A mutation in the dna that changes the sequence of a codon but does not change the amino acid sequence of the protein describes a Silent mutation.
What is Silent mutation?DNA changes known as silent mutations do not manifest themselves in the phenotypic of the organism. They represent a particular kind of neutral mutation. The terms silent mutation and synonymous mutation are sometimes used interchangeably; nevertheless, neither synonymous mutations nor quiet mutations are always the same. As a result of the nucleotide change not altering the amino acid being translated, approximately 99.8% of genes that have mutations are regarded as silent. The Multi-Drug Resistance Gene 1 is one mutation that disproves the theory that quiet mutations do not affect phenotypic outcome.An example is the shift from AAA to AAG, which codes for the amino acid lysine (which also codes for Lys).
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Uide Questions:
1. Based on the Punnett square, how many of the offspring may be
short-haired offspring? Long-haired?
2. Will there be a pure breed (homozygous)short haired offspring in the
cross? Justify your answer.
1. Based on the Punnett square, the number of short-haired offspring and long-haired offspring can be determined by counting the respective combinations of alleles.
2. There is a possibility of pure breed (homozygous) short-haired offspring in the cross if both parent organisms contribute the short-haired allele.
1. Based on the Punnett square, we can determine the potential number of short-haired and long-haired offspring. Let's assume that "S" represents the dominant allele for short hair and "s" represents the recessive allele for long hair. If both parents are heterozygous (Ss), the Punnett square would look like this:
S s
S SS Ss
s Ss ss
From the Punnett square, we can see that there are three possible genotypes: SS, Ss, and ss. The SS and Ss genotypes correspond to short-haired offspring, while the ss genotype corresponds to long-haired offspring.
Therefore, based on the Punnett square, 75% of the offspring (3 out of 4) may be short-haired, while 25% of the offspring (1 out of 4) may be long-haired.
2. There will not be a pure breed (homozygous) short-haired offspring in this cross. A pure breed (homozygous) short-haired offspring would have the genotype SS. However, in the given cross, both parents are heterozygous (Ss). This means that each parent carries one copy of the dominant allele (S) and one copy of the recessive allele (s).
When the parents are crossed, the possible genotypes of the offspring are SS, Ss, and ss. As we can see from the Punnett square, the genotype SS is not possible as there is no parent that contributes the recessive allele (s) to create a homozygous short-haired offspring.
Therefore, all the short-haired offspring in this cross will be heterozygous (Ss), carrying one copy of the dominant allele (S) and one copy of the recessive allele (s).
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Which of the male accessory glands encircles the urethra?.
The chart shows information about three different embryos early in their development.
Which is best supported by the information in the chart?
Species X and Y are not related to humans.
Species Y and Z are not related to humans.
Species X and Z are related to humans.
Species X and Y are related to humans.
Answer:
Species X and Y are related to humans.
Explanation:
The chart shows information about three different embryos early in their development. The best supported by the information in the chart is that Species X and Y are related to humans. Thus, option D is correct.
What is an embryo?An embryo refers to the early development stage with respect to the multicellular organism. The organism should be again produced se-xually. Moreover, the development of embryonic should be a portion of the life cycle just done after fertilization and continued via when the structure of the body is formed like tissues and organs.
The development of embryonic i.e. used for proof with respect to evolution should be related species that contain the same embroys.The similarities during the embryo stage of development among different animals are due to the expression of ancient genes.
These ancient genes have the same evolutionary origin, thereby they are homo-logous sequences. For example, fish embryos and human embryos express certain homo-logous genes in the embryos stage, thereby leading to the development of gill slit during this stage.
Therefore,Thus, option D is correct.
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PLS HELP ITS FOR MY EATH SCIENCE CLASS?!?!
Our closest exoplanet and Earth-sized planet is Proxima Centauri b.
Proxima Centauri b is in the habitable zone, but why is it not a suitable
Earth 2.0?
A enormous amounts of radiation from mega flares hit the planet
roughly once every year
B it lacks an atmosphere, therefore most likely lacks water
C extreme temperature changes on the surface
D all of the above
Answer:
A
Explanation:
https://phys.org/news/2018-04-proxima-centauri-flare-powerful-visible.html
B cannot be correct because there is in fact, water on Proxima Centauri B.
It most likely isn't C, I researched for any truth in answer C but I couldn't find any.
Hope this helps! I'm really sorry if I'm wrong because I tried very hard to look for a solid answer :[
As the human population increases, scientists and enigneers look for new ways to increase the amount of food from crops. Two students perform an experiment to find out if different fertilizers increase the growth of pea plants over time. They slect four differentfertilizers for testing. They plant seeds in separate pots. Each pot receives 350mL of a fertilizer and water solution every other day. The control plants receives 350mL of tap water instead of a fertilizer solution every other day. Every 10 days, the height of each plant is measured in centimeters. Their results are shown in the data table.What does the data in the table show?A. The control plant grew the best.B. The plants with fertilizer grew better than the control plant.C. Fertilizer B is the most effective fertilizer.D. The fertilizers made the most difference in growth between day 10 and day 20.
The table shows that all of the plants that received fertilizers grew more than the control plant, as the control plant has 35 centimeters in day 50 and all of the others has 43 centimeters or more. Therefore, A is incorrect.
The plant that received fertilizer B has 43 centimeters in day 50, being the shortes plant among the fertilized ones (the other has from 45 to 55 centimeters). Therefore, C is incorrect too.
On day 20, there is no big differencies between the height of the fertilized plants and the control plant. Most of them stayed in heights like 10, 11 or 12. The heights in day 50 show bigger differencies. Therefore, D is incorrect as well.
All of the plants that received fertilizers grew at least
An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize
An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize the bicycle suffers from visual agnosia.
Visual agnosia is a disorder that affects an individual's ability to identify and recognize visual objects. Patients with this disorder can distinguish individual features of an object, but they are unable to perceive the object as a whole. People with this disorder can identify the color, texture, or shape of an object, but cannot recognize the object itself.
The severity of visual agnosia can vary from patient to patient, and it can affect their daily life in different ways. For example, a person with visual agnosia may have difficulty recognizing family members, reading, or driving. Some patients may only experience mild symptoms, while others may experience severe symptoms that affect their ability to function.
Visual agnosia is caused by damage to the visual cortex of the brain, which is responsible for processing visual information. Treatment for this disorder involves working with a speech and language therapist, an occupational therapist, and a neuropsychologist. The aim of treatment is to help the individual develop coping strategies to deal with the condition and to improve their overall quality of life.
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Sample Response: The Jaguars would probably have the best finish in a basketball tournament because they have won the most games every season.
What did you include in your response? Check all that apply.
The Jaguars would probably have the best finish in a basketball tournament.
The Jaguars have won the most games every season.
Answer:
The Jaguars would probably have the best finish in a basketball tournament.
Explanation:
If they have won the most the most games, than therefore the answer would be the one above. I know it is not the other answer because it was saying that they one the most games in every SEASON, not this season.
Answer:
Explanation:
Sample Response: The Jaguars would probably have the best finish in a basketball tournament because they have won the most games every season.
fungi can fill all of these ecological roles except? group of answer choices pathogen primary producer symbiont decomposer
Fungi can fill all of these ecological roles except primary producer.
Fungi can fill all of these ecological functions except being a primary producer as they not produce their own food because they lack chlorophyll and therefore cannot be primary producers.
In the food chain, a primary producer is a pathogen that generates its own nutrition without having to rely on other organisms for energy. Primary producers extrapolate energy from sunlight, which they transform into chemical energy. Photosynthesis is the name given to this process.
The microbes that acquire their energy from other organisms are called consumers. All animals are consumers who consume other organisms. Fungi, as well as many protists and bacteria, are consumers.
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Bill is a 54 year old Asian male who sustained a full thickness burn to 20% of his body while at work three days ago. He was exposed to a hot liquid at temperatures exceeding 180°F. The burn occurred primarily on his right arm, hand, and right side of his chest. He is currently hospitalized in a burn unit and is in stable condition.
1. How do thermal burns induce irreversible cellular injury?
2. What is the impact of this degree and extent of burn on Bills cardiovascular system?
3. What is the role of eschar formation in a full-thickness burn?
4. How are full thickness burns different than partial thickness burns with regard to clinical manifestations?
5. What complications are likely given the severity of Bill's burn injury?
6. Would the burn Bill sustained be classified as minor, moderate, or major given the American Butn Association classification?
Thermal burns induce irreversible cellular injury through multiple mechanisms, including direct thermal damage, coagulation necrosis, and inflammatory responses.
The high temperature causes denaturation of proteins, disruption of cell membranes, and loss of cellular function. Additionally, thermal burns can lead to the release of pro-inflammatory mediators, such as cytokines and chemokines, further exacerbating tissue damage and initiating a cascade of events that contribute to irreversible injury.
The degree and extent of burn that Bill has suffered can have a significant impact on his cardiovascular system. Burn injuries cause a systemic response known as the "burn shock." In extensive burns, the release of inflammatory mediators, fluid loss, and increased capillary permeability can result in hypovolemia, decreased cardiac output, and reduced tissue perfusion.
This can lead to hypotension, tachycardia, and even cardiovascular collapse if not managed promptly. Close monitoring of Bill's cardiovascular status and appropriate fluid resuscitation are crucial in preventing further complications.
Eschar formation plays a vital role in full-thickness burns. An eschar is a dry, thick, leathery crust that forms over the burned area. In full-thickness burns, the damage extends through the entire dermis and often involves underlying tissues, such as muscles and tendons.
The eschar acts as a barrier, protecting the wound from infection and reducing fluid loss. However, it also hinders the natural healing process and necessitates surgical interventions, such as escharotomy or excision, to promote wound healing and prevent complications.
Full-thickness burns differ from partial-thickness burns in terms of clinical manifestations. In partial-thickness burns, only the epidermis and a portion of the dermis are affected, leading to symptoms such as pain, redness, blistering, and swelling.
In contrast, full-thickness burns extend through the entire dermis and can involve underlying structures. Consequently, full-thickness burns may present as charred, white or black, dry, and insensate areas. The absence of pain in full-thickness burns is due to the destruction of nerve endings, requiring more invasive treatments like skin grafting for wound closure.
Given the severity of Bill's burn injury, several complications are likely to arise. Infections are a significant concern due to the loss of skin's protective barrier and compromised immune response. Hypertrophic scars and contractures may develop, leading to functional limitations and disfigurement.
Respiratory complications, such as inhalation injury or pneumonia, can occur if Bill was exposed to smoke or hot gases. Metabolic imbalances, including hypermetabolic response and electrolyte disturbances, are common in severe burns. Psychological distress, including post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and depression, is also possible.
Prompt and comprehensive burn care, including wound management, infection control, nutrition support, and rehabilitation, is essential in minimizing these complications and optimizing Bill's recovery.
Based on the American Burn Association classification, Bill's burn injury would likely be classified as a major burn. Major burns typically involve a high percentage of total body surface area (20% in this case) and can have significant systemic effects.
The classification takes into account both the extent of the burn and its location, as burns on certain body parts, such as the face, hands, feet, or perineum, can have functional and cosmetic implications. Bill's burn injury requires specialized care in a burn unit due to its severity and potential complications.
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what best describe the progress of science
Answer:The progress of science is the continuous accumulation of knowledge through observation, experimentation, and theory. It involves developing theories, using advanced technology, collaborating across disciplines, and rigorous peer review. Paradigm shifts and breakthrough discoveries challenge existing theories. Science's impact is seen through practical applications in medicine, technology, and other fields, improving our quality of life. It is an iterative process that refines our understanding of the natural world.
Explanation:
if there are 500000 joules of energy in plankton how much energy is available for the killer whale
Answer:
Each pound of whale is supported by 10,000 pounds of phytoplankton. The inefficient transfer of energy limits the number of killer whales which can live and ...
Explanation:
What event happens with the chromosomes after they form homologous pairs during prophase i?
The homologous chromosomal pairs unite to produce a tetrad or bivalent, that has four chromatids, during prophase I. Within this tetrad structure, any two chromatids are capable of recombination.
Define the prophase i of the homologous pairs?The process of mitosis, which divides the duplicated genetic material held in a parent cell's nucleus into two identical daughter cells, begins with the prophase.
The chromatin, a combination of DNA and proteins found in the nucleus, condenses during prophase.The homologous chromosomal pairs form tetrads during prophase I and metaphase I. Any pair of chromatid arms within the tetrad has the ability to cross over and combine, a process known as crossing-over or recombination. Recombination is a mechanism that splits, rejoins, and recombines segments of DNA to create novel gene combinations.Thus, the homologous chromosomal pairs unite to produce a tetrad or bivalent, that has four chromatids, during prophase I. Within this tetrad structure, any two chromatids are capable of recombination.
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If 20% of a population is eaten each generation how long will it take for them to go extinct?'
Answer:
Wild mammals have declined by 85% since the rise of humans. A diverse range of mammals once roamed the planet. This changed quickly and dramatically with the rising number of humans over the course of the last 100,000 years. Over this period, wild terrestrial mammal biomass has declined by an estimated 85%.
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Explanation:
Why does adhesion behave the way it does?
1. Why are the plates moving and how do they move relative to each other?
2. In what way does the motion of the plates explain the different ages of Earth’s crust?
3. How does the motion of the plates create different surface features? Give at least 3 examples.
1. The heat from radioactive action within the interior of the planet causes the plates to move, sometimes toward and sometimes away from each other.
2. Earth's surface activates with respect to tectonic theory, moving as much as 1-2 inches a year. The many tectonic plates shift and interact with each other. This motion transform the Earth's outer layer. Hence the movement may causes Earthquakes, volcanoes and mountains .
3.Plate motions cause mountains to rise where plates are push together, or converge, and continents to fracture and oceans to form where plates pull apart, or diverge. Hence it results in formation of mountain, ocean and continents .
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in need a short answer about cancer and the pahse
Explanation: okay so cells have this mechanism to kill themselves if a bad mutation happens but when that breaks and the cell can longer do that it is considered a cancer cell the cell will continue to mutated and multiply if mutated enough it will be able to hide itself with regular cells, from the immune system after a long time it will get veins to give all the nutrition to the cancer cells making it grow more if lucky it will multiply and mutated but this mutations makes it think its a regular cell creating a cancer tumor
now cancer is beating cancer. eventually it will take over but you will have god cancer
in the context of life and death decisions, there is a distinction between killing and letting die. which of the following is classified as letting die?
The degree to which two separate structures that are closed together can be distinguished .
Answer:
Resolution
Explanation:
Explanation:
the answer is Resolution
in latin america, the deforestation of the amazon rain forest has led to
In Latin America, the deforestation of the Amazon rainforest has led to several significant consequences and impacts like Loss of Biodiversity, Climate Change, Disruption of Indigenous Communities, Soil Degradation and Erosion and Water Cycle Disruption.
The Amazon rainforest is one of the most biodiverse regions on Earth, hosting numerous species of plants, animals, and microorganisms. Deforestation disrupts and destroys habitats, leading to the loss of countless species and the potential extinction of unique flora and fauna. The Amazon rainforest plays a crucial role in regulating global climate patterns. It acts as a carbon sink, absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and helping to mitigate climate change. Deforestation releases vast amounts of stored carbon into the atmosphere, contributing to greenhouse gas emissions and exacerbating global warming.
The Amazon rainforest is home to many indigenous communities whose livelihoods and cultures are intimately connected to the forest. Deforestation often leads to the displacement and marginalization of these communities, threatening their traditional way of life and cultural heritage
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Which of the following synaptic modifications would likely enhance postsynaptic neuron responses to glutamate release (select all that apply)?
A. Removal of AMPA receptors
B. Decreasing conductance across AMPA receptors
C. Triggering persistent activation of kinases
D. Phosphorylation of AMPA receptors
The synaptic modifications that would likely enhance postsynaptic neuron responses to glutamate release are:
C) Triggering persistent activation of kinases.D) Phosphorylation of AMPA receptors.C. Triggering persistent activation of kinases: Persistent activation of kinases can lead to long-lasting changes in the postsynaptic neuron, such as increased sensitivity to glutamate and enhanced response.
D. Phosphorylation of AMPA receptors: Phosphorylation of AMPA receptors can result in increased conductance and sensitivity of the receptors to glutamate, leading to enhanced postsynaptic responses.
A. Removal of AMPA receptors: Removal of AMPA receptors would actually reduce the postsynaptic neuron's response to glutamate release, so it would not enhance the response.
B. Decreasing conductance across AMPA receptors: Decreasing conductance across AMPA receptors would also reduce the postsynaptic neuron's response to glutamate, so it would not enhance the response.
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In which way are glaciers and rivers similar?
A. Both are made of solid water.
B. Both have quickly flowing water.
C. Both transport and deposit material.
D. Both can move large boulders hundreds of miles.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
they both deposit and transport material.
The way by which glaciers and rivers similar are both have quickly flowing water. Thus, option B is correct.
Both glaciers and rivers are natural water systems that play a significant role in the movement and transportation of materials. While glaciers are large masses of ice that flow slowly over land, rivers are bodies of flowing water.
Glaciers and rivers both transport materials from one location to another. Glaciers carry rock debris, soil, and sediment within their icy mass as they move downhill, while rivers carry sediments such as sand, silt, and rocks downstream.
Both glaciers and rivers have the ability to erode the land and transport the eroded materials. Glaciers can scrape and pluck rocks and sediments as they move, causing erosion of the underlying landscape. Similarly, rivers erode the bed and banks of their channels, carrying away loose materials in the process.
Therefore, the correct answer is C. Both glaciers and rivers transport and deposit material.
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calculate the ni for the three strongest of the lines in the hydrogen spectrum
The ni values for the three strongest lines in the hydrogen spectrum are Lyman series: ni = 2, 3, 4, ..., Balmer series: ni = 3, 4, 5, ..., Paschen series: ni = 4, 5, 6, ...
The ni values represent the principal quantum numbers for the energy levels of the hydrogen atom. The three strongest lines in the hydrogen spectrum correspond to the transitions between the higher energy levels (nf) and the lowest energy level (n=1). To calculate the ni values, we need to determine the principal quantum numbers (ni) for these transitions.
The three strongest lines in the hydrogen spectrum are:
Lyman series (Ultraviolet region): nf = 1
This corresponds to transitions from higher energy levels (ni) to the ground state (n=1).
Therefore, ni = 2, 3, 4, ...
Balmer series (Visible region): nf = 2
This corresponds to transitions from higher energy levels (ni) to the first excited state (n=2).
Therefore, ni = 3, 4, 5, ...
Paschen series (Infrared region): nf = 3
This corresponds to transitions from higher energy levels (ni) to the second excited state (n=3).
Therefore, ni = 4, 5, 6, ...
Note that the ni values represent the starting energy levels (higher energy levels) for the transitions. The actual wavelength or frequency of the lines in the hydrogen spectrum is determined by the difference in energy between the initial (higher energy) and final (n=1) states.
Therefore, the ni values for the three strongest lines in the hydrogen spectrum are:
Lyman series: ni = 2, 3, 4, ...
Balmer series: ni = 3, 4, 5, ...
Paschen series: ni = 4, 5, 6, ...
Each series represents transitions from higher energy levels to the ground state (n=1) or lower energy levels.
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made up of iron and nickel
Answer:
Alloy is a mixture made up of iron &nickel.
The branch of life sciences that involves the structure and function of the brain and nervous system is called
The branch of life sciences that involves the structure and function of the brain and nervous system is called Neuroscience.
The nervous system is the primary coordinating system in the human body. It includes the brain and spinal cord, which form the central nervous system, as well as the peripheral nervous system, which consists of sensory neurons and motor neurons.
The study of neuroscience includes examining the cellular and molecular structure of the nervous system, its physiology, and its cognitive functions. It also encompasses research into neurological disorders and the development of treatments for them.
Some subfields of neuroscience include neuroanatomy, neurophysiology, neurochemistry, and neuropsychology.
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Which of these provides evidence from developmental biology of a shared evolutionary history? A. Both lobsters and frogs go through metamorphosis as a process in their life cycle. B. Both snakes and dogs have pelvic bones even though they are vestigial structures in the snake. C. The skeletal structures of a leg of a horse and a flipper of a whale are very similar. D. The DNA sequences of the cytochrome c genes in chimpanzees and spider monkeys are over 90% identical.
D. The DNA sequences for the cytochrome c genes in chimpanzees and spider monkeys are over 90% identical.
The protein that the cytochrome c gene encodes for is relatively prevalent in primates. In the course of evolution, this gene has not undergone many alterations. Eukaryotic mitochondria contain the respiratory pigment cytochrome C.
The protein cytochrome c is present in a wide variety of eukaryotic species, including plants, mammals, fungi, and many unicellular creatures. This makes it helpful in cladistics investigations, combined with its tiny size (molecular weight of roughly 12,000 daltons). For the window it provides into evolutionary biology, cytochrome c has been examined.The main structure of cytochrome c is made up of a chain of roughly 100 amino acids. A chain of 104 amino acids is seen in several higher-order creatures. While chimps, which are the closest living cousins of humans, share our cytochrome c sequence, horses do not.To know more about DNA visit:
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How do major geologic events help build Earth’s timeline?
Screening cells and autocontrol are 1 reactions at immediate spin and 2 at room temperature. What is the most likely cause of this discrepancy
The most likely cause of the discrepancy between 1 reaction at immediate spin and 2 reactions at room temperature for screening cells and autocontrol is the presence of cold antibodies.
Cold antibodies are antibodies that react at lower temperatures, such as immediate spin, but not at higher temperatures like room temperature. Therefore, when the screening cells and autocontrol are tested at immediate spin, only one reaction may be observed due to the presence of cold antibodies. However, when the same tests are performed at room temperature, the cold antibodies are no longer present and the expected two reactions may be observed.
The presence of cold antibodies is the most likely cause of the discrepancy between 1 reaction at immediate spin and 2 reactions at room temperature for screening cells and autocontrol. It is important to consider this possibility when interpreting test results and to perform additional testing, such as a cold agglutinin titer, if necessary.
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A certain location has experienced several earthquakes in past centuries. What can be said about future earthquakes in this region?
Future earthquakes are likely because underground stress builds up in similar locations.
Future earthquakes are likely because underground stress builds up in similar locations.
Future earthquakes are unlikely because all the weak rocks in that location are broken and only stronger ones are left.
Future earthquakes are likely because rocks in some places on Earth are generally weaker and liable to break.Future earthquakes
Future earthquakes are unlikely because all the underground stress in that location has been released.
The correct answer is B. Future earthquakes are likely because underground stress builds up in similar locations.
The occurrence of earthquakes is primarily determined by tectonic plate movement and stress accumulation in the Earth's crust. If a region has experienced earthquakes in the past, it suggests that the area is located in a region where tectonic plates meet or where there are active faults. As stress accumulates due to the movement of tectonic plates, the rocks in the region become strained and can eventually rupture, causing an earthquake.
Therefore, the occurrence of past earthquakes indicates that there is a potential for future earthquakes in the same location as the underground stress builds up in similar areas.
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What type of bacteria can affect people and what three structures can be found in plants?
Which type of organisms eat or break down dead things?