A nurse is caring for a client who has COPD. a Exhibit 1 Exhibit 2 Exhibit 3 Nurses' Notes 1000: Client admitted with a productive cough with thick yellow sputum. Breath sounds with crackles heard in left upper lobe and decreased breath sounds at bases bilaterally. A nurse is caring for a client who has COPD. Exhibit 1 Exhibit 2 Exhibit 3 Vital Signs 1000: Temperature 38.6° C (101.5° F) BP 114/56 mm Hg Heart rate 99/min Respirations 32/min Oxygen saturation 85% on room air A nurse is caring for a client who has COPD. а Day Exhibit 3 Exhibit 1 Exhibit 2 Diagnostic Results 1200: Chest x-ray shows lung hyperinflation and left upper lobe pneumonia. Select the 3 findings that require follow-up. . Breath sounds Blood pressure Oxygen saturation Temperature Heart rate
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the right choice is A), C), D) are the 3 condition that require followup by the nurse.
Vital indicators of the COPD patient:
Temperature is 38.6° C, which is higher than the patient's usual body temperature of 37° C.
thus monitoring and follow-up should be used.
Blood pressure: 114/56 mm Hg — Since an adult's typical blood pressure ranges from 90 to 119 systolic over 60 to 79 diastolic, the diastolic reading is slightly lower in this case.
Heart rate: 99 beats per minute; typical range is 60 to 100 beats per minute, so patient's heart rate is normal.
respiration rate: 32/min, when the average respiratory rate is 12–16/min.
Therefore, the patient's respiration rate has greatly increased. Follow up and monitoring are required.
85% oxygen saturation compared to a normal range of 95-100%
It has fallen significantly, therefore it needs to be monitored and followed up on frequently.
Thus the right choice is A), C), D) are the 3 condition that require follow up by the nurse.
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Related Questions
An infertile couple seeks the assistance of a clinic when they are unable to conceive a child. Through in vitro fertilization, (IVF), their dream is realized when they give birth to a baby girl. After some time passes, the baby's features appear to be Asian (the couple is white). Their worst nightmare begins when they learn that the husband is not the biological father of the child. The clinic is ordered to reveal the identity of all donors who could potentially be the father of the child. Whose rights are superior? the child, the mother, the unknown father? As a malpractice case, how do you begin to assess damages?
Answers
1. Rights of the Child: The rights of the child should be a primary concern in such cases. The child has the right to know their genetic identity and biological origins, as this information can be crucial for their well-being and understanding of their own identity. Establishing the truth about their parentage can have significant emotional, psychological, and medical implications for the child. Therefore, the child's rights to genetic information and the truth about their parentage may be considered paramount.
2. Rights of the Mother: The mother's rights may include the right to privacy and reproductive autonomy. However, in a case where there is a discrepancy between the intended father and the biological father, these rights may be weighed against the child's right to know their genetic identity. The extent of the mother's rights and the legal obligations towards disclosing the information can vary based on local laws and specific contractual agreements between the parents and the IVF clinic.
3. Rights of the Unknown Father: The rights of the unknown biological father may also come into consideration. However, since the identity of the biological father is typically unknown, it may be challenging to assess or protect his specific rights. The focus is often on the rights of the child and the legal obligations of the IVF clinic to provide the necessary information to establish the child's parentage accurately.
Assessing damages in a malpractice case related to IVF can involve a variety of factors, such as emotional distress, psychological harm, breach of contract, professional negligence, and any associated medical costs. Legal experts specializing in family law or medical malpractice would typically be involved in evaluating the specific circumstances of the case, the applicable laws, and determining the appropriate course of action for assessing damages.
It is crucial to consult with a legal professional who specializes in reproductive law, family law, or medical malpractice to understand the specific legal principles and regulations that apply to the jurisdiction where the case is being considered. They can provide accurate and tailored advice based on the relevant laws and precedents in that jurisdiction.
The nurse in an ambulatory surgery center triages telephone messages from clients. Which client should the nurse call back first?
1. Client who had a colonoscopy with polypectomy who reports abdominal cramping and a small amount of rectal bleeding
2. Client who had a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion 3 days ago who reports straining to have a bowel movement
3. Client who underwent laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair yesterday who reports difficulty urinating
4. Client who underwent placement of an arteriovenous graft who reports a temperature of 100.9 F (38.3 C)
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Based on the urgency and potential severity of the reported symptoms, the nurse should call back the option 1- client who had a colonoscopy with polypectomy and is now reporting abdominal cramping and a small amount of rectal bleeding as the first priority.
These symptoms could indicate post-procedure complications such as bleeding or infection, and should be assessed and managed promptly.
The nurse should then call back the client who underwent laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair yesterday and is reporting difficulty urinating as a second priority. This could indicate urinary retention, which can be a serious complication if left untreated.
The client who had a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion 3 days ago and is reporting straining to have a bowel movement should be called back next, as this could indicate constipation or fecal impaction, which can be uncomfortable and lead to other complications if not addressed.
Finally, the client who underwent placement of an arteriovenous graft and is reporting a temperature of 100.9 F (38.3 C) should be called back last, as fever can be a sign of infection but may not be as urgent as the other reported symptoms. The nurse should assess the client's overall clinical picture and determine if any additional interventions or referrals are needed.
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Ruby is 25 and has a good job at a biotechnology company. She currently has $10,000 in an IRA, an important part of her retirement nest egg. She believes her IRA will grow at an annual rate of 8 percent, and she plans to leave it untouched until she retires at age 65. Ruby estimates that she will need $875,000 in her total retirement nest egg by the time she is 65 in order to have retirement income of $20,000 a year (she expects that Social Security will pay her an additional $15,000 a year). a. How much will Ruby’s IRA be worth when she needs to start withdrawing money from it when she retires? b. How much money will she have to accumulate in her company’s 401(k) plan over the next 40 years in order to reach her retirement income goal? (Round your answer to the nearest whole dollar.)
Answers
Ruby's IRA will be worth approximately $217,046 when she needs to start withdrawing money from it at retirement. Ruby needs to accumulate approximately $127,257 in her company's 401(k) plan over the next 40 years to reach her retirement income goal.
a) Future Value = Present Value * (1 + interest rate)ⁿ
Future value of Ruby's IRA when she retires at age 65:
Present Value of IRA = $10,000
Interest rate = 8% = 0.08
Number of years = 65 - 25 = 40
Future Value of IRA = $10,000 * (1 + 0.08)⁴⁰ = $10,000 * (1.08)⁴⁰ ≈ $217,045.95
b) Amount to accumulate in the company's 401(k) plan:
Total retirement nest egg needed = $875,000
Annual retirement income needed from savings = $20,000
Expected Social Security income = $15,000
Therefore, the remaining amount needed from savings is:
Remaining amount = Total retirement nest egg needed - Social Security income = $875,000 - $15,000 = $860,000
Future Value = Present Value * (1 + interest rate)ⁿ
$860,000 = Present Value * (1 + 0.08)⁴⁰
To find the Present Value (amount to accumulate), we rearrange the formula:
Present Value = $860,000 / (1 + 0.08)⁴⁰ ≈ $127,257.33
Therefore, Ruby will need to accumulate approximately $127,257 in her company's 401(k) plan over the next 40 years to reach her retirement income goal.
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A partir de lo que sabes, explica con detalles cómo crees que se transmiten las enfermedades infecto contagiosas y qué se sabe acerca del origen y causas de esas enfermedades.
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7. For some time, Adam has been experiencing fever, lethargy, muscle swelling and
tenderness, and a rash on his face, chest, and eyelids. After a number of blood tests and
treatments with various anti-inflammatory agents, the symptoms have not been
alleviated-in fact, they seem to be worsening. The strength of Adam's upper limb
muscles is measured at significantly below normal (3-) on both sides of his body. Based
on these signs and symptoms, his physician orders a muscle biopsy. Which muscle
disorder does the physician suspect? What questions could the physician ask to aid his
diagnosis, and how can the biopsy help identify the disease affecting Adam?
Answers
For some time, Adam has been experiencing fever, lethargy, muscle swelling and tenderness, and a rash on his face, chest, and eyelids. The physician suspects that Adam might be experiencing a muscle disorder known as dermatomyositis.
Dermatomyositis is an uncommon condition that produces muscle inflammation and a rash on the skin. It is one of a series of muscular illnesses that cause inflammation and edema in the muscles. It differs from other muscle illnesses in that it also causes skin issues. Dermatomyositis refers to symptoms that affect both the muscles and the skin.
The kind of questions that the physician could ask the patient to aid his diagnosis are:
If the patient is experiencing blood when vomitingIf there is any coughIf there is joint painThe main reason why the physician order muscle biopsy is to help unveil mononuclear leukocytes with deteriorating and dead muscle cells.
Therefore, we can conclude that these mononuclear leukocytes are located within the muscle cells and as the patient suffers from Dermatomyositis, they are being deteriorated.
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Shirley is a 75-year-old woman who is seeing her doctor for her annual checkup. She explains that she has been having some shortness of breath. As part of her visit, the doctor recommends that Shirley get an ECG so that they can assess the condition of her heart. Shirley is very anxious about the test and does not feel that it is necessary.
How can the medical assistant assist Shirley?
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1. Explain the importance of the ECG test and how it can help detect any heart problems that she may have.
2. Reassure Shirley that the test is quick and painless, and that she will not feel any discomfort during the procedure.
3. Provide Shirley with information on what to expect during the test, including how long it will take and what she needs to do to prepare for it.
4. Answer any questions that Shirley may have about the test, and provide her with any additional information or resources that she may need.
5. Offer to stay with Shirley during the test to provide her with emotional support and reassurance.
6. If Shirley is still anxious about the test, the medical assistant can speak to the doctor to see if there are any alternative tests or procedures that can be done to assess Shirley's heart health.
You have been performing multiple-provider CPR on a
patient in cardiac arrest. The patient is now showing signs of return
of spontaneous circulation (ROSC). Which action(s) would the team
perform?
Select all correct options that apply.
Continue compressions for another minute.
Stop CPR
Check for breathing and pulse.
Give 2 ventilations
Remove the AED pads.
Answers
Answer:
they would preform a miracle
Explanation:
Answer:stop CPR/AED.
Check for breathing and carotid or femoral pulse.
Monitor the patient until the advanced cardiac life support team takes over.
Explanation:
All these are what you should do.
The purpose of a detergent is to
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Detergents are substances or mixtures of substances used in aqueous solutions to clean the surface of solid particles from contamination.
Answer:
A detergent is a substance or a mixture containing soaps and/or surfactants (any organic substance/mixture) intended for washing and cleaning processes.
Explanation:
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john wiggins age 36, has been admitted for a possible concussion from an atv rollover without a helmet 3 days ago. he is alert and cooperative but does complain of a consistent headache and nausea. upon admission he had a blood alcohol level of 0.09. his vital signs are normal and are being taken with neuro checks q 2 hours. his glasgow coma scale is 15. he admits to drinking a 6-pack of beer a day.
Answers
Since drinking alcohol might exacerbate a concussion, it's crucial to keep a close eye at any change in his health. In order to rule out whatever brain injury, a CT scan as well as MRI should also be performed.
Describe MRI.A procedure that uses radio waves, a powerful magnets, and a computer to produce a series of exact photographs of various areas inside the body. A contrast agent, such as gadolinium, may be injected into a vein to enhance the visibility of the tissues and organs in the image.
What distinguishes an MRI from a CT scan?Through the fast series of X-ray images taken during a CT scan, an image of a area being scanned is created. An MRI uses strong magnetic fields to create images of the inside of the body. A CT scan is typically the first imaging technique of choice. MRIs are useful for certain illnesses that a CT scan can't quite detect.
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Automated sentence building is a means of electronic transcription. T/F?
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The given statement, "Automated sentence building is a means of electronic transcription" is a false statement because automated sentence building is a process of generating sentences automatically using computer algorithms, while electronic transcription is the conversion of spoken language into written text using electronic devices or software.
However, Automated sentence building is a method used for automatic summarization, which involves reducing the input text into a shortened version consisting of only the main points and ideas. It is often used in Natural Language Processing (NLP) and other related fields to create summaries of long articles or other textual content. In essence, the purpose of automated sentence building is to make it easier for humans to understand and analyze large amounts of information by breaking it down into its most important elements.
The electronic transcription method is used for the conversion of speech into written or electronic text using software applications. It is often used in a wide range of industries, including legal, medical, and entertainment, as well as for creating subtitles for videos and other multimedia content.
Therefore, the given statement is false since automated sentence building and electronic transcription are two distinct concepts used in different fields.
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Darla Huntley, RMA, works in a pulmonology practice. She has been instructed to schedule Betty Robinson for a spirometry within one week. Ms. Robinson has never had one before. After the procedure is scheduled, what information should Darla provide Ms. Robinson to ensure that she is prepared on the day of her test? Under what health-related circumstances would Darla need to reschedule the test for Ms. Robinson? How many maneuvers must be completed for Ms. Robinson's PFT to be considered successful on the day of her testing?
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Answer:
Darla should tell Ms. Robinson that spirometry is a simple test for figuring out how well the lungs work. During the test, the patient will be asked to take a deep breath and then blow as hard as they can into a mouthpiece connected to a spirometer. The spirometer will measure how much air the patient can blow out of their lungs and how fast they can do it.
Advice on medication: Darla should tell Ms. Robinson that she shouldn't use any bronchodilator inhalers, like albuterol, for four to six hours before the test.
Darla should tell Ms. Robinson when to expect her at the test and how long the test is likely to last.
Wear clothes that are comfortable. Darla should tell Ms. Robinson to wear clothes that are comfortable and won't make it hard for her to breathe.
Darla might have to reschedule Ms. Robinson's test if something goes wrong with her health. For example, if Ms. Robinson has recently had chest surgery, a heart attack, or a stroke, Darla may need to reschedule the test to avoid any possible health risks.
For Ms. Robinson's spirometry test to be successful, she must do at least three things that give acceptable and repeatable results. If Ms. Robinson can't do three maneuvers, Darla may have to reschedule the test to make sure the results are correct.
Major source:
American Thoracic Society/European Respiratory Society. (2005). ATS/ERS statement on respiratory muscle testing. American Journal of Respiratory and Critical Care Medicine, 171(8), 866-878. doi: 10.1164/rccm.200401-044STMaria is 75 years old. She is experiencing severe loss of bone tissue. Maria is most likely to be diagnosed with Group of answer choices diabetes.
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Maria is most likely to be diagnosed with osteoporosis.
What is osteoporosis?Osteoporosis is a bone disease that mainly affects old people (from beyond 75 years old).
Osteoporosis is characterized by a progressive bone strength loss that may be a serious problem if it is not treated properly.
In conclusion, Maria is diagnosed with osteoporosis.
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Which group awards accreditation to hospitals?
WHO
Medicare
the CDC
the Joint Commission
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Dr. Martin asks you to retake Ms. Patel's pulse and respirations. You count her puise as 41 in 30 seconds and her
respirations 9 in 30 seconds. You would document the rate of these vital signs as:
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We can confirm that when taking the pulse and respiration rates and measuring the numbers listed, we would document these vital signs as slightly elevated.
Why are these vitals elevated?This has to do with the normal resting rates for pulse and respirations in an individual. One would expect the pulse to be roughly 30 in 30 seconds, at 41 the rate is still within the normal rate but slightly elevated. The same is the case for the respirations, which should be closer to 6 in 30 seconds instead of 9.
Therefore, we can confirm that when taking the pulse and respiration rates and measuring the numbers listed, we would document these vital signs as slightly elevated.
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Describe how the care technique of adequate posture for bed ridden clients can impact parts of the respiratory system. Use correct terminology of the respiratory system in your answer.
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Answer:
Patients who suffer from respiratory pathologies, generally present an increase in fluid in the alveoli, where they produce the gas exchange, that is why if we put the patient to bed completely, the gas exchange surface will be less, because the liquid that presents by the pulmonary emphysema is dispersed in more alveoli and therefore the difficulty of breathing is greater.
The ideal position then in this type of patient, where the problem is in the respiratory system, in the position of approximately 130 degrees, or an intermediate position between 180 and 90 degrees, since in this way the upper limb will not be at the same Height than the lower limb, the emphysema fluid does not disperse through the alveoli on a larger surface, but on a smaller surface, and thus the patient will be able to breathe better, and improve their gas exchange capacity.
Explanation:
The greater the occupied alveolar surface, the less capacity for gas exchange and therefore greater difficulty in breathing ... This would happen in patients who are fully reclined, that is, at 180 degrees.
If we position it well, between 90 and 180, approximately 130 degrees, less alveolar surface occupied by the fluid of the emphysema, greater gas exchange and therefore better breathing.
what are the function of placenta?
Answers
Answer:
The placenta is an organ that develops in your uterus during pregnancy. This structure provides oxygen and nutrients to your growing baby and removes waste products from your baby's blood.
Answer:
(1) The placenta transfers food from the mother’s bloodstream to the fetus thus providing it with all the basic nutrients.
(2) Oxygen from the mother reaches the unborn child through the placenta.
(3) The placenta also purifies the blood of any harmful substance, which might harm the fetal health, by acting as a barrier and providing protection against it.
Explanation:
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Joan Seap lives at home, has COPD and ASHD, and is functionally declining. Dr. Smith has revised her comprehensive care plan. Thirty minutes was spent this month completing these services. The code to report is
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Answer:
99490
Explanation:
Calculate for a 10% allowable margin of error in powder weight 5g with 20g of cream base
Answers
The allowable margin of error in powder weight is 10% of 5g, is 0.5g.
How do we solve for the allowable margin of error?A 10% allowable margin of error for the powder weight of 5g means the weight of the powder could vary by 10% of 5g.
To calculate this:
10% of 5g = 0.10 × 5 = 0.5g
This means that the actual powder weight can be anywhere between 4.5g and 5.5g and still be considered accurate.
The total weight of the cream base is 20g, so the total weight of the mixture should be between 24.5g and 25.5g.
Minimum powder weight = 5g - 0.5g = 4.5g
Maximum powder weight = 5g + 0.5g = 5.5g
Minimum mixture weight = 4.5g + 20g = 24.5g
Maximum mixture weight = 5.5g + 20g = 25.5g
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how enzymes inhibitions studies in the formulation and development of drugs.
Answers
Answer:
Enzyme inhibition can cause many adverse drug interactions that tend to happen ... Cannabinoid Regulation of Intraocular Pressure: Human and Animal Studies, ... inhibition usually involves prior metabolism of the inhibitor and the formation of ... is generally self-limited, although persistent anuria may occasionally develop.
Explanation:
this good? -Nix
Mazia has mixed feelings about her job. she enjoys spending time with her coo workers but does not like the pressure her boss puts her under . her attitude to her job is best characterized as a. positive b. negative c. undefined d. ambivalent
Answers
Answer:
her attitude about her job is ambivalent.
Explanation:
Ambivalent means mixed feelings.
A client experiencing intermittent chest pain has been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?
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The nurse should immediately inform the medical professional of the following laboratory results: Cardiac troponin T concentration was 1.2 ng/mL.
Why is high cardiac troponin I a problem?The calcium-mediated interaction between actin and myosin is regulated by the cardiac regulatory proteins cardiac troponin T (cTnT) and cardiac troponin I (cTnI). These regulatory proteins have cardiac variants that are supposedly only found in the heart and are presumably encoded by certain genes. Troponin is released into the bloodstream as a result of injured cardiac muscles. Troponin is released into the blood more often as heart disease progresses. A heart attack may be occurring or has just occurred if your blood contains high amounts of troponin.Therefore,
Cardiac troponin T should not exceed 0.20 ng/mL in normal conditions. The provider should be notified promptly since the value in option C is markedly increased and suggests myocardial damage or infarction.
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what are the defining vessels of the renal portal system
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The renal portal system is a specialized circulatory system found in certain animals, including birds, reptiles, and some mammals.
It is characterized by the presence of additional blood vessels that connect the kidneys to the posterior vena cava, forming an alternative pathway for blood flow.
The defining vessels of the renal portal system are as follows:
Renal Portal Vein: This is the main vessel of the renal portal system. It carries blood from the posterior lower body regions, such as the hind limbs and tail, to the kidneys. The blood is then filtered and processed by the kidneys before returning to the systemic circulation.
Renal Portal Circulation: The renal portal vein branches into smaller vessels within the kidneys, forming a network of blood vessels known as the renal portal circulation. This network enables the blood to be distributed throughout the renal tissues for filtration and other renal functions.
Efferent Renal Portal Vein: After passing through the renal portal circulation, the blood exits the kidneys through the efferent renal portal vein. This vein carries the filtered blood back to the posterior vena cava, where it rejoins the systemic circulation.
It's important to note that the renal portal system is not present in humans or most mammals. Instead, humans and other mammals have a different circulatory arrangement where blood from the renal arteries directly supplies the kidneys, and the filtered blood leaves the kidneys via the renal veins, eventually returning to the heart.
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Histology of osseous tissue
Answers
Cells - which in bone are called osteoblasts and osteocytes, (osteo - bone). There are also two other cell types: osteoprogenitor cells and osteoclasts. ... Almost 70% of bone is made up of bone mineral called hydroxyapatite. Before the extracellular matrix is calcified, the tissue is called osteoid (bone-like) tissue.
6. Explain why a person would use accessory muscles when breathing and describe four types of
retractions.
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There are several types of retractions that may occur when using accessory muscles for breathing, such as intercostal retractions, suprasternal retractions, subcostal retractions, and clavicular retractions.
What are breathing issues?Intercostal retractions occur when the muscles between the ribs (intercostal muscles) are used to help lift the ribcage, making more room for air to enter the lungs, and suprasternal retractions occur when the muscles above the sternum are used to help lift the upper chest and expand the lungs. Subcostal retractions occur when the muscles below the ribcage (subcostal muscles) are used to help lift the abdomen and create more space for the diaphragm to move, and clavicular retractions occur when the muscles in the neck and shoulders (clavicular muscles) are used to help lift the shoulders and expand the upper chest.
Hence, there are several types of retractions that may occur when using accessory muscles for breathing, such as intercostal retractions, suprasternal retractions, subcostal retractions, and clavicular retractions.
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the nursing student approaches his instructor to discuss the plan of care for his client diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. the student asks what is the most common site for peptic ulcer formation? the instructor would state which one of the following?
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idk how to do this g:(((
Answers
Answer:
Body's health is normal if the vital signs comes in the range.
Explanation:
If my vital sign data comes between in the range, so we can conclude that my body's health is good and is able to perform normal functions. If the pulse rate, respiration rate, temperature and blood pressure readings go lower from the minimum range and goes higher from the maximum range so it means that there is something not right in my body which disturbs the homeostasis of my body.
A nurse instructor outlines the criteria establishing nursing as a profession. What teaching point correctly describes this criteria? Select all that apply.a) Nursing is composed of a well-defined body of general knowledgeb) Nursing interventions are dependent upon medical practicec) Nursing is a recognized authority by a professional groupd) Nursing is regulated by the medical industrye) Nursing has a code of ethicsf) Nursing is influenced by ongoing research
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The criteria that correctly describes nursing as a profession are: a) Nursing is composed of a well-defined body of general knowledge, c) Nursing is a recognized authority by a professional group, e) Nursing has a code of ethics, and f) Nursing is influenced by ongoing research. These criteria establish nursing as a profession because they demonstrate that nursing has a distinct body of knowledge, is recognized by a professional group, adheres to a code of ethics, and is influenced by ongoing research.
On the other hand, b) Nursing interventions are dependent upon medical practice and d) Nursing is regulated by the medical industry are not correct criteria for establishing nursing as a profession. Nursing interventions are based on the nursing process and are not solely dependent on medical practice. Additionally, nursing is regulated by nursing boards, not the medical industry.
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quizlet which term should the nurse use to describe a patient's nonspecific response to noxious stimuli stressor
Answers
The nurse should use the term "general adaptation syndrome" (GAS) to describe a patient's nonspecific response to noxious stimuli stressor.
General adaptation syndrome (GAS) is a concept developed by the Canadian endocrinologist Hans Selye in the 1930s. It describes the body's general response to stress, which includes three stages: the alarm stage, the resistance stage, and the exhaustion stage. During the alarm stage, the body reacts to the stressor by activating the sympathetic nervous system, which increases heart rate and breathing rate. The adrenal glands also release adrenaline and cortisol to help the body cope with the stressor.
In the resistance stage, the body continues to try to cope with the stressor, and the parasympathetic nervous system attempts to restore balance. This stage can last for an extended period of time, and the body may start to adapt to the stressor.
Finally, during the exhaustion stage, the body can no longer cope with the stressor, and physiological resources are depleted. If the stressor continues, the body may be at risk for developing physical or mental health problems.
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Which of the following patients would be appropriate to help move using a transfer belt?
Ying, a patient with relatively good mobility who is recovering from back surgery
Ivy, a patient with limited mobility who has a feeding tube
Sandra, a patient with limited mobility who is recovering from an abdominal surgery
Paulo, a patient with relatively good mobility who is suffering from the flu
Answers
Answer: i think the answer is Ying,a patient with relatively good mobility who is recovering from back surgery.
Explanation:
Which of the following is a measure of the degree of variation among a set of scores?
Answers
Among the options, the standard deviation is a measurement of the degree of variation among a set of scores.
What is meant by the degree of variation?The degree of variation may be defined as an instance through which the coefficient of variation is determined by the fact that the higher the coefficient of variation, the greater the level of dispersion around the mean. It is generally expressed as a percentage.
According to the context of this question, the standard deviation significantly provides all sorts of measurements of the overall variation in a data set. This standard deviation always lies between the positive and zero.
Therefore, the standard deviation is a measurement of the degree of variation among a set of scores.
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Your question seems incomplete. The most probable complete question is as follows:
Which of the following is a measure of the degree of variation among a set of scores?
Mean.Median.Standard deviation. Mode.