According to Freud, the id is a. the most basic and primitive part of the human personality.
It is responsible for our innate drives and instincts, such as hunger, thirst, aggression, and sexual desires, the id operates on the pleasure principle, which means it seeks immediate gratification for these urges, without considering consequences or societal norms. The id is often seen as the driving force behind our behavior, as it constantly strives to satisfy our basic needs and desires. However, it is not the only part of our personality. Freud also identified the ego and the superego as two other crucial components of the human psyche.
The ego is responsible for balancing the demands of the id with the realities of the external world, while the superego serves as our internal moral compass, shaped by societal norms and values. In summary, the correct answer a. the id is the most primitive aspect of our personality, driven by basic instincts and desires, it operates on the pleasure principle and seeks immediate gratification, often disregarding consequences or societal expectations. The id works in conjunction with the ego and superego to create a well-rounded personality, which navigates the complexities of human life.
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Question: Why would someone look to someone else to solve their problems?
(10 points and brainliest will be given when the question is answered...)
Answer:
they think they are intitiled to put their probkems on someone else and they dont want to face their own porblems
what are the side effects from furosemide
Approximately 6 hours after taking furosemide, this will continue. having a thirst. Being hydrated is crucial, but how much you should drink will vary depending on why you are taking furosemide.
What must I stay away from when taking furosemide?It's crucial to avoid eating too much salt when taking a diuretic like furosemide because doing so can prevent the medication from working. Eat less processed food and prepared meals as well as other items high in salt.
What impacts the body does furosemide have?Furosemide is used to treat edema and swelling brought on by congestive heart failure, liver disease, kidney disease, or other medical conditions. It functions by influencing the kidneys to boost the urine's flow.
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What is used to detect a bacterial std
Answer:
antibiotics are used to detect
a single serving of a functional food is enough to gain the beneficial effect of the food compound. T/F?
The given statement " a single serving of a functional food is enough to gain the beneficial effect of the food compound. " is false. Because its beneficial effects can vary depending on the specific food compound.
The amount of a functional food needed to gain its beneficial effects can vary depending on the specific food compound and the individual's age, sex, weight, and overall health status.
In some cases, a single serving may provide enough of the compound to achieve the desired effect, while in other cases, larger or more frequent servings may be needed. It's important to follow serving size recommendations and consult with a healthcare professional if you have any questions or concerns about incorporating functional foods into your diet.
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what is the average lifetime of a human
Digestible carbohydrates are broken down into _____. A) fats B) polysaccharides C) monosaccharides D) disaccharides
Digestible carbohydrates are broken down into C) monosaccharides .
In general , the carbohydrate in foods are converted into monosaccharide molecules this breakdown is important as the absorption of carbohydrates is necessary. When people consume food that contains carbohydrates, our digestive system converts them into the digestible sugar, that enters inside blood. And when the blood sugar levels is high, insulin is produces by pancreas, that absorb blood sugar for energy and storage.
Salivary enzyme amylase are responsible for breaking food starches into maltose, a disaccharide. And when food enters small intestine they produces enzymes called lactase, sucrase and maltase, that break down the disaccharides into monosaccharides.
Hence , C is the correct option
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if a victim begins breathing continue cpr until they are
If a victim begins breathing, you should continue CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation) until they have a return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), which means their heart is pumping blood effectively on its own and they are showing signs of sustained improvement.
When providing CPR, the primary goal is to maintain circulation and oxygenation to vital organs until advanced medical help arrives. If a victim starts breathing on their own, it is an encouraging sign but does not necessarily mean their condition has stabilized. It is important to continue providing CPR until there are clear signs of ROSC or until professional medical help takes over.
By continuing CPR until there is ROSC, you ensure that the victim receives continuous support to sustain their vital functions and increase their chances of survival. CPR involves chest compressions to maintain blood flow and artificial ventilation to provide oxygen to the lungs. These interventions should be continued until there is a definitive improvement in the victim's condition or until medical professionals take over the resuscitation efforts.
It is important to note that CPR should only be performed by individuals trained in proper techniques and guidelines. If you witness someone experiencing a cardiac arrest or other life-threatening emergency, immediately call for emergency medical assistance and follow the instructions provided by the dispatcher while waiting for help to arrive.
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Classify events occurring with inhalation and exhalationPlace the following actions with the correct phase of pulmonary ventilation.-diaphragm moves inferiorly-ribs move up and out-external intercostals contract-thorax increases in volume-diaphragm moves superiorly-ribs move down and in-internal intercostals contract-decrease in width of thorax
In inhalation events diaphragm moves inferiorly, ribs move up and out, external intercostals contract, thorax increases in volume and in exhalation events diaphragm moves superiorly, ribs move down and in, Internal intercostals contract, decrease in width of thorax.
During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and moves downwards, which increases the volume of the thoracic cavity. The external intercostal muscles between the ribs also contract, causing the ribs to move up and outwards, further expanding the thoracic cavity.
During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and moves upwards, decreasing the volume of the thoracic cavity. The internal intercostal muscles between the ribs contract, causing the ribs to move down and inwards, further decreasing the thoracic cavity's volume.
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Question #1
Multiple Choice
Which of the following explains why Dietary Guidelines were created?
to offer recommended balances of calorie intake and exercise
to reduce a person's chance of contracting diet-related diseases
to outline dietary recommendations based on USDA nutrition research
to serve as a handbook for overweight and obese people to lose weight
© 2014 Glynlyon, Inc.
Answer:
all of the above I would think.
Answer: to reduce a person’s chance of contracting diet-related diseases!
Explanation: The Dietary Guidelines were created for Americans ages two and over and contain recommendations for healthier living. When followed, these recommendations can reduce a person’s chance of contracting overweight- and diet-related diseases.
A mutation in a gene results in an animal that cannot make a protein that allows muscles to contract. Which of these is most likely to happen?
The most likely to happen associated with a mutation in a gene results in an animal that cannot make a protein that allows muscles to contract is The animal will die before having any offspring (Option B).
What is a genetic mutation?A genetic mutation is any alteration in the nucleotide sequence of the genome, which may be deleterious, beneficial or neutral depending on the environment (in this case it is harmful because the organism cannot move).
Therefore, with this data, we can see that genetic mutations may be beneficial or harmful depending on the conditions.
Complete question:
1 point A mutation in a gene results in an animal that cannot make a protein that allows muscles to contract. Which of these is most likely to happen? * A. The gene will eventually be found in all animals of the species. B.The animal will die before having any offspring. C.The gene will change back to the normal form. D.The animal will pass this gene on to many offspring.
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In the process of urine formation, filtration takes place in the:
renal corpuscle
bladder
renal pelvis
loop of Henle
collecting tubule
In the process of urine formation, filtration takes place in the renal corpuscle. So, the correct answer is (A).
What is Renal Corpuscle?Renal corpuscle is the functional unit of kidneys which is responsible for filtration of the plasma. It is the functional unit of vertebrates, also known as Malpighian body. It has two structures: the Glomerulus and Bowman's capsule.
The glomerulus is a cluster of capillary loops which is enclosed by Bowman's capsule.
Bowman's capsule has two layers:
a. The visceral layer
It is in contact with glomerulus composed of special epithelial cells known as podocytes.
b. The parietal layer
It is composed of squamous epithelial cells and is the outer layer.
The space between these two layers are called Bowman's space which contains ultrafiltrate of plasma.
Thus, in the process of urine formation, filtration takes place in the renal corpuscle. So, the correct answer is (A).
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The renal corpuscle is the location where filtration takes place throughout the process of urine production. Therefore, the appropriate response is (A).
What does the term "Renal Corpuscle" mean?The functional unit of the kidneys that is responsible for the filtration of plasma is called a renal corpuscle. In vertebrates, this is the functional unit that is also referred to as the Malpighian body. Glomerulus and Bowman's capsule are the two structures that make up this organ.
The Bowman capsule is composed of two layers:
a. The layer of visceral tissue
It comes into touch with the glomerulus, which is made up of specialized epithelial cells called podocytes.
b. The layer of parietal tissue
Squamous epithelial cells make up this layer, which serves as the surface and is the outermost layer.
Bowman's space is the area in between these two layers that is known to contain ultrafiltrate of plasma.
Therefore, the appropriate response is (A).
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The safest and preferred site for intramuscular injections on a toddler is the ________ muscle.
a vastus lateralis
b deltoid
c dorsogluteal
d ventrogluteal
The safest and preferred site for intramuscular injections on a toddler is the vastus lateralis muscle.
The safest and preferred site for intramuscular injections on a toddler is the vastus lateralis muscle. This is because it is a large, thick muscle located on the front of the thigh and is easily accessible for injections. It is also less risky compared to other sites such as the deltoid, dorsogluteal, or ventrogluteal muscles.
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A health expert evaluates the sleeping patterns of adults. Each week she randomly selects 30 adults and calculates their average sleep time. Over many weeks, she finds that 5% of average sleep time is less than 9 hours and 5% of average sleep time is more than 9.4 hours. What are the mean and standard deviation (in hours) of sleep time for the population? (Round "Mean" to 1 decimal places and "standard deviation" to 3 decimal places.)
The mean and standard deviation (in hours) of sleep time for the population are 9.2 hours (rounded to 1 decimal place) and 1.785 hours (rounded to 3 decimal places), respectively.
We are given that a health expert evaluates the sleeping patterns of adults. Each week she randomly selects 30 adults and calculates their average sleep time. Over many weeks, she finds that 5% of average sleep time is less than 9 hours and 5% of average sleep time is more than 9.4 hours.
To determine the mean and standard deviation (in hours) of sleep time for the population, we have to make use of the standard normal distribution.The 5% of average sleep time is less than 9 hours represents the left tail of the distribution. So, the corresponding Z-score is -1.64 (obtained using the standard normal table). Similarly, the 5% of average sleep time is more than 9.4 hours represents the right tail of the distribution.
So, the corresponding Z-score is 1.64. Using the formula for the Z-score, we get;
\($$Z = \frac{\overline{x} - \mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}}$$\)
Where Z is the Z-score,\($\overline{x}$\) is the sample mean,\($\mu$\) is the population mean, \($\sigma$\) is the population standard deviation, and n is the sample size.
From the information given, we know that Z for 5% of the population on both tails are -1.64 and 1.64.
Hence, we can use this information to solve for \($\mu$\) and\($\sigma$\).We have two equations:
\($$-1.64 = \frac{9 - \mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{30}}}$$$$1.64\)
\(= \frac{9.4 - \mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{30}}}$$\)
Solving the first equation for\($\mu$,\) we get;\($$\mu\)
\(= 9 + 1.64\left(\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{30}}\right)$$\)
Substituting \($\mu$\) into the second equation and solving fo\(r $\sigma$\), we get;\($$\sigma\)
=\(\frac{0.4\sqrt{30}}{3.28}\)
=\(1.785\text{ hours}$$\)
Substituting $\sigma$ into the expression we obtained for \($\mu$\), we get;
\($$\mu = 9 + 1.64\left(\frac{1.785}{\sqrt{30}}\right)\)
=\(9.22\text{ hours}$$\)
Therefore, the mean and standard deviation (in hours) of sleep time for the population are 9.2 hours (rounded to 1 decimal place) and 1.785 hours (rounded to 3 decimal places), respectively.
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What are some ways a nurse can build rapport and establish trust with an end-of-life patient and their family/support system? Include examples.
Building rapport and establishing trust with end-of-life patients and their families requires active listening, empathetic communication, cultural sensitivity, transparency, collaborative decision-making, and emotional support.
Here are some ways nurses can build rapport and establish trust:
1. Active Listening: Taking the time to actively listen to patients and their families demonstrates empathy and shows that their concerns and emotions are valued. Nurses can use techniques like open-ended questions and reflective statements to encourage patients and families to express their thoughts and feelings.
2. Empathetic Communication: Empathy is essential in end-of-life care. Nurses can show empathy by acknowledging and validating the emotions and experiences of patients and their families.
3. Respecting Cultural and Spiritual Beliefs: Recognizing and respecting the cultural and spiritual beliefs of patients and their families is crucial. Nurses can inquire about their cultural and spiritual practices and integrate them into the care plan.
4. Being Transparent and Honest: Transparency and honesty are vital in end-of-life care. Sharing information in a compassionate and understandable manner helps build trust and allows patients and families to make informed decisions about their care.
5. Collaborative Decision-Making: Involving patients and families in care decisions fosters trust and empowers them to actively participate in the care process. Nurses can engage in shared decision-making by discussing treatment options, risks, and benefits, while considering the patient's preferences and values.
6. Providing Emotional Support: Emotional support is crucial for patients and families during the end-of-life journey. This can include facilitating conversations, connecting families with support groups or counseling services, or simply providing a listening ear.
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Answer all questions read the article below attached asap no gibberish
questions
1. Write down some important statistics from the article.
2.How have number of clients at Daily Bread Food Banks changed from April 2020 to today?
3.How many people use / are clients at Toronto food banks, city wide?
4.What are the causes of food bank use? Why are people using them so much more? List the reasons outlined in the article and in the videos?
5.What defines someone who lives in ‘deep poverty’? How is it different from the official poverty line?
6.How much money do food bank users have after paying for housing?
7.What is the choice food bank users have to make?
8.What are the numbers of senior citizens users food banks?
9.What are the solutions to this problem, according to the articles and videos? Use info from the article and from the videos.
10.Do external research - you can do this part is pairs so you can discuss what you are finding: What are 2 of the 100+ Toronto mayoral candidates (voting day: June 26) proposing to do about this issue? What policies are they proposing (if any) to address this growing concern faced by many Toronto residents?
1. We can see here that important statistics:
Prior to April 2020, Daily Bread Food Bank had 60,000 client visits per month, which doubled during the pandemic.Last month, 190,000 people sought help from the Daily Bread.What is number of clients?2. Number of Clients at Daily Bread Food Banks:
The number of clients at Daily Bread Food Banks has increased significantly from April 2020 to today, with client visits doubling during the pandemic.
3. Number of People Using Food Banks Citywide:
The Who's Hungry 2022 report shows that over the last 12 months, visits to Toronto's food banks hit 1.99 million, with expectations of exceeding 2 million by the end of the year.
4. Causes of Food Bank Use:
The article mentions insufficient incomes, inflation, rising costs of living, and low wages as factors contributing to the increased use of food banks. The impact of the pandemic has also played a role in exacerbating the urban food security crisis.
5. Deep Poverty and Official Poverty Line:
Living in deep poverty is defined as having an income of less than $19,000 per year for a single person, which is below Canada's official poverty line of $24,720 annually for singles.
6. Money After Paying for Housing:
Food bank users are left with a median of $8.01 per person per day for food and other necessities after paying for rent and utilities.
7. Choice Faced by Food Bank Users:
Food bank users often face the difficult choice of allocating their limited funds between housing, bills, and food, with many struggling to afford all three.
8. Senior Citizens:
The number of seniors accessing food banks has increased, with six in ten now relying on food banks. Close to 30% of seniors report not having enough to eat, and nearly 90% live in housing they consider unaffordable.
9. Solutions:
The articles and videos suggest several solutions, including guaranteed income security, elimination of systemic poverty, addressing Toronto's housing affordability crisis, and mitigating the steep increases in the cost of living. They emphasize the need for bold and systemic changes that require action from governments at all levels.
10. Mayoral Candidates' Proposals:
External research is required to identify specific proposals from Toronto's mayoral candidates regarding addressing the issue of food insecurity and poverty reduction. Each candidate may have different policies and strategies to tackle this concern.
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Ann has been diagnosed with hypertension. Which exercise option would het doctor most likely recommend
Answer:
Aerobic exercises are the best choices for lowering blood pressure
Explanation:
The exercise option that her doctor would most likely recommend is Aerobic exercises
Aerobic exercises is a type of exercise that is often recommended to those who has high blood pressure or hypertension by health practitioner as it will help to lower their blood pressure.
Some of the Example of Aerobic exercises include:
•Swimming
•Jogging
•Dancing etc
Regular aerobics exercise for hypertension patients help to make their heart more solid as this will enbles their heart to easily pump blood with ease throughout their circulatory system thereby decreasing the blood pressure.
Inconclusion The exercise option that her doctor would most likely recommend is Aerobic exercises.
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Which government agency is charged with setting safety standards? Food and Drug Administration (FDA) National Highway Transportation Safety Agency (NHTSA) Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC) All of these.
The FDA, NHTSA, and CPSC are all government agencies responsible for setting safety standards in various domains such as food and drugs, transportation, and consumer products. Their efforts aim to protect public health and safety through regulations and enforcement.
All of the mentioned government agencies—the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), and the Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC)—are charged with setting safety standards in their respective domains.
The FDA is responsible for ensuring the safety and effectiveness of food, drugs, medical devices, cosmetics, and other related products. They establish regulations and guidelines to protect public health and safety.
The NHTSA focuses on promoting road safety by developing and enforcing safety standards for motor vehicles and related equipment. They also conduct research, provide education, and oversee vehicle recalls to enhance transportation safety.
The CPSC's primary objective is to protect consumers from unreasonable risks of injury or death associated with consumer products. They establish safety standards, conduct product testing, and enforce regulations to prevent hazards and ensure product safety.
These agencies play vital roles in safeguarding the public by setting and enforcing safety standards in their respective areas. Their efforts help protect consumers from potential risks and contribute to maintaining a safe and secure environment.
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Identify the activity you executed today. *
Your answer
Answer:
watched anime :D
Explanation:
An individual having a history of migraine headaches would most likely be diagnosed with having __________. A. A common issue of the central nervous systemb. A degenerative disorder of the central nervous systemc. A disorder of the peripheral nervous systemd. No issues please select the best answer from the choices provided. Abcd.
An individual having a history of migraine headaches would most likely be diagnosed with having: A. A common difficulty of the central nervous system
The exact purpose of migraines is unknown, but they may be an idea to be the result of ordinary mind pastimes quickly affecting nerve signals, chemical compounds, and blood vessels inside the brain.
A migraine is mostly a slight or extreme headache felt as a throbbing pain on 1 facet of the top. Many humans also have symptoms consisting of feeling sick, being sick, and expanded sensitivity to light or sound. Migraine is a not unusual fitness condition, affecting around 1 in every 5 ladies and around 1 in every 15 guys.
Pressure is a not unusual trigger of anxiety-type headaches and migraine. it may also trigger different forms of complications or lead them to worse. stress is the mainly commonplace headache trigger in kids and teens.
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A nurse is caring for a child with sickle cell anemia and is having a vaso-occlusive crisis. which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A nurse is caring for a child with sickle cell anemia and is having a vaso-occlusive crisis, the priority intervention should be implemented to maintain fluid intravenous line and administer pain medication PRN.
The Vaso-occlusive crisis, can be treated with vigorous intravenous hydration and analgesics(VIHA).
For the crisis the comfort measures are, use of analgesics, and complementary motion such as massage and distraction are the keys.
The healthcare providers should focus upon hydration, prevention of infections, and early recognition of complications.
It is so because a nurse's primary responsibility is to treat the cause of the crisis and the pain of the patient.
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do you automatically get medicare with social security
According to, The Social Security Administration, "If you already get Social Security benefits, you do not need to sign up for Medicare. We will automatically enroll you in Original Medicare (Part A and Part B) when you become eligible."
Hope this is helpful
which of the following actions is a person most likely to take if he or she has a high level of self-discipline
Answer:
they are likely to restrict themselves
Explanation:
as a person with high discipline, they are likely to restrict themselves on things they enjoy or no breaks until it is accomplished no matter the time.
Question 36(Multiple Choice Worth 3 points) (01.08 LC)Which of the following is an example of a cardiorespiratory fitness activity?
A. Doing yoga
B. Lifting weights
C. Gymnastics
D. Cycling
Answer:
I will go with option D. Cycling. Hope this helps please mark me BRAINLIEST. Thanks
what part of your nervous system is at work as you are moving your hand to choose the right answer on this test
Answer:
The Somatic Nervous System controls the movement in your hand.
Explanation:
Studied it for a long time, I hope this helps you as much as intended.
Using refusal skills involves taking all of the following steps EXCEPT:
A.
State your position simply but firmly.
B.
Back up your words with your actions.
C.
If necessary, be hostile to show you mean what you say.
D.
Suggest alternatives to the behavior being proposed.
Create an organizer that relates these terms & Aki’s case: gel electrophoresis, LDL receptor gene, PCR, mutation, restriction enzyme, RFLPs, DNA
Answer:
Title: DNA Analysis Techniques Used in Aki's Case
I. Introduction
Brief overview of Aki's case
Purpose of the organizer
II. DNA
Definition of DNA
Importance of DNA analysis in Aki's case
III. Gel Electrophoresis
Definition of gel electrophoresis
How gel electrophoresis is used to analyze DNA in Aki's case
IV. PCR
Definition of PCR
How PCR is used to amplify DNA in Aki's case
V. Mutation
Definition of mutation
How mutations can be detected in Aki's DNA
VI. Restriction Enzyme
Definition of restriction enzyme
How restriction enzymes are used in DNA analysis in Aki's case
VII. RFLPs
Definition of RFLPs
How RFLPs are used to analyze DNA in Aki's case
VIII. LDL Receptor Gene
Definition of LDL receptor gene
Importance of the LDL receptor gene in Aki's case
IX. Conclusion
Recap of DNA analysis techniques used in Aki's case
Significance of DNA analysis in forensic science and medical research.
Explanation:
Answer:
Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP)
is a difference in homologous DNA sequences that can be detected by the presence of fragments of different lengths after digestion of the DNA samples in question with specific restriction endonucleases. RFLP, as a molecular marker, is specific to a single clone/restriction enzyme combination.
Most RFLP markers are co-dominant (both alleles in heterozygous sample will be detected) and highly locus-specific.
An RFLP probe is a labeled DNA sequence that hybridizes with one or more fragments of the digested DNA sample after they were separated by gel electrophoresis, thus revealing a unique blotting pattern characteristic to a specific genotype at a specific locus. Short, single- or low-copy genomic DNA or cDNA clones are typically used as RFLP probes.
The RFLP probes are frequently used in genome mapping and in variation analysis (genotyping, forensics, paternity tests, hereditary disease diagnostics, etc.).
How It Works
Principle of RFLP analysis
SNPsor INDELs can create or abolish restriction endonuclease (RE) recognition sites, thus affecting quantities and length of DNA fragments resulting from RE digestion.
Genotyping
RFLP genotyping
Developing RFLP probes
Total DNA is digested with a methylation-sensitive enzyme (for example, PstI), thereby enriching the library for single- or low-copy expressed sequences (PstI clones are based on the suggestion that expressed genes are not methylated).
The digested DNA is size-fractionated on a preparative agarose gel, and fragments ranging from 500 to 2000 bp are excised, eluted and cloned into a plasmid vector (for example, pUC18).
Digests of the plasmids are screened to check for inserts.
Southern blots of the inserts can be probed with total sheared DNA to select clones that hybridize to single- and low-copy sequences.
The probes are screened for RFLPs using genomic DNA of different genotypes digested with restriction endonucleases. Typically, in species with moderate to high polymorphism rates, two to four restriction endonucleases are used such as EcoRI
PCR-RFLP
Isolation of sufficient DNA for RFLP analysis is time consuming and labor intensive. However, PCR can be used to amplify very small amounts of DNA, usually in 2-3 hours, to the levels required for RFLP analysis. Therefore, more samples can be analyzed in a shorter time. An alternative name for the technique is Cleaved Amplified Polymorphic Sequence (CAPS) assay.
Physical health refers to the degree of functionality of a person's body.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided.
ОТ
OF
Insured health care services include
A. hearing aids.
B. drugs prescribed outside hospitals.
C. medically necessary surgical-dental services.
D. home care and nursing.
Nicotine, carbon monoxide and tar are all bad for a person's heart. Explain how
the three can cause an ENLARGED HEART.
Answer:
Tobacco and cigarette smoke can damage heart and blood vessels ... Carbon monoxide binds hemoglobin, the molecule in your blood that carries oxygen. ... an enlarged heart and stiffer and less elastic blood vessels make it
Explanation:
6. How will the egg prevent other sperm from entering.
O By hidding
O Creates a harden outer membrane
O By moving
O Creates multiple eggs
Answer:
Creates a harden outer membrane
Hope this helps! :)