According to the fair labor standard act, which minor age group can have a manufacturing job if it is non-hazardous?.

Answers

Answer 1

The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) is a federal law that regulates child labor in the United States.

It prohibits the employment of children under the age of 14 in non-agricultural jobs. However, there are certain exemptions that allow minors aged 14-15 to work in some industries if the job is deemed non-hazardous. One such industry is manufacturing.According to the FLSA, minors aged 14-15 can work in manufacturing jobs that are not hazardous to their health or well-being. However, there are strict limitations on the number of hours they can work and the times of day they can work. For example, they can only work outside of school hours and cannot work more than 3 hours on a school day or 18 hours in a school week. They also cannot work before 7 a.m. or after 7 p.m. except during the summer when they can work until 9 p.m.The FLSA also requires that minors working in non-hazardous manufacturing jobs be paid at least the federal minimum wage of $7.25 per hour. These restrictions are in place to ensure that minors are protected from exploitation and are able to balance their work with their education. In addition, many states have their own laws regulating child labor that may impose additional restrictions on the employment of minors.

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Related Questions

interpret What does John Lewis mean when he says he focused on

"bringing down those signs"? How does his story about listening to De King talk about activism in Montgomery help you understand what his main goals were

Answers

The correct answer to this open question is the following.

Although there are no options attached, we can say the following.

What John Lewis meant when he says he focused on

"bringing down those signs" was that he wanted to end with those segregationist signs, attitudes, and prohibitions that oppressed and hurt African Americans in the south.

His story about listening to Dr. King talks about activism in Montgomery help me understand his main goals in that I realize that he, as a civil rights leader in the 1960s, had a good intention in his mind. He wanted respect for the civil rights of the African American people. He wanted to put a stop to the oppression of the government and police brutality. That is why he decided to participate in important protests such as the March to Selma, Alabama, on March 7, 1965. That protest was immediately stopped by the police using force.

John Lewis said that "Bringing down those signs" because he wanted to make an emphasis on ending the attitude of hate and discrimination for African Americans.

John Lewis

He is known for his contribution in Civil Rights Movement in 1960s. He began his activist career with Nashville Student Movement, where he protested against the segregation policy in private Schools.

His objective was to give equal status to the African Americans. Thus he said his famous quote "Bringing down those signs", it means he wanted to get rid of all those signs and symbols which creates an atmosphere of discrimination, and prejudice.

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What was the compromise made in the Missouri Compromise? A) To create a slave state and a non-slave state. B) To create a free state where fugitive slaves could live. C) To establish a line between slave a non-slave states. D) To settle a disagreement between Missouri and Arkansas.

Answers

I might be   A) To create a slave state and a non-slave.

Dani is preparing a speech for sociology class and had lots of information on United States demographics that she wanted to display in a visual aid. However, once she puts all the information in a chart, it becomes too cluttered to understand at a glance. What should Dani do

Answers

The best thing that Dani has to do due to the fact that the chart that she is creating has become too clustered to understand would be for her to create a second chart.

What is a visual aid?

This is an instructional material that is used in education or speech delivery to show information that is conveying the message to the audience.

The message is delivered to the audience in the form of a picture. It helps understanding to be faster.

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In using the criterion of realism (Hurwicz criterion), the coefficient of realism(α): a. Is the probability of a good state of nature. b. Describes the degree of optimism of the decision maker. c. Describe the degree of pessimism of the decision maker. d. is usually less than

Answers

The coefficient of realism (α) in the Hurwicz criterion reflects the decision maker's degree of pessimism. A higher α indicates more pessimism and a lower α reflects less pessimism. Here option C is the correct answer.

The coefficient of realism (α) in the Hurwicz criterion reflects the decision maker's attitude toward risk and their degree of pessimism. It is a value between 0 and 1 that determines the balance between pessimism and optimism in decision-making under uncertainty.

If α is closer to 0, it indicates a higher degree of pessimism, suggesting that the decision maker is more concerned about the worst-case scenario and tends to be risk-averse. On the other hand, if α is closer to 1, it reflects a higher degree of optimism, indicating that the decision maker is more focused on the best-case scenario and tends to be risk-seeking.

Therefore, option c is the correct answer: The coefficient of realism (α) describes the degree of pessimism of the decision maker.

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What is the minimum period of time for senior rater qualifications?

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The minimum period of time for senior rater qualifications is generally between 90 and 120 days, although it may vary depending on the organization. This time frame ensures that the senior rater has adequate knowledge of the individual's performance to provide an accurate and fair evaluation.

The minimum period of time for senior rater qualifications refers to the length of time a senior rater must observe an individual's performance before providing a valid assessment. This period is important to ensure that the senior rater has adequate knowledge and understanding of the individual's abilities, work quality, and overall contributions.

Typically, the minimum period for senior rater qualifications varies depending on the organization or institution. However, a common standard is a period of at least 90 to 120 days. This time frame allows the senior rater to gain a comprehensive understanding of the individual's strengths and weaknesses, enabling them to provide a fair and accurate evaluation.

During this qualification period, the senior rater will observe the individual's work habits, communication skills, problem-solving abilities, and overall job performance. This helps to ensure that the senior rater can provide an informed and objective assessment, which can be crucial for promotions, salary adjustments, and other career-related decisions.

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Which president led the United States as it expanded into California, New Mexico, Arizona, Texas, and Nevada?
A.
James K. Polk
B.
Ronald Reagan
C.
Barack Obama
D.
Richard Nixon

Answers

Answer:

The answer is A

Explanation:

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The answer is A. James K. Polk

How did Stamp act impacted Georgia?

Answers

Answer: The stamp act required that colonists pay a tax on a wide variety of legal, business, and personal items. The stamp act would soon be repealed by parliament but during that short time georgia had to deal with the unhapy distinction of being the only american colony in which revenue was collected under the act.

Explanation:

d Your ability to read the sentence "H*V* A N*C* D*Y" is used as an example of the importance of a. bottom-up processing. c. audiovisual speech perception. b. top-down processing. d. sideways processing. e Top-down processing can help a. segment acoustic signals. c. recognize words. b. recognize phonemes. d. all of these. f. The joke in the textbook with the punch line "Yeah, right" is used as an example of

Answers

The ability to read the sentence "H*V* A N*C* D*Y" demonstrates the importance of: top-down processing. The correct option is B.

Top-down processing is a cognitive process in which the brain uses context, prior knowledge, and expectations to understand and interpret sensory input. In this case, your brain fills in the missing letters of the sentence to create a meaningful message, "Have a nice day." This shows how top-down processing can help us make sense of ambiguous or incomplete information.

The joke with the punch line "Yeah, right" serves as an example of our ability to recognize words. Recognizing words involves segmenting acoustic signals, recognizing phonemes, and ultimately identifying the meaning behind them. In this instance, we understand the sarcasm implied in the punch line based on our prior knowledge and the context in which the joke is presented.

Therefore, the answer to the second part of the question is d. all of these, as recognizing words encompasses segmenting acoustic signals, recognizing phonemes, and understanding the meaning.

This shows how top-down processing can help us make sense of ambiguous or incomplete information. The correct option is B.

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Complete question:

Your ability to read the sentence "H*V* A N*C* D*Y" is used as an example of the importance of

a. bottom-up processing.

b. top-down processing.

c. audiovisual speech perception.

d. sideways processing.

e Top-down processing can help

The joke in the textbook with the punch line "Yeah, right" is used as an example of

a. segment acoustic signals.

b. recognize phonemes.

c. recognize words.

d. all of these.

symptoms of dissociative identity disorder usually begin after episodes of

Answers

Symptoms of dissociative identity disorder usually begin after episodes of trauma or significant stress in a person's life.

What are  traumatic experiences

These traumatic experiences are often repetitive, severe, and occur during childhood. Some common types of trauma that can contribute to the development of dissociative identity disorder (DID) include:

Physical, sexual, or emotional abuse

Neglect or abandonment

Witnessing domestic violence or other forms of violence

War or combat experiences

Natural disasters or accidents

Persistent bullying or harassment

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Symptoms of dissociative identity disorder usually begin after episodes of severe trauma or abuse, particularly during childhood.

These traumatic experiences can be psychological, physical, or sexual in nature. Here are some common types of trauma that may precede the development of dissociative identity disorder:

1. Childhood abuse: Physical, sexual, or emotional abuse experienced during childhood can be a significant trigger for the development of DID.

2. Neglect: Chronic neglect, such as a lack of emotional support or basic care, can also contribute to the development of dissociative symptoms.

3. Witnessing violence: Being exposed to ongoing violence or witnessing traumatic events can be traumatizing and contribute to the development of dissociative symptoms.

4. War or combat experiences: Military personnel who have experienced intense combat situations may develop dissociative symptoms as a way to cope with the overwhelming stress and trauma.

It's important to note that these symptoms can vary in severity and presentation among individuals with DID. Additionally, other mental health conditions may coexist with or mimic some of these symptoms.

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Margaret is angry that her mother insists on doing everything for her, even though Margaret began college a few months ago. Her mother schedules her doctors' appointments for her, tells Margaret when her car needs to be taken in for maintenance, and even insists on going shopping with Margaret for new clothes. Her mother must also see all of Margaret's grades and feedback from her professors. Margaret's mother is imposing on which face need?
A. Competence
B. Separation
C. Fellowship
D. Autonomy

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Margaret's mother is imposing on Autonomy face need. Option (d) is correct.

What do you mean by Separation?

Separation is defined as the act or process of forcing something apart.

A you-statement transfers responsibility for one's feelings or thoughts to the other person, whereas an I-statement asserts ownership of both. Language used in spoken and written verbal communication.

The human face is incredibly expressive and can silently reflect a wide range of emotions. Facial expressions are also ubiquitous, in contrast to some nonverbal communication techniques. In many cultures, people show happiness, sadness, anger, surprise, fear, and disgust with the same facial expressions.

Therefore, Option (d) is correct. Margaret's mother is imposing on Autonomy face need.

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What is the central idea of this passage? (3 points)

a
There is a growing interest in marketing to teens.

b
In the past, marketers did not pay attention to kids.

c
American prosperity affects teen-agers.

d
Market research firms track the teen market.

Answers

The  central idea of this passage is option A which is  There is a growing interest in marketing to teens.

What is central point?

The central point can be described as the main idea of the passage which speak the mind of the author.

In conclusion ,  central idea of this passage is option A which is  There is a growing interest in marketing to teens.

We can conclude that the central idea help in the unification of the story because this help to ties other element of the story together that is been used in the work, and this serves as the dominant impression or the universal element as it can be seen in how the teen showed interest in the marketing operation.

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what attribute do you most admire about your character and what attribute do you least admire about your character? provide at least two anecdotes about yourself that best illustrate your character considering the questions above. personal stories and characteristics are acceptable to include.

Answers

I most admire my determination.

No matter what obstacles come my way, I always strive to find a solution. I believe this is an important attribute to have, as it allows me to remain optimistic even in challenging situations. One example of this is when I was studying for my university entrance exams. Despite the difficulty of the material, I kept pushing forward and eventually achieved the scores I needed.

I least admire my procrastination. Even though I'm usually a determined person, I have a tendency to put off tasks until the last minute. This usually results in me having to scramble to finish tasks before the deadline. A good example of this happened recently when I had to write an essay. Despite knowing that the deadline was approaching quickly, I waited until the night before it was due to start writing it.

Overall, my character is shaped by my determination and my procrastination. By embracing both these attributes, I can strive to work on the latter and continue to be successful in all my pursuits.

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Which of the following collects payroll tax?
A. state and local governments
B. federal government only
C. state government only
D. local and federal governments

Answers

The answer is C state government only
C state government only

What is the most common and direct type of waste created by the bullwhip effect? choose the best answer.

Answers

Insufficient inventory can result in shorter lead times, a bad customer experience, and lost sales, while excess inventory can result in waste.

The bullwhip effect is what?

When traveling up the supply chain from the retail end to the manufacturing end, the bullwhip effect describes a situation in which modest variations in demand at the retail end of the supply chain get exaggerated.

This occurs when a retailer modifies the quantity of a product it orders from wholesalers in response to a little shift in the product's actual or anticipated demand.

The wholesaler will increase its orders from the manufacturer to an even greater extent because of the lack of complete information regarding the demand shift, and the manufacturer, being even further away, will adjust its production to an even greater extent.

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Why did the Supreme Court find the prior restraint unconstitutional? Include the arguments of the majority decision and the dissenting opinion (those who disagree).

Answers

The Supreme Court found prior restraint unconstitutional because it violates the First Amendment protection of free speech and press.

Majority decision: The Supreme Court ruled that prior restraint, which is the government's censorship or prohibition of speech before it is published, is generally unconstitutional.

The majority argued that the First Amendment's protection of free speech and press requires a heavy presumption against prior restraints, as they pose a significant threat to free expression and the flow of information.

Dissenting opinion: The dissenting justices may disagree with the majority decision, arguing that prior restraint can be constitutional under certain circumstances.

They might contend that there are exceptional cases where national security, public safety, or other compelling interests may warrant temporary prior restraints to prevent harm or preserve order.

In summary, the Supreme Court found prior restraint unconstitutional because it infringes upon the First Amendment rights of free speech and press. The majority decision emphasized the strong presumption against prior restraints, while the dissenting opinion may argue for limited exceptions based on compelling government interests.

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Is a flag the most cherished emblem of a country

Answers

Yes. The nation's favourite symbol is its flag. The symbol of freedom for the country is this one. It encapsulates the ambitions and sentiments of the Filipino people in their unwavering pursuit of independence.

It stands as a symbol of patriotism, love of country, and a sense of nationhood. By its colours and design, a country's flag conveys both its past and its present. Emblems are utilised as a way of identification while colours signify country.

In the early days of warfare, early "flags" were merely emblems mounted on poles that served as markers of identity. Coats of arms, which include a shield, a mantling, a helm, a motto, and a crest, are frequently used to represent emblems.

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the temperature range at a 2-inch soil depth for optimal top growth of warm-season turfgrasses is:

Answers

The temperature range at a 2-inch soil depth for optimal top growth of warm-season turfgrasses is 89 to 95 F.

Among all the cool-season grasses typical of northern lawns, Kentucky bluegrass offers the highest level of cold resistance, enduring the bitter winter temperatures. Additionally, fine fescues are very resistant to cold. Although some cultivars of bermudagrass are shade tolerant, common bermudagrass is the least shade tolerant of all grass species.

All turfgrasses thrive in full sun when soil temperatures and moisture levels are ideal. Water lost from leaf surfaces is not included in evapotranspiration. Compared to annual bluegrass, creeping bentgrass is more resistant to low temperatures.

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Which of the following is true regarding parents' expectations about gender and motor ability?
Select one:
a. Parents are accurate about their sons' motor abilities, but underestimate their daughters'.
b. Parents are more likely to overestimate their sons' motor abilities and underestimate their daughters' motor ability.
c. Parents overestimate the motor abilities of sons and daughters.
d. Parents are accurate about their daughters' motor abilities, but overestimate their sons'.

Answers

Parents are more likely to overestimate their sons' motor abilities and underestimate their daughters' motor ability. is true regarding parents' expectations about gender and motor ability. So, option b is correct.

The given option states that parents are more likely to overestimate their sons' motor abilities and underestimate their daughters' motor ability.

Motor abilities refer to the degree to which an individual can execute large muscle movements. These abilities are useful for a variety of activities and tasks, including sports, dancing, and everyday activities like carrying groceries.

A study on Parents' Expectations about Gender and Motor Ability showed that they overestimate their sons' motor abilities and underestimate their daughters' motor ability. For instance, parents are more likely to enroll their sons in physical activities such as basketball or soccer and daughters in dance classes or gymnastics.

This research suggests that parents may have implicit beliefs about gender roles that are based on their own experiences, stereotypes, and cultural norms. The way parents view their children's physical abilities may have an impact on their future pursuits and achievements. So, option b is correct.

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the tendency to think of an object functioning only in its usual or customary way is called _____.

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Functional-fixedness is the propensity to view an object's functionality as limited to how it typically or conventionally operates. People frequently fail to notice novel or unique use of everyday objects as a result.

The set of guidelines and procedures known as syntax control a language's sentence construction. The order in which words can appear in a phrase serves as a basic definition of syntax. The Sanskrit literature contains one of the first theories of syntactic structure.

Divergent thinking, conceptual expansion, and overcoming knowledge restrictions are three facets of creative cognition. A crucial component of creative thinking is the capacity for divergent thinking, or the capacity to generate numerous ideas from a single starting point.

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There are hallmarks that are associated with effective quality control programs. Select those hallmarks from the following list:a. Administration support, organizational support, process is ongoingb. Organizational support, community support, fiscal supportc. Fiscal support, administrative support, annual processd. Annual process, community support, organizational support

Answers

The hallmarks that are associated with effective quality control programs include administration support, organizational support, and process is ongoing.

Administration support is crucial as it ensures that the quality control program receives the necessary resources, leadership, and commitment from top-level management. Organizational support is important for fostering a culture of quality throughout the entire organization, involving all stakeholders and departments. Lastly, having an ongoing process emphasizes the continuous nature of quality control, where monitoring, evaluation, and improvement activities are consistently carried out to maintain and enhance the quality of products or services.

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reading about Mohenjo Daro how would you describe the city

Answers

Mohenjo-daro, which had incredibly complex civil engineering and urban design, was the most developed metropolis at the time.

What was Indus valley civilization?

The Indus Valley Civilization (IVC), often referred to as the Indus Civilization or the Harappan Civilization, was a Bronze Age civilization that flourished in the northwest of South Asia between 3300 and 1300 BCE and from 2600 to 1900 BCE in its full form.

One of the biggest city-settlements of the south Asian Indus Valley Civilization was Mohenjo-daro. It is located in Pakistan's Sindh province. In the year 2600 BC, the city was founded. It was one among the world's first urban centers.

Therefore, it can be concluded that Mohenjo Daro was the ancient city located near the Indus river.

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According to Piaget, middle childhood's advances of concrete operations include new abilities for performing tasks of __________.

Answers

Answer:

Conservation, Classification, and Seriation

Explanation:

What geographic feature did most civilizations develop near?
A) Mountains
B) Deserts
C) Cities
D) Water

Answers

Answer:

D. water

Explanation:

Most civilizations began near rivers and lakes. The people needed the water for drinking and growing plants, a skill learned during the Neolithic Revolution. River Valleys became ideal locations for cities and settlements because of the fertile land surrounding the river beds.

Answer:

D) Water

Explanation:

Ancient and isolated cities/civilizations often developed around a river or water source. There were rarely any civilizations near mountains or deserts, although there were some.

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What are the major religions in South Africa

Answers

Answer:There 4 major religions in South Africa

Explanation: Christianity, Islam, Hinduism and Jewish

Answer:

Explanation:

South Africa, also know as the rainbow nation because of its variety of people, cultures and religion practice its religions in complete freedom. Everyone in South Africa is free to follow whatever faith they want to, or not to follow one at all. The states don't intervene and that reflects the cultural diversity of this nation.

The major religions practiced in South Africa are Christianity, Islam, Hinduism and Judaism.

Traditional African religions are also very popular here as they are often combined with elements of Christianity and Islam and leads to better understanding and harmony.

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Hotel Chocolat is a British company founded by Angus Thirlwell and Peter Harris. It was one of the first online stores when it started selling products in 1993. The first physical shop for Hotel Chocolat opened in 2004. As of 2021, Hotel Chocolat has 103 shops, and has extended into Europe and the United States. Additionally, they have built a hotel on their working cacao farm in the Caribbean. Hotel Chocolat prides themselves on these three basic values: originality, authenticity and ethics (Hotel Chocolat, n.d.). Who are the customers for this business and what are their needs? What are the unique selling points for Hotel Chocolat products in general? How can Hotel Chocolat make use of the following costing concepts to improve its performance. Target Costing Benchmarking?

Answers

Hotel Chocolat's customers are primarily individuals who appreciate high-quality, original, and ethically sourced chocolate products.

Hotel Chocolat's customers are chocolate enthusiasts who value premium-quality chocolates and unique flavor combinations. They seek out Hotel Chocolat for its commitment to originality, offering innovative and distinctive chocolate creations. Customers also appreciate the company's focus on authenticity, which includes using high-quality ingredients and traditional production methods.

To improve performance, Hotel Chocolat can make use of costing concepts such as target costing and benchmarking. Target costing involves setting a desired selling price for a products and then working backward to determine the target cost that will enable the company to achieve the desired profit margin. This approach can help Hotel Chocolat optimize its cost structure while ensuring that products remain affordable for customers.

Benchmarking, on the other hand, involves comparing Hotel Chocolat's performance and practices against industry competitors or best-in-class companies. By identifying areas where they can improve operational efficiency, product quality, or customer service, Hotel Chocolat can enhance its overall performance and maintain a competitive edge in the market.

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Fema disaster housing grants are normally processed within how many days of application?

Answers

Fema disaster housing grants are normally processed within 10 days of application.

What is Fema disaster housing grants?

The Individuals and Households Program (IHP) of FEMA offers financial assistance and direct services to qualified disaster victims and their households who have serious needs and uninsured or underinsured expenses. Assistance from IHP cannot replace insurance and cannot cover all damages brought on by a disaster. Your essential needs will be met, and the aid will support catastrophe relief operations.

The Program includes:

Temporary housing such as rental assistance, or reimbursement for hotel costs.Temporary housing unit due to a lack of available housing resources.Funds for repair or replacement of primary residence, including driveways, roads, or bridgesFunds for Uninsured or under-insured disaster-caused expenses and serious needs such as storage, medical, dental, child care, funeral, and other miscellaneous items.Funds for hazard mitigation assistance.

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what does po qhs mean in medical terms

Answers

Take this medication by mouth before bedtime is referred to as mg PO qhs in medical language.

Quaque hora somni is the acronym used in medicine (QHS). Doctors and other healthcare professionals may also abbreviate it as QHS, QHS, or QHS. The prescription's QHS medical abbreviation can refer to the consumption of any medication in the form of a pill or syrup. The implications of eating something late at night, meanwhile, extend beyond only medications.

It may also refer to performing a specific physical activity as part of the course of treatment. Or perhaps you could do something else, like simply hydrate yourself with water or breathe in steam before bed. When the doctor notes the QHS medical abbreviation next to any action, such as inhaling steam if you have a condition like, you will realise you must do this.

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Complete question:

What does po qhs mean in medical terms?

Survival and development is impossible without the environment.Justify

Answers

Answer:

Our survival and development is impossible without the environment. Environmental resources are limited and have certain carrying capacities but due to the explosive growing population and large scale technological discoveries, human needs are always growing.

Explanation:

The ecosystem (all the communities of living organisms found in a specific place, their habitats and their interactions) in which we live provides natural services for humans and all other species that are essential to our health, quality of life and survival.
Human activities contribute to climate change by causing changes in Earth's atmosphere in the amounts of greenhouse gases, aerosols (small particles), and cloudiness. The largest known contribution comes from the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide gas to the atmosphere.
As human societies became more and more complex, they developed more ways to make the environment work for them. When they needed to make buildings, they found areas with good stones, called quarries, and moved the stones back to their towns. ... Humans chopped down forests to build towns and planted new forests for food.
People depend on plants for food, clean air, water, fuel, clothing, and shelter. Nearly all food webs begin with plants, the primary producers. During photosynthesis, green plants use sunlight to change carbon dioxide from the air and water into simple sugars made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
Oceans are the lifeblood of planet Earth and humankind. They flow over nearly three-quarters of our planet, and hold 97% of the planet's water. They produce more than half of the oxygen in the atmosphere, and absorb the most carbon from it.
The special characteristics that enable plants and animals to be successful in a particular environment are called adaptations. Camouflage, as in a toad's ability to blend in with its surroundings, is a common example of an adaptation.
The Air We Breathe. Oceans are a critical player in the basic elements we need to survive. Ocean plants produce half of the world's oxygen; then these amazing waters absorb nearly one-third of human-caused carbon dioxide emissions. Oceans also regulate our weather and form the clouds that bring us fresh water.

Which areas of the world are densely populated? Why is this so?

Answers

Of the larger countries1, Bangladesh is the most densely-populated with 1,252 people per square kilometer; this is almost three times as dense as its neighbour, India. It's followed by Lebanon (595), South Korea (528), the Netherlands (508) and Rwanda (495 per km2) completing the top five.Sep

Analyse FIVE causes of substance abuse (Náme the cause and give an analyses by explaining it) (10)​

Answers

Answer:

Genetic vulnerability, environmental stressors, social pressures, individual personality characteristics, and psychiatric problems

Explanation:

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