A population of birds from a West coast species and an East coast species migrate to the Midwest. They start breeding together and develop a population that looks like both species. This is an example of which form of speciation?
A. Allopatric Speciation
B. Sympatric Speciation
C. Parasympatric Speciation
I think its C​

Answers

Answer 1

The speciation that occurred in the species is parapratic speciation.

What is speciation?

Speciation is the process by which new species of organisms are produced from original species.

The types of speciation are:

Allopatric SpeciationSympatric SpeciationParapatric Speciation

In parapratic speciation, two sub-populations of a species separated from the original population develop similar traits.

Therefore, the speciation that occurred in the species is parapratic speciation.

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Related Questions

pizzicato is an indication to the performer to ______.

Answers

Pizzicato is an indication to the performer to pluck the strings of a bowed string instrument.

Bowed stringed instruments are instruments that are played by rubbing a bow against the strings , such as the violin , viola, cello, and double bass.

Pizzicato , in contrast, is a technique that involves plucking the strings with the fingers instead of using the bow. Pizzicato notes are indicated in sheet music by a small "pizz" symbol above the notes, or sometimes simply by the letters "pizz."

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Why do some traits of the same species vary?

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Answer:

Variation among individuals of the same species can be explained by both genetic and environmental factors. ... The set of variations of genes present, together with the interactions of genes with their environment.

Explanation:

what will happen if we don't protect birds

Answers

Answer:

Humans would lose a large part of their diet. Insects would would increase a lot. We would lose all products produced from bird parts.

Explanation:

this answer i need pls ill mark brainliest

this answer i need pls ill mark brainliest

Answers

All - growth, exchange of gases, excretion, reproduction, and death (option d).

All living organisms undergo various life processes to maintain their existence. Let's analyze each option to determine which life processes are carried out by an organism's cells:

A. Only growth and exchange of gases: While cells are involved in growth and exchange of gases, they also participate in other life processes. This option is incomplete.

B. Only growth, exchange of gases, and reproduction: Cells play a crucial role in reproduction as they are responsible for the production of gametes and the process of cell division. However, there are additional life processes that cells also undertake.

C. Only growth, exchange of gases, excretion, and reproduction: This option includes excretion in addition to growth, exchange of gases, and reproduction. Cells participate in excretion by eliminating waste materials. However, there is one more life process that cells experience.

D. All - growth, exchange of gases, excretion, reproduction, and death: This option encompasses all the mentioned life processes. Cells are involved in growth as they undergo cell division and increase in number. They exchange gases through processes like respiration. Cells excrete waste products. They participate in reproduction through the formation of gametes and cell division. Lastly, cells also experience death as they have a limited lifespan.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. All - growth, exchange of gases, excretion, reproduction, and death.

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The process for identifying adverse consequences and their associated probability is known as: o Hazard identification O Risk assessment o Cost-effective analysis o Exposure assessment

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The process for identifying adverse consequences and their associated probability is known as (b) risk assessment.

Risk assessment involves evaluating potential hazards or dangers and assessing the likelihood of those hazards occurring and the potential impacts they may have.

It is a systematic approach used to identify, analyze, and evaluate risks in order to make informed decisions and take appropriate actions to mitigate or manage those risks. Risk assessment considers factors such as the nature of the hazard, exposure pathways, the population or assets at risk, and the potential consequences of the hazard.

By conducting risk assessments, individuals and organizations can better understand and prioritize risks, implement preventive measures, and develop strategies to minimize the impact of adverse events.

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What may be a consequence of mutating the protein p53?.

Answers

The p53 protein is a tumor suppressor that functions to maintain genomic stability. Mutations in this protein can lead to the development of cancer by reducing or completely eliminating the protein's function.What is p53 protein?p53 protein is a DNA-binding protein that regulates the cell cycle and prevents the formation of tumors by preventing the growth and division of cells with damaged DNA.

When DNA damage is detected, p53 protein causes the cell cycle to stop, allowing time for DNA repair. However, if the damage is beyond repair, p53 initiates apoptosis, which is the programmed cell death of the damaged cells. This process ensures that damaged cells are not passed on to daughter cells.

P53 is commonly referred to as the "guardian of the genome," and mutations in this gene occur in approximately 50% of human cancers. Mutations that inactivate the p53 protein or reduce its function can lead to the development of tumors by allowing cells with damaged DNA to continue to divide and proliferate, leading to genomic instability and ultimately cancer. Therefore, it is crucial that p53 functions correctly to maintain genomic stability.

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A target cell will respond to a chemical messenger once that molecule has bound to aA) complex in the nucleus.B) protein kinase.C) G protein.D) receptor.E) calcium channe

Answers

A target cell will respond to a chemical messenger once that molecule has bound to a receptor, thus the correct option is D.

A protein known as a receptor binds to a certain chemical. Its binding partner is referred to as the ligand. Any molecule, including inorganic minerals, proteins made by living things, hormones, and neurotransmitters, can act as a ligand. The receptor protein's ligand-binding site is where the ligand binds.

The receptor goes through a conformational change as a result of this interaction. The function of the protein is slightly modified by this shape alteration. The receptor's conformational shift may enable it to function as an enzyme and actively combine or separate specific chemicals.

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The ul for iron is ________ times the rda for women.

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The UL (Tolerable Upper Intake Level) for iron is the maximum amount of iron that is unlikely to cause harm when consumed on a daily basis. The UL is set based on scientific evidence and takes into account the potential risks associated with consuming too much of a nutrient.

The UL for iron is determined by considering the potential adverse effects that may occur from excessive intake. It is important to note that the UL for iron varies depending on age, sex, and life stage. For adult women, the UL for iron is set at 45 milligrams per day. To determine how many times the UL is compared to the RDA (Recommended Dietary Allowance) for women, we need to know the RDA for iron.

The RDA represents the average daily intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of most healthy individuals. The RDA for iron for adult women aged 19-50 is 18 milligrams per day. Please note that without the specific value for the UL, the calculation cannot be completed.

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The group of cells in the hypothalamus that is stimulated by food intake is known as the ________ center.
A) eating
B) satiety
C) basal
D) energy

Answers

The group of cells in the hypothalamus that is stimulated by food intake is known as the eating center. The correct option is A) eating.

The hypothalamus is a part of the brain that links the nervous system to the endocrine system through the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus contains various nuclei that regulate a variety of physiological and behavioral processes, including the regulation of appetite and energy expenditure.

There are two types of nuclei present in the hypothalamus; one is the hunger (feeding) center, and the other is the satiety center. Hunger refers to the desire to consume food, while satiety refers to the sensation of being full or satisfied after eating. The hunger center is responsible for stimulating food intake, while the satiety center is responsible for suppressing food intake.

The hypothalamus, which is the area of the brain that regulates eating and drinking, is stimulated when the body requires food. Hormonal changes signal the hypothalamus to increase or decrease appetite, depending on the body's needs. Eating too much or too little can lead to hormonal imbalances, resulting in obesity or anorexia.

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How is the modern classification system different than an original classification system?

Answers

On the other hand, the modern system of classification does not only study the observable features but it also traces the evolutionary line and relationships between organisms to classify them into larger categories or clades.

What role do enzymes play in chemical reactions?

Answers

Answer:

Enzymes allow many chemical reactions to occur within the homeostasis constraints of a living system. Enzymes function as organic catalysts. A catalyst is a chemical involved in, but not changed by, a chemical reaction. Many enzymes function by lowering the activation energy of reactions.

Explanation:

I believe this is correct, if not let me know and I will fix it. I'm sorry in advance if it is incorrect.

Answer:

Las enzimas​​ son moléculas orgánicas que actúan como catalizadores de reacciones químicas​, es decir, aceleran la velocidad de rea cciLos enzimas son proteínas que catalizan reacciones químicas en los seres vivos. Los enzimas son catalizadores, es decir, sustancias que, sin consumirse en una reacción, aumentan notablemente su velocida.ón.

Explanation:

The least numerous but the largest of the papillae are arranged as a V-shape on the posterior dorsal surface of the tongue. They contain the majority of taste buds and are called ________ papillae. papiform filiform fungiform vallate foliate

Answers

The least numerous but the largest of the papillae are arranged as a V-shape on the posterior dorsal surface of the tongue. They contain the majority of taste buds and are called vallate papillae.The tongue is an organ located in the oral cavity, where it performs numerous functions.

It assists in mastication, swallowing, and talking. The upper surface of the tongue is rough and hairy because it is covered with thousands of papillae. The papillae can be classified into four different types depending on their structure, size, and function. These are filiform, fungiform, vallate, and foliate papillae.The filiform papillae are small and conical and are present on the anterior dorsal surface of the tongue. They do not contain taste buds but are responsible for providing a rough surface on the tongue that is useful for holding food and detecting textures.

The fungiform papillae are mushroom-shaped and are scattered among the filiform papillae. They contain taste buds and are responsible for detecting different tastes such as sweet, sour, salty, and bitter. They are present on the anterior dorsal surface of the tongue.The vallate papillae are the least numerous but the largest of the papillae. They are arranged as a V-shape on the posterior dorsal surface of the tongue. They contain the majority of taste buds and are responsible for detecting bitter tastes. They are located on the border between the anterior and posterior portions of the tongue.

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which process, known as intestinal churning, involves a squeezing motion of the circular layer of smooth muscle in the small intestine?

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The process known as intestinal churning, or peristalsis, is an automatic wave-like motion of muscular contractions in the digestive tract. It is the process that facilitates the mechanical digestion of food by forcing it through the gastrointestinal tract.

In the small intestine, a squeezing motion of the circular layer of smooth muscle is known as intestinal churning. This motion moves food particles through the small intestine by propelling them along the wall of the small intestine. During intestinal churning, food particles and digestive juices are both expelled further down the digestive tract so that additional nutrients can be absorbed.

Intestinal churning can also be referred to as 'bowel motility'. It is triggered by several factors including the ingestion of food, hormones released during digestion, and when intestinal walls are stretched by the presence of food or gas. Intestinal churning is regulated by a specialized type of nerve cell known as interstitial cells of Cajal.

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complete question is :

what process, known as intestinal churning, involves a squeezing motion of the circular layer of smooth muscle in the small intestine?

1. Which is the oldest in the cross section?
a. granite b. schist c. basalt d. sandstone e. limestone

2. What relationship allows you to tell the relative ages between the schist and conglomerate?
a. cross-cutting relationship b. principle of inclusion c. principle of stratigraphic superposition d. principle of original continuity e. principle of original horizontality

3. Which strata is the youngest in the sedimentary sequence NW of the fault?
a. breccia b. basalt c. sandstone d. limestone e. Unit C

4. What is the youngest sedimentary unit in the "folded sequence" beneath the Sandstone?
a. breccia b. basalt c. sandstone d. limestone e. Unit C

5. What type of fault cuts the cross-section?
a. a right-lateral strike-slip fault b. a left-lateral strike-slip fault c. a normal fault d. a thrust fault

6. What is the age of the fault relative to the age of the granite?
a. the granite is younger than the fault b. the granite is older than the fault c. they are the same age d. there is no way to tell the age relationships from the cross-section

7. contact between the schist and the folded sequence is:
a. nonconformity. b. angular unconformity. c. disconformity d. intrusive contact. e. tectonic contact.

8. contact between the sandstone unit and the underlying folded sequence is:
a. nonconformity. b. angular unconformity. c. disconformity. d. intrusive contact. e. a conformable depositional contact.

9. contact between Unit C and the underlying Unit B is:
a. nonconformity. b. angular unconformity. c. disconformity. d. a conformable depositional contact

10. contact between the diorite and the folded sequence is:
a. nonconformity. b. angular unconformity. c. disconformity. d. intrusive contact. e. tectonic contact.

11. fault cutting across the cross-section, dips in which direction?
a. Northwest b. Southwest c. Northeast d. Southeast

12. The fold Southeast of the fault is:
a. anticline b. syncline c. monocline d. homocline

13. What best descibes the activity of the fault?
a. The fault is inactive.
b. The fault could be active.
c. impossible to tell if the fault is active or not

14. In the rock record, how many periods of mountain building are depicted in this cross-section?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. there are no mountain building events depicted

15. Could faulting and igneous activity have occurred at the same time?
a. Yes b. No c. There is no way to tell

Answers

1. a. granite

2. c. principle of stratigraphic superposition

3. d. limestone

4. a. breccia

5. c. a normal fault

6. b. the granite is older than the fault

7. e. tectonic contact

8. e. a conformable depositional contact

9. d. a conformable depositional contact

10. d. intrusive contact

11. a. Northwest

12. b. syncline

13. b. The fault could be active.

14. c. 3

15. c. There is no way to tell

Explanation to the above given short answers are written below,

1. The oldest rock in the cross-section is indicated by the bottom layer, which is the granite.

2. The principle of stratigraphic superposition states that in a sequence of undisturbed sedimentary rocks, the lower layers are older than the upper layers. By observing that the conglomerate is below the schist, we can infer that the conglomerate is older than the schist.

3. The youngest strata in the sedimentary sequence NW of the fault is d. limestone, as it is the uppermost layer in that area.

4. The youngest sedimentary unit in the "folded sequence" beneath the Sandstone is a. breccia, which is the uppermost layer within the folded sequence.

5. The fault cutting across the cross-section is c. a normal fault, as indicated by the downward displacement of the rocks on one side of the fault.

6. The age relationship between the fault and the granite can be determined from the cross-section. Since the granite is cut by the fault, it indicates that the granite is older than the fault.

7. The contact between the schist and the folded sequence is e. tectonic contact, indicating that it is a result of tectonic forces rather than a conformable depositional contact.

8. The contact between the sandstone unit and the underlying folded sequence is e. a conformable depositional contact, suggesting that the sandstone was deposited on top of the folded sequence.

9. The contact between Unit C and the underlying Unit B is d. a conformable depositional contact, indicating that Unit C was deposited on top of Unit B without any significant interruption.

10. The contact between the diorite and the folded sequence is d. intrusive contact, indicating that the diorite is an intrusive igneous rock that intruded into the folded sequence.

11. The fault dips in the direction of a. Northwest, as indicated by the direction of the arrows pointing downward on the fault plane.

12. The fold Southeast of the fault is b. syncline, as it shows a downward fold with the youngest layers in the center.

13. The activity of the fault is uncertain and could be active, as indicated by the option b. The fault shows evidence of recent movement, but further investigation is needed to determine its current activity.

14. In the rock record, there are c. 3 periods of mountain building depicted in this cross-section, as indicated by the presence of three major fold structures.

15. It is not possible to determine from the given information whether faulting and igneous activity occurred at the same time. The cross-section does not provide direct evidence of the timing of these events.

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“how many eggs form in meiosis? what else forms and why “

Answers

Answer:Meiosis contains two separate cell divisions, meaning that one parent cell can produce four gametes

Explanation:

because I am smart

Answer:

One egg forms in Meiosis.

as well as Four Gametes

Explanation:

Connor listed the steps involved when a Portuguese man of war reproduces
1.sperm and eggs are released into the water
2.eggs are fertilized
3.larvae develop and attach to the surface
4.larvae grow into polyps
5.each polyp from tiny medusae
which described the missing step

Answers

The missing step in the process of Portuguese man-of-war reproduction is; The medusae bud off the polyp after step 5. Option C is correct.

After each polyp forms tiny medusae in the step 5, these medusae bud off the polyp and become free-swimming individuals. These medusae are the reproductive stage of the Portuguese man-of-war and are responsible for producing the sperm as well as eggs that will eventually lead to the development of the new polyps.

There is no mention in the description of the larvae breaking into pieces or the polyps breaking into pieces, and there is no indication that the polyps regenerate before step 5.

Hence, C. is the correct option.

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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is

"Connor listed the steps involved when a Portuguese man-of-war reproduces. I only have an hour on this test 1. Sperm and eggs are released into the water. 2. Eggs are fertilized. 3. Larvae develop and attach to a surface. 4. Larvae grow into polyps. 5. Each polyp forms tiny medusae. Which describes the missing step? A) The larvae break into pieces after step 3. B) The polyps break into pieces after step 4. C) The medusae bud off the polyp after step 5. D) The polyps regenerate before step 5."--

men need to inherit only one copy of the recessive allele for the condition to be fully expressed. true or false

Answers

The statement "men need to inherit only one copy of the recessive allele for the condition to be fully expressed" is partially true because  It depends on the specific condition and whether it is sex-linked or autosomal.

In autosomal recessive conditions, both males and females need to inherit two copies of the recessive allele in order for the condition to be fully expressed. This means that if a male inherits only one copy of the recessive allele, he will be a carrier of the condition but will not show any symptoms.

However, if he has children with a carrier female, there is a 25% chance that their offspring will inherit both copies of the recessive allele and thus show symptoms of the condition.

In contrast, some conditions are sex-linked and are carried on the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome, so if they inherit a recessive allele for a sex-linked condition from their mother, they will show symptoms of the condition.

This is because they do not have another X chromosome to offset the effects of the recessive allele. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes and would need to inherit two copies of the recessive allele to show symptoms of a sex-linked condition.

In summary, the statement is true for some sex-linked conditions but false for autosomal recessive conditions. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of specific genetic conditions to accurately interpret their expression in males and females.

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process of converting food into chemical substances that can be absorbed into bloodstream used by body tissues and organs._____

Answers

The process of converting food into chemical substances that can be absorbed into the bloodstream and used by body tissues and organs is called digestion. Digestion is a complex process that involves the breakdown of food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed and used by the body for energy and nutrition. Digestion begins in the mouth, where food is mechanically broken down by chewing and mixed with enzymes that begin to break down the food chemically. The partially digested food then passes through the esophagus and into the stomach, where it is further mechanically and chemically broken down. From the stomach, the partially digested food moves into the small intestine, where it is mixed with bile and enzymes that help to complete the digestion process. The resulting small molecules, such as amino acids and simple sugars, are then absorbed into the bloodstream and transported to the body's tissues and organs to be used for energy, growth, and repair.

DNA polymerases also have nuclease activities. Which of the following is not a use for the nuclease activity of DNA polymerase I?
-proofreading during synthesis
-trimming single-stranded ends
-removal of RNA primers
-degradation of viral DNAs
-removal of DNA lesions during repair

Answers

The use of the nuclease activity of DNA polymerase I that is not related to its function is degradation of viral DNAs. DNA polymerases have nuclease activity that helps in proofreading during synthesis, trimming single-stranded ends, removal of RNA primers, and removal of DNA lesions during repair.

DNA polymerase I has both 5' to 3' polymerase and exonuclease activity, which enables it to remove RNA primers and to proofread during DNA synthesis. The 3' to 5' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I helps in removing DNA lesions during repair by cutting out the damaged nucleotides from the strand. Additionally, it can also trim single-stranded ends during DNA replication, which is required to create blunt ends for ligation in cloning procedures. However, DNA polymerases do not have a specific nuclease activity for the degradation of viral DNAs. Thus, the nuclease activity of DNA polymerase I is primarily involved in DNA synthesis, repair, and modification and not degradation of viral DNAs.

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which molecules would you expect to find at the bottom of the diagram?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:carbon dioxide and water molecules to find at the bottom of the diagram because these are the products which produce in the cellular respiration.

What do you think is the function of the blood vessels?

Answers

Answer:

The function of blood vessels is blood vessels are the channels or conduits through which blood is disturbed to body tissues

SOMEONEEEEEE HELPPPP MEEEE

SOMEONEEEEEE HELPPPP MEEEE

Answers

Answer:

The answer is B.

Explanation:

Answer:I think it’s A

Explanation:

I hope this helps:)

What data point should Gomer disregard as it looks like an error occurred when it was collected?

a. Point A
b. Point B
c. Point C
d. Point D

What data point should Gomer disregard as it looks like an error occurred when it was collected?a. Point

Answers

I think it is is B.) Point B

Non-producers eat producers.
WHOEVER ANSWERS GETS TO BE THE BRAINLIEST!!

Answers

Answer:

Plants are called producers. This is because they produce their own food! They do this by using light energy from the Sun, carbon dioxide from the air and water from the soil to produce food - in the form of glucouse/sugar. ... Animals that eat both animals AND plants.

Plates, columns and needles are all different types of shapes, also known as the crystal's a. d. structure b. a. crystals c. e. character d. b. habit e. c. lattice

Answers

Plates, columns, and needles are different types of shapes observed in crystals, which are also referred to as their habit.

Crystals possess a characteristic structure known as their lattice, which is a three-dimensional arrangement of atoms or molecules. The lattice structure determines the overall shape and external appearance of the crystal, which is commonly referred to as the crystal's habit. Plates, columns, and needles are specific habits or shapes that crystals can exhibit.

Plates are flat, plate-like crystals that have a two-dimensional shape with larger surface areas compared to their thickness. They often appear as thin, parallel layers stacked on top of each other. Columnar crystals, on the other hand, are elongated and have a prismatic shape, resembling columns or pillars. Needles, as the name suggests, are long and thin crystals that resemble needles or hair-like structures.

The habit of a crystal depends on various factors, including the conditions in which it forms, the arrangement of atoms or molecules in its lattice, and the growth rates of different crystal faces. These factors contribute to the development of specific shapes or habits in crystals. By studying the habit of crystals, scientists can gain insights into their formation and growth processes, as well as their physical properties.

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Now write the mRNA strand for the given DNA strand.
5. ATG TCG CTG ATA CTG
6

Answers

6. TAC AGC GAC TAT GAC

Which male reproductive structure is not correctly matched with its function?.

Answers

Answer:

epididymis

Explanation:

produce sperm

Largest Gland of our human Body?​

Answers

The largest gland is Liver In human being

the approach used to study motor learning should be a function of ___?

Answers

The approach used to study motor learning should be a function of the learner's individual needs, abilities, and goals. Understanding motor learning is essential for developing effective teaching and training methods to improve motor skills and overall performance in various activities, such as sports and physical rehabilitation.

Firstly, individual needs should be considered, as each person has unique strengths, weaknesses, and learning styles. Assessing the learner's current abilities and prior experiences helps in designing an appropriate training program tailored to their needs. This may include selecting the right level of difficulty and type of training, such as visual, auditory, or kinesthetic.

Secondly, taking into account the learner's abilities is essential in determining the progression and intensity of the training program. For example, a beginner may require more focus on basic motor skills, while an advanced athlete may need to refine their technique and improve specific aspects of their performance. Furthermore, some learners may have physical limitations or disabilities that need to be accommodated to ensure effective and safe motor learning.

Lastly, the goals of the learner should be considered to ensure that the training program aligns with their desired outcomes. This may involve training for a specific event, improving overall performance, or maintaining physical health and wellness.

In conclusion, the approach used to study motor learning should be a function of the learner's individual needs, abilities, and goals. By taking these factors into account, an effective and tailored training program can be developed to maximize motor skill development and performance improvement.

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What are four basic types of intensive fish culture systems?l​

Answers

Answer:They are Monoculture, Polyculture and Monosex Culture.

Explanation:

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