answers

Answer 1

The concept of adverse childhood experiences (ACEs) is being expanded in the field of preventive medicine. The American Journal of Preventive Medicine discusses the broader understanding of adversity in childhood.

Adverse childhood experiences refer to traumatic events or conditions that children may encounter during their early years, such as abuse, neglect, or household dysfunction. These experiences have been linked to a range of negative health outcomes later in life. However, the concept of ACEs is now being expanded to include a broader understanding of childhood adversity.

The American Journal of Preventive Medicine explores this expanded concept, recognizing that adversity in childhood extends beyond traditional ACEs and encompasses a wider range of social, economic, and environmental factors. This expanded perspective recognizes that children can face multiple forms of adversity simultaneously, and that these experiences can have long-lasting effects on their health and well-being.

By expanding the concept of childhood adversity, researchers and practitioners can develop more comprehensive strategies to prevent and mitigate the negative impacts of these experiences. This includes implementing interventions that address not only individual ACEs but also the broader social determinants of health that contribute to childhood adversity. Understanding and addressing childhood adversity in a holistic manner is essential for promoting the health and resilience of children and improving long-term outcomes.

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Related Questions

transcendental nursing home is working on decreasing its rates of catheter–associated urinary tract infections (utis) among its residents. while reviewing data, the improvement team notices that the uti rate on floor 3 is half that of the rest of the floors. they decide to visit the unit and find out what it is doing differently.

Answers

(B) Understanding variation is the component of Deming's System of Profound Knowledge that the team about to harness.

The System of Profound Knowledge (SoPK) represents Dr. W. Edwards Deming's life's work in its entirety. It is a powerful management theory that gives leaders who want to transform and build healthy organizations with the goal of everyone winning a framework for thinking and action.

Understanding variation is important since Transcendental Nursing Home strives to reduce the number of resident UTIs caused by catheter use. When analyzing the data, the improvement team discovers that Floor 3's UTI rate is half that of the other floors. They make the decision to go see the unit to see what it is doing differently.

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Question correction:

Transcendental Nursing Home is working on decreasing its rates of catheter-associated urinary tract infections (UTIs) among its residents. While reviewing data, the improvement team notices that the UTI rate on Floor 3 is half that of the rest of the floors. They decide to visit the unit and find out what it is doing differently. Which component of Deming's System of Profound Knowledge is the team about to harness?

(A) Appreciation of a system

(B) Understanding variation

(C) Theory of knowledge

(D) Psychology (human behavior)

When blocked by drugs, beta blockers heart rate slows and demand for ______________ in the heart decreases, lowering blood pressure. Fill in the blank.

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

When blocked by drugs, beta blockers heart rate slows and demand for ______________ in the heart decreases,

6. CPG 101 V2 includes a six-step planning process. These steps include all of the following EXCEPT:

Answers

The Consumer Products Good (CPG) 101 V2 is the FDA guideline that provides the basic requirements and best practices for good manufacturing practices (GMPs) for the manufacturing of human food, animal food, dietary supplements, and cosmetics.

These guidelines provide a reference for manufacturers to follow to ensure that their products meet the required quality standards and are safe for human consumption. The six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 includes:

Step 1: Preliminary Steps

Step2: Scope

Step 3: Hazard Analysis

Step 4: Preventive Controls

Step 5: Verification

Step 6: Record-keeping and Documentation

The steps mentioned above outline the CPG 101 V2's planning process, which ensures the production of safe, high-quality food products.

The FDA requires all food manufacturers to implement these steps to ensure that the products are manufactured under suitable conditions, maintain quality, and are free from contaminants. However, the six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 does not include identifying the location of the production facility. Although, manufacturers should ensure that the facility they choose meets the requirement of FDA's good manufacturing practice.

Therefore, the step excluded from the planning process is to identify the location of the production facility. The six-step planning process is a robust guide for manufacturers to produce safe food products that meet the quality standards.

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One litre of Dextrose 5% in water is charted over 8 hours. The drop factor is 10. Calculate the number of drops per minute.

Answers

The drop factor here will be 21 drops per minute as per the given data.

What is drop factor?

The drop factor is the amount of drops required to produce one milliliter of fluid. There are basically two sizes that is 20 drops per ml and 50 drops per ml. 15 drops per milliliter.

Number of drops can be calculated by dividing the volume by time and then multiplying it from drop factor.

Here it is given that,

The volume = 1 liter or 1000ml.

Time = 8 hrs or 480 minutes.

Drop factor = 10.

By these values, the number of drops can be:

\(Drops=\frac{1000}{480} *10\)

Drops = 21 drops per minute.

Thus, the number of drops will be 21 drops per minute.

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Sophie has a BMR of 1,500 calories. What is her TEE if she exercises moderately? A. 1,800 calories B. 2,062.5 calories C. 2,325 calories D. 2,587.5 calories E. 2,850 calories

Answers

Answer:

Sophie has a BMR of 1,500 calories. What is her TEE if she exercises moderately?

C) 2,325 calories

Explanation:

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Which class of diuretic can decrease calcium in the body?

Answers

Explanation:

Thiazode Diuretics can decrease calcium in the body.

Based on what you have learned, which of the following outcomes is the least likely to happen to Kurt, the narcissistic team leader in the story from the Introduction?

Answers

Answer:

"Nancy, the human resources officer, confronts Kurt about how his actions are negatively impacting his team members. He accepts the responsibility for his mistakes and tries to eliminate these types of actions in the future."

Explanation:

This is the only option that doesn't show narcissistic tendencies, as narcissistic people wouldn't own up to their own mistakes and would rather become defensive and argumentative.

When 100 mg of a drug is administered as an IV bolus dose, the plasma concentrations (mg/L) observed over time can be described by the following equation:
Calculate clearance (L/hr)

Answers

The equation describing the plasma concentration of the drug over time after an IV bolus dose is not provided in the question. Without this equation, we cannot calculate the clearance (CL) of the drug using the formula:

CL = dose/AUC

where AUC is the area under the plasma concentration-time curve.

Please provide additional information or context to answer this question.

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What action can you take as a team during and after a resuscitation attempt that
helps individual team members perform better and brings awareness to system
strengths and deficiencies?
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
Overthinking
Practicing mutual respect
Debriefing
Criticizing

Answers

Debriefing is the action can you take as a team during and after a resuscitation attempt that helps individual team members perform better and brings awareness to system strengths and deficiencies.

What is debriefing?

Debriefing is a fundamental action during critical response processes such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

Debriefing refers to the actions and procedures that involve communication between the members of a medical team in a clinical case.

Debriefing can result in a fundamental issue for understanding a medical problem/issue and thus safe lives.

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.A patient that is 80 years old fell and fractured his hip. He lives by himself and his daughter lives 60 miles away from him and doesn't visit him often to help. During his care in the hospital, he was told not to do any activities like adduct his hip or internally or externally rotate his leg. he can not flex his hip more than 90 degrees. Yesterday he was found leaning over to tie his shoe during a physical therapy session. It seems like he needs multiple cueing to avoid the actions that put his hip at risk. We are reinforming these things repeatedly and the nurses said that he is communicating well but he is just not getting it. The interprofessional collaboration team wants to find a rehab facility close to where his daughter lives so she can visit more and reinforce what he needs to be doing and said that he is not fit to go home by himself.
What actions should the interprofessional team take to advocate effectively for this client?

Answers

To advocate effectively for the client, the interprofessional team should gather comprehensive information about the patient's condition, communicate with the daughter to involve her in the care plan, research and recommend suitable rehab facilities near her, coordinate with healthcare professionals, facilitate communication and transition, provide ongoing support and guidance to the daughter, and advocate for the patient's best interests throughout the process.

The interprofessional team should take the following actions to advocate effectively for this client:

1. Gather and share comprehensive information: Collect all relevant information about the patient's condition, including his limitations, living situation, and the need for continued support and reinforcement.

2. Communicate with the patient's daughter: Contact the daughter to discuss the patient's condition, the recommended care plan, and the importance of her involvement in his rehabilitation process. Seek her input and address any concerns or questions she may have.

3. Research and recommend suitable rehab facilities: Conduct a thorough search for rehab facilities near the daughter's location that can provide the necessary care and support for the patient's recovery. Consider factors such as proximity, quality of care, availability of specialized services, and visiting policies.

4. Coordinate with healthcare professionals: Collaborate with the patient's healthcare team, including physicians, nurses, and therapists, to obtain their input and support in advocating for the patient's transfer to a rehab facility. Seek their expertise in assessing the patient's progress and the level of care required.

5. Facilitate communication and transition: Establish clear lines of communication between the interprofessional team, the daughter, and the chosen rehab facility. Ensure that all parties are aware of the patient's needs, restrictions, and goals for rehabilitation. Facilitate a smooth transition from the hospital to the rehab facility, including necessary paperwork and medical information transfer.

6. Provide ongoing support and guidance: Offer guidance to the patient's daughter on how she can reinforce the recommended activities and precautions during her visits. Share educational materials, schedule follow-up consultations with healthcare professionals, and provide resources that can assist her in supporting the patient's recovery.

7. Advocate for the patient's best interests: Act as the patient's advocate throughout the process, ensuring that his needs, safety, and well-being are prioritized. Communicate with all stakeholders involved, including hospital administrators and insurance providers, to secure the necessary approvals and support for the patient's transfer to a suitable rehab facility.

By taking these actions, the interprofessional team can effectively advocate for the client's best interests and facilitate a smoother transition to a rehab facility that is closer to his daughter's location, allowing for increased support and reinforcement of his care.

To effectively advocate for the client, the interprofessional team should gather all relevant information about the patient, involve the daughter in the care plan, find and recommend suitable rehab facilities near her, coordinate with healthcare professionals, assist with communication and transition, provide continuous support to the daughter, and advocate for the patient's best interests. These actions are aimed at ensuring the patient receives appropriate care while involving the daughter in his rehabilitation and recovery process.

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According to the rule of palm method for estimating the extent of a patient's burns, the palm of the patient's hand is equal to _____ of his or her total BSA.
1%

Answers

The palm of the patients hand is equal to 1% of their total BSA.

What is the rule of the palm?

Rule of the palm, or the palmer method, or the rule of ones is a way to estimate the size of a burn. The palm of a person burned (not wrists or fingers) is equal to about 1% of the body.  It is an alternative way to know/ estimate the extent of a burn.

The persons palm is used to measure the total body surface area (TBSA) burned, as the palm is about 1% of the total body surface area (TBSA). It is a very quick method, but can also be inaccurate. The rule of the palms would be highly inaccurate for obese patients, no methods work well for them.

It is hard to estimate burn sizes on our own. If you are unsure, its best to consult a doctor and get it checked.

Therefore, the palm of the patients hand is equal to 1% of their total BSA.

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read each of the descriptions regarding the composition and properties of urine. then, click and drag each into the appropriate category to indicate whether it is true or false.

Answers

The assertion is accurate. Read each explanation of the characteristics and composition of urine. After that, drag each item into the relevant category to specify.

What is renal trauma?Renal trauma may result in damage to the renal parenchyma or renal vasculature, which may cause bleeding, as well as damage to the collecting system and potential urine leaks. The kidney is typically injured in genitourinary tract injuries, which account for 10% of all traumas. With chronic bleeding, growing perinephric hematoma, renal pedicle avulsions or substantial renovascular injuries, and rupture of the ureteropelvic junction, consider surgery or therapeutic angiography intervention. Urinary extravasation that persists may benefit from a ureteral stent.Urinary fistula, delayed bleeding, abscess, hypertension, and urinoma are examples of early sequelae that develop within a month of an injury. The most frequent consequence following renal damage is prolonged urine extravasation.

Therefore,

The majority of the solute in urine is nitrogenous waste; urine is about 95% water; hematuria may suggest renal trauma; urine can be more hypertonic than blood plasma; and the odor of urine can be affected by certain foods.

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The given statement "The most abundant solute in urine is a nitrogenous waste" is true because urea is the most abundant solute.

True statement about urine as following:
The most abundant solute in urine is a nitrogenous waste - True (Urea is the most abundant solute)
Sodium chloride, potassium chloride, glucose, and uric acid are present in normal urine - True
Urine is more dense than distilled water - True
Urine is approximately 95% water - True

It is possible for urine to be hypertonic compared to blood plasma - True
Hematuria may indicate trauma to the kidneys - True
Normal urine is alkaline - False (Normal urine is slightly acidic)
The odor of urine can be influenced by different foods - True

False statement about urine as following:
Clear urine indicates dehydration - False (Clear urine usually indicates proper hydration)
Bacterial infections of the urethra may cause a sweet, fruity odor in urine - False (Sweet, fruity odor usually indicates presence of ketones due to diabetes)


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10 4/5+(834−6/12) no files plz and simplyfly it

Answers

Answer:

844.3

Explanation:

Thats the answer

Help! My lesson never went over this question.

Help! My lesson never went over this question.

Answers

The answer is monthly

How many roads must a human walk down to get 64 slices of swiss cheese.

Answers

The number of roads a human must walk down to get 64 slices of Swiss cheese is not directly related to the number of slices of cheese.

What is the relationship between amount and place?

The number of roads one walks down is unrelated to the quantity of cheese acquired. It seems that the question is mixing unrelated concepts. A human might need to walk down zero roads to get 64 slices of Swiss cheese. They could order it online or have it delivered.

However, if they wanted to buy it at a grocery store, they might need to walk down one road. The number of roads a human would need to walk down to get 64 slices of Swiss cheese would depend on their location and the availability of Swiss cheese in their area.

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“In terms of muscle actions at the knee joint, the quadriceps and hamstrings are”

Answers

Answer:

antagonist.

and the question before that is C. Sarcomeres

Explanation:

The quadriceps and the hamstrings are antagonists to each other in their actions at the knee joint, the quadriceps, and hamstrings.

What movement at the knee do the hamstring muscles perform?

The function of this hamstring is to flex your knee, extend the thigh at your hip and rotate your lower leg from side to side when your knee is bent.

What is the relationship between the quadriceps and hamstrings in the knee?

Many muscles acting on the thigh have their insertions around the knee. The quadriceps femoris muscle is the principal muscle involved in knee extension5, 6). The principal muscles involved in knee flexion are the hamstring muscle group5).

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Exhibited by nurses who provide evidence based clinical nursing practice.

Answers

One of the key characteristics exhibited by nurses who provide evidence-based clinical nursing practice is a commitment to using the best available research evidence.

This involves staying up-to-date with the latest developments in their field, critically evaluating research studies, and integrating this knowledge into their everyday practice. Nurses who practice evidence-based nursing also tend to be systematic and disciplined in their approach, using standardized methods to gather and analyze data, and using this information to continuously evaluate and improve their patient care. Additionally, they are often skilled at working collaboratively with other healthcare professionals to ensure that their patients receive the best possible care, and are dedicated to providing patient-centered care that is tailored to the unique needs and preferences of each individual patient.

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The maximum pressure in the artery , occurring during ventricular contraction , is

Answers

Answer: Systolic Pressure

Explanation: the maximum blood pressure during contraction of the ventricles; diastolic pressure is the minimum pressure recorded just prior to the next contraction. The blood pressure is usually written as the systolic pressure over the diastolic pressure (e.g., 120/80 mm Hg).

A pharmacy technician needs to contact the insurance company for a new patient. which essential information
should the technician get from the patient? select all that apply.
- provider and contact information
- the beneficiary
- the group or plan number
- the patient's social security number
- information on copays or deductibles
- described illness of the patient

Answers

When a pharmacy technician is contacting an insurance company for a new patient, they need to gather certain essential information from the patient. First and foremost, the technician should obtain the provider and contact information to ensure that they are contacting the correct insurance company and person. Additionally, they should ask for the group or plan number, which is necessary for the insurance company to verify the patient's coverage.

The beneficiary's name is also important to verify coverage and ensure that the patient is authorized to receive prescription medications. The patient's social security number may also be required for the insurance company to confirm their identity and coverage. Information on copays or deductibles is important for the patient to know in advance, as they may need to pay for part of their medication cost out of pocket. The described illness of the patient is not necessary for the technician to obtain in order to contact the insurance company.
When a pharmacy technician needs to contact the insurance company for a new patient, the essential information they should get from the patient includes: provider and contact information, the beneficiary, the group or plan number, the patient's social security number, and information on copays or deductibles. The described illness of the patient is not necessary for contacting the insurance company.

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During what time of year a patient be most likely to show a vitamin D deficiency?

Answers

Answer:

most likely during april or fall/ winter

Explanation:

april is rainy season and in the fall/winter people are more likely to stay inside and it is also more likely to be more cloudy than other seasons reducing exposure to sunlight

2. What role does the medical assistant play in breaking down

barriers to communication in a medical office?

Answers

Medical assistants play a crucial role in breaking down barriers to communication in a medical office by facilitating effective communication between healthcare professionals, patients, and other staff members. Here are some ways medical assistants contribute to improving communication:

1. Active Listening: Medical assistants actively listen to patients and healthcare providers, ensuring that everyone's concerns and needs are heard and understood. By giving their full attention and showing empathy, medical assistants create a supportive environment for communication.

2. Language and Cultural Competence: Medical assistants who are proficient in multiple languages or have knowledge about diverse cultures can bridge the communication gap for patients with limited English proficiency or from different cultural backgrounds. They can provide translation services, explain medical terms in understandable language, and respect cultural norms to enhance communication.

3. Clear and Concise Communication: Medical assistants ensure that information is communicated clearly and accurately. They may assist in explaining treatment plans, medication instructions, or procedures to patients in a simple and understandable manner. Clear communication helps patients fully comprehend their healthcare options and actively participate in their care.

4. Patient Advocacy: Medical assistants act as advocates for patients, ensuring their concerns and questions are addressed. They can help patients express their needs to healthcare providers and facilitate open and transparent communication between patients and the medical team.

5. Documentation and Record Keeping: Accurate and thorough documentation is essential for effective communication within a medical office. Medical assistants are responsible for maintaining patient records, updating medical histories, and ensuring the information is accessible to healthcare professionals when needed. Well-organized documentation facilitates efficient communication among the healthcare team.

6. Interprofessional Communication: Medical assistants serve as a liaison between different healthcare professionals, such as doctors, nurses, and administrative staff. They relay messages, share important patient information, and coordinate schedules and appointments, ensuring smooth communication and collaboration within the medical office.

Using Internet resources, discuss one disease of each of these systems (1) cardiovascular/heart and vessels, (2) lymphatic system and digestive system. Include causes, symptoms, and risk factors for each disease in your discussion.

Answers

Answer:

1. Cardiovascular/Heart and Vessels:

Atherosclerosis is a disease of the cardiovascular system that occurs when plaque builds up in the walls of arteries, causing them to narrow and harden. This can lead to complications such as heart attack, stroke, and peripheral artery disease. The main risk factors for developing atherosclerosis include high blood pressure, high cholesterol levels, smoking, obesity, diabetes, and a family history of the disease. The symptoms of atherosclerosis vary depending on the location of the affected artery, but can include chest pain, shortness of breath, numbness or weakness in the legs, and difficulty speaking or understanding speech. Treatment for atherosclerosis may include lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise, medications to lower blood pressure and cholesterol levels, and in severe cases, surgery to remove the blockage.

2.Lymphatic System and Digestive System:

Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the digestive system, specifically the small intestine and colon. The exact cause of Crohn's disease is unknown, but it is thought to be related to a combination of genetic and environmental factors. The symptoms of Crohn's disease include abdominal pain, diarrhea, fatigue, weight loss, and sometimes rectal bleeding. The disease can also cause complications such as intestinal blockages and fistulas. Risk factors for developing Crohn's disease include a family history of the disease, smoking, and a history of infections in the gut. Treatment for Crohn's disease may include medication to reduce inflammation, dietary changes, and in some cases, surgery to remove damaged parts of the digestive system.

How does a well impelled safety and health program affect employee retention

Answers

it increases retention rates.

Answer:

It increases retention rates.

What are Neurological disorders?

Quick​

Answers

There are a variety of neurological disorders with these being some of the most well known:

Brain Tumors.

Cerebral Aneurysm .

Epilepsy and Seizures.

Ataxia.

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

Acute Spinal Cord Injury.

Alzheimer's Disease.

Bell's Palsy.

If the adult dosage of medicine is 180 mg what is the 1/3 of the adult dose show the work

Answers

Answer:

60 mg

Explanation:

180/3=60

Dosage is the frequency and the amount of medication needed to be taken by a person in a day. The 1/3 of the adult dose of the medicine will be 60 mg.

What is a dose?

A dose is the quantity of the drugs or medicines required to be taken by organisms as recommended and prescribed by the doctor to treat a particular disease or condition.

Given, that the dose of the medicine is 180 mg.

The 1/3 dose of the medicine will be,

180 ÷ 3 = 60 mg

Therefore, 60 mg is the 1/3 dose.

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Choose the term that best matches the description given.
refers to "American" medicine; medical practice that focuses on treating and relieving symptoms
A. osteopathic
B. allopathic
C. homeopathic

Answers

Answer:

allopathic

Explanation:

Treating with Allopathic medicines is also known as Allopathy.If is most important in todays health systemThe closest enemy or competitor of allopathy is homeopathy

Answer

B. Allopathic

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The brain stem is part of the:

Answers

Spinal Cord

(I think...if it not, I'm sorry)

Answer:

THE BRAINSTEM IS LOCATED IN THE INFERIOR PORTION OF THE BRAIN. BETWEEN THE BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD

Explanation:

HINDBRAIN??

sorry for caps i was rushing lol

. Fill in the blanks using the terms provided:PolypCicatrixMaculaPruritisVesiclesNodulePustuleHeel fissureCellulitisPsoriasisEczemaKeloidFuruncleScabies1. Sarah has always suffered from dry hands and feet. Now she is concerned that the soles of her feet are cracked. She has a ___ Heel fissure_.2. Little Joey has a small whitish colored ________________ on his arm. The white color is due to the presence of pus.3. Jenny has had her ears pierced recently. Now, she has developed a significant amount of scar tissue, otherwise known as a _______________________ in each ear lobe.4. Alex had undergone major thoracic surgery as a child. He still has the scar or ___________________ to show for it.5. Tom has a vascular growth inside his ear. This is also known as a ______________________.6. Natalie has a large birthmark called a _______________ on her left leg.7. Sandra took off her new shoes to examine the blisters on her feet. Blisters are a collection of fluid-filled sacs called _____________________.8. Irene has a rounded mass of tissue called a ________________ on her arm.9. Philip has a massive boil or _________________ on his shoulder. His dermatologist has prescribed an antibiotic cream to treat it.10. Cindy was brought to the emergency room with redness on her arm accompanied by chills and fever. The attending physician diagnosed as an infection of the deeper layers of the skin otherwise known as ____________________.11. Peter returned from a camping trip with a skin problem. He was itching, which worsened at night. He also developed scabs over the most affected areas. His dermatologist suggested a topical antibiotic cream for an infection caused by a mite. This skin condition is called ___________________________.12. Little Murphy is six months old and his skin has erupted on his elbows, neck, knees and face. He is itchy and uncomfortable. Murphy suffers from __________________.13. Gary suffers from severe itching that has resulted in pink patches on his elbows, soles of his feet, arms, etc. He suffers from _____________________ a condition characterized by itching.14. The Latin word for severe itching is ______________________.

Answers

An explanation of a heel fissure is a crack or split in the skin on the heel, usually caused by dryness or pressure on the foot. Little Joey has a small whitish colored pustule on his arm. The white color is due to the presence of pus.

Jenny has had her ears pierced recently. Now, she has developed a significant amount of scar tissue, otherwise known as a cicatrix in each ear lobe. Alex had undergone major thoracic surgery as a child. He still has the scar or keloid to show for it. An explanation of a keloid is an overgrowth of scar tissue that can be raised, red, and itchy. Tom has a vascular growth inside his ear. This is also known as a polyp. Natalie has a large birthmark called a macula on her left leg. An explanation of a macula is a flat, discolored area of skin that is darker or lighter than the surrounding skin.

Sandra took off her new shoes to examine the blisters on her feet. Blisters are a collection of fluid-filled sacs called vesicles. Irene has a rounded mass of tissue called a nodule on her arm. An explanation of a nodule is a small, solid bump under the skin that can be caused by a variety of factors, including infection, inflammation, or a tumor. Philip has a massive boil or furuncle on his shoulder. His dermatologist has prescribed an antibiotic cream to treat it. Cindy was brought to the emergency room with redness on her arm accompanied by chills and fever. The attending physician diagnosed as an infection of the deeper layers of the skin otherwise known as cellulitis.

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Match these prefixes and suffixes
Brady-
an-
-ion
-rrhagia

To these meanings
Absence of
Bleeding
Slow
Process

Answers

The prefixes and suffixes for medical conditions include:

Brady- : Slow ProcessAn- : Absence of-ion : the act or process of-rrhagia : Bleeding

What is bleeding?

Bleeding is the escape or loss of blood from blood vessels. It can occur internally or externally and can be caused by a variety of factors, such as injury, disease, or medical conditions. Bleeding can range from minor, such as a small cut, to severe, such as life-threatening hemorrhage.

The suffix -rrhagia is derived from the Greek word "rhegnynai," meaning "to break forth." In medical terminology, it is commonly used to denote the excessive or abnormal flow or discharge of a particular substance from a specific organ or tissue.

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Grace the is taking 7/8 of a tablespoon of cold medicine 3 times a day. How much cold medicine is she taking in one day?

Answers

Answer:

2 5/8 tablespoons a day

Explanation:

3x 7/8= 21/8

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