The purpose of the dressing for a client with a sucking chest wound is to maintain the appropriate pressure within the chest cavity.
This pressure must be higher than atmospheric pressure to prevent air from entering the pleural space through the wound, which could cause a collapsed lung.
The dressing creates a seal over the wound, which prevents additional contamination of the wound and allows the pressure to be maintained. Sealing off major vessels is not a purpose of the dressing and could cause further complications.
While protecting the lung is important, it is not the primary purpose of the dressing. The nurse should prioritize maintaining appropriate pressure within the chest cavity to prevent further complications.
To know more about sucking chest wound, refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/8979698#
#SPJ11
When a client has a sucking chest wound, it means that there is a hole in the chest wall that allows air to enter the pleural space, the area between the lung and chest wall.
This can cause a collapsed lung and prevent the client from breathing effectively. The large, tight dressing over the site serves the purpose of maintaining the appropriate pressure within the chest cavity. The dressing creates a seal around the wound, which prevents air from entering the pleural space and allows the lung to re-expand. This helps the client breathe more effectively and can prevent further complications such as a tension pneumothorax. In planning care for this client, the nurse should ensure that the dressing remains in place and is not removed or disrupted. The client's respiratory status should be closely monitored for any signs of distress, such as increased respiratory rate or decreased oxygen saturation. The nurse should also be prepared to intervene quickly if the dressing becomes loose or the client's condition deteriorates
To know more about pneumothorax refer to
https://brainly.com/question/26704006
#SPJ11
88. The antigen specificity of an adaptive immime response is due to ?
a.Activation of antigen specific lymphocytes
b.Folding of antigen to fit the pathogen
Lysis of only certain pathogens by macrophages
d.Phagocytosis of only certain pathogens by macrophages
e.Production of cytokines by antigen specific macrophages
The antigen specificity of an adaptive immune response is due to the activation of an antigen specific lymphocyte. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Antigen specificity?Antigenic specificity is the ability of the host immune cells to recognize an antigen specifically as a unique molecular entity or a foreign particle and distinguish it from another with the exquisite precision. Antigen specificity in the host immune cells is due to primarily because of the side chain conformations of the antigen molecules.
Adaptive immunity can be defined by two important characteristics which are specificity and memory of the immune cells. Specificity of the immune cell refers to the adaptive immune system's ability to target the specific pathogens, and memory refers to the cell's ability to quickly respond to pathogens to which it has previously been exposed.
The antigen specificity of an adaptive immune response is due to the activation of antigen specific lymphocytes.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
Learn more about Antigen specificity here:
https://brainly.com/question/29598059
#SPJ1
When the worst of her infection was over, Tyesha found herself wondering about the cause of her infection. She knew that cholera was a big problem in many developing countries, but largely unknown in the United States. She wanted to understand the difference. Sure, she had some fresh shellfish that last night in Haiti, but she ate raw sushi all the time with her friends dining out at home. Tyesha, with her public health interests, decided to find out all she could about the incidence of cholera, and to go back there and help when she finished her schooling. For Tyesha, her bout with cholera was a frightening and disgusting experience, but one that was relatively easily handled. Why is cholera such a devastating illness in much of the developing world
Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
A developing country is a less developed country that has a lower gross domestic product. They are mainly poor countries that are simply trying to grow and increase their GDP.
Cholera is caused due to poor sanitation or eating contaminated food or drinking unclean water. A developing country usually lack social development and also have water challenges as they typically have poor infrastructure.
Cholera is called the disease of the poor as it's prevalent in poor countries due to the poor sanitation and poverty in such areas.
Select the better estimate of the width of a teacher's desk. The better estimate of the width of the desk is 10 meters or 1 meter
Answer:
The answer is 1 meter because the 10 meters will be too long for a desk to be used by one person which is a teacher in this case. For a single person, one meter is a better estimate than 10.
A 10 meter wide table cen be used for a conference table where a lot of people can share the space .
an oncologist ordered 5FU 12 mg/kg IV qd x 4 d for a 180 # man. 5FU is available in 10 mL vials with a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many mL will the patient need per dose
Answer: The answer to the question is
19.6 ml
Explanation:
Patient of weight = 180 pounds
converting to Kg;
= 180/2.2= 81.81 kg approximately
The ordered dose= 12 mg /kg
In mg, it will be;
= 12mg× 81.81 kg= 981.72mg
The available dose= 50mg
and
The available volume= 1 ml
The required dose = ( the ordered dose/ the available dose) × the available volume
Imputing the values given,we have;
=( 981.72mg/50mg)× 1ml
which is;
= 19.63 ml
and that is approximately 19.6ml to be administered.
The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a
client started on acetazolamide for a
supratentorial lesion. Which information about the
primary action of the medication should be
included in the client's education?
The primary action of the drug which should be part of information in the client's education would be that acetazolamide decreases cerebrospinal fluid production.. That is 3.
What is supratentorial lesion?Supratentorial lesion is defined as the type of lesion that occurs in part of the brain that lies above the tentorium cerebelli due to tumors, trauma, and infections.
The clinical manifestations of Supratentorial lesion include the following:
Headache, vomiting, loss of vision, convulsive seizures, and ataxiaThe drug of choice for treatment of supratentorial lesion is acetazolamide due to inflammation that is caused by the lesion to reduce intracranial pressure.
Learn more about drugs here:
https://brainly.com/question/26254731
#SPJ1
Complete question:
The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client started on acetazolamide for a supratentorial lesion. Which information about the primary action of the medication should be included in the client's education?
1.
It will prevent hypertension.
2.
It will prevent hyperthermia.
3.
It decreases cerebrospinal fluid production.
4.
It maintains adequate blood pressure for cerebral perfusion.
what is the role of nurse
Answer:
a caregiver for patients and helps to manage physical needs, prevent illness, and treat health conditions
they are responsible for the holistic care of patients
Explanation:
Explanation:
A nurse is a caregiver for patients and helps to manage physical needs, prevent illness, and treat health conditions. ... They are responsible for the holistic care of patients, which encompasses the psychosocial, developmental, cultural, and spiritual needs of the individual.
a nurse at a long term care facility is contributing to a plan for an older adult client who has dementia. which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
a. Vary the staff members caring for the client.
b. Use photographs as memory triggers.
c. Provide a minimum of three activity choices to the client.
d. Break client tasks down to three or four steps at a time.
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Question 19 options: The guidance for having infant sleep on their back to reduce the incidence of SIDS has a grade of A. The Back-to-Sleep campaign directed information at parents and care-givers with the involvement of clinicians, crib manufacturers, and the media. The mortality from SIDS fell by approximately 50% within several years of the beginning of the Back-to-Sleep campaign Case-control studies were important in establishing a cause and effect relationship between having infants sleep prone and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the most common cause of death between age 1 month and one year. Twenty years ago it resulted in over 5,000 deaths per year.
Back to Sleep campaign, which urges parents to put their infants to sleep on their backs (supine position) to lower the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome, or SIDS.
The US National Institute of Child Health and Human Development (NICHD) at the US National Institutes of Health is supporting the Safe to Sleep campaign, formerly known as the Back to Sleep campaign, which urges parents to put their infants to sleep on their backs (supine position) to lower the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome, or SIDS. Since infants are most at danger of SIDS between the ages of 0 and 1, this age range is the campaign's focus. The incidence of SIDS has decreased by more than 50% since the 1994 launch of "Safe to Sleep." However, incidents of newborn asphyxia while sleeping have increased. As a result, the campaign's objective has been expanded to emphasize safe sleep.learn more about Back to Sleep campaign here: https://brainly.com/question/13310038
#SPJ4
If someone faints, you should do all of the following except __________.
tighten the person's clothing.
leave the person lying down and check the airway to make sure it is clear.
call for help if he or she does not regain consciousness in about a minute.
raise the person's legs above the level of his or her head.
Answer:
look down
Explanation:
leave the person lying down and check the airway to make it is clear
On what does the World Health Organization base its standards?
research
first–hand observations
what other organizations are doing
solutions that make the most money
Answer:
Its research
Explanation:
I got it right in edge
diabetes is a condition in which the body fails to regulate the?
Answer:
Diabetes is a condition that happens when your blood sugar (glucose) is too high. It develops when your pancreas doesn’t make enough insulin or any at all, or when your body isn’t responding to the effects of insulin properly
Explanation:
you respond to a 2-year-old child who has a seal-like cough and stridor. you suspect:
If a 2-year-old child has a seal-like cough and stridor, the most likely suspect is croup.
Croup is a common respiratory infection that occurs in children between the ages of 6 months and 3 years. It is usually caused by a virus that infects the upper respiratory tract, leading to inflammation of the larynx and trachea. This inflammation can cause the characteristic seal-like cough and stridor, which is a high-pitched sound that occurs when the child breathes in.
If you suspect croup in a 2-year-old child, it is important to seek medical attention right away. The child may need treatment with steroids or nebulized epinephrine to help reduce the inflammation and improve breathing. In some cases, hospitalization may be necessary if the child is having difficulty breathing or if the symptoms are severe. It is also important to keep the child comfortable and calm, as crying and agitation can make the symptoms worse. Running a cool-mist humidifier or taking the child into a steamy bathroom can also help ease breathing. Overall, croup is a common and usually mild respiratory infection that can be easily treated with medical attention and home remedies. If you suspect your child has croup, be sure to seek medical attention right away to ensure proper treatment and care.
To know more about cough visit:
#SPJ11
The recommended dosage of kanamycin is 15 mg/kg/day q8h. the child weighs 25 kg. the amount for one dose is _______________.
The amount for one dose is 125 kilograms.
We are given the specific recommended dosage information which will be interpreted as -
In a day, for every kilogram of body weight, 1 miligram of dosage can be given. We are also given a code 'q8h' which indicates the incorporation of dosage per 8 hours. So, in a day, there are 24 hours. Hence, kanamycin will be given 3 times.
Now, calculating the dosage for a day is -
Dosage for a day - 15×25
Performing multiplication
Dosage for a day - 375 mg/kg/day
Now, since kanamycin has to be given 3 times, the single dose will be-
One dose - 375÷3
Performing division
One dose - 125 mg
Hence, the amount for one dose is 125 miligrams.
Learn more about dosage calculation -
https://brainly.com/question/24793154
#SPJ4
Which effect on the body is least likely when a person gets angry?
Answer: pacing.
becoming sarcastic.
losing sense of humor.
shouting.
yelling, screaming, or crying.
acting in an abusive manner.
craving substances such as alcohol or tobacco.
Explanation: Many people have different outcomes when they are angry! Hope this helps!!
what is the rationate for rotating the patient foot internally when postioning for an ap hip?
The rationale for rotating the patient's foot internally when positioning for an AP hip is to obtain a true AP view of the hip joint. By rotating the foot internally, the femoral neck is placed in a more parallel position to the image receptor, allowing for a clearer view of the hip joint and the surrounding structures.
When positioning a patient for an AP hip X-ray, the foot should be internally rotated to ensure the greater trochanter is in an ideal position for the X-ray. This allows for the best visibility of the hip joint and surrounding structures. This positioning also helps to reduce any foreshortening of the femoral neck and provides a more accurate representation of the hip joint.
To properly rotate the foot, the patient's ankle should be placed at a 90-degree angle from the lower leg, with the toes pointing outwards.
Learn more about X-ray at https://brainly.com/question/24505239
#SPJ11
which patients would be least likely to welcome procedural or sensory information regarding a stressful medical procedure?
A meta-analysis evaluating the effects of sensory and procedural information on coping with painful and stressful medical procedures.
What is a meta-analysis in medicine?A quantitative, formal, epidemiological study method known as a "meta-analysis" is used to carefully evaluate the findings of earlier research in order to draw conclusions about that body of work. The study is typically—but not always—based on randomized, controlled clinical trials.
For dichotomous outcomes, there are four commonly used meta-analytical techniques: three fixed-effect techniques (Mantel-Haenszel, Peto, and inverse variance), and one random-effects technique (DerSimonian and Laird inverse variance). RevMan offers all of these techniques as alternatives for examination.
The stages of a meta analysis are similar to those of a systematic review and involve posing a question, searching the literature, removing data from individual studies, formulating summary estimates, and assessing publication bias.
To learn more about meta-analysis refer to
https://brainly.com/question/15181064
#SPJ4
Mosby's Medical-Surgical Nursing Orientation: Knowledge Inventory Tool with Lesson Assignment
Question 50 of 100
KIT-MedSurg-01/screen/KIT-MedSurg-01-050?skipped QuestionsOpen=false&ans
During recovery from a stroke a patient completes a dysphagia evaluation by the speech therapist, who recommends a
modified consistency for oral nutrition. Which communication do you anticipate with a member of the interprofessional team?
A. The dietary aide-to educate the patient's family about dysphagia
B. The pharmacist to make sure the patient's medication are prepared based on recommended consistency
C. The case manager-to request that meals with this level of consistency be delivered to the patient's home upon
discharge from the rehabilitation unit
< Previous Next >
During recovery from a stroke, a patient completes a dysphagia evaluation by the speech therapist, who recommends a modified consistency for oral nutrition. The communication which you anticipate with a member of the interprofessional team is A. The dietary aide-to educate the patient's family about dysphagia
This is because when a person suffers a stroke and has a speech impairment, one of the treatments given after a dysphagia evaluation is a modified consistency for oral nutrition.
The treatment includes the thickening of liquids and altering of solid foods to the following states: pureed, semi-solid, soft, and set.
Thus, it is important to educate the patient's family about this during the meals of the patient.
What is Health Care?This refers to the treatment and medication that is given to a sick person or patient to nurse them to full recovery.
Hence, we can see that during recovery from a stroke, a patient completes a dysphagia evaluation by the speech therapist, who recommends a modified consistency for oral nutrition. The communication which you anticipate with a member of the interprofessional team is A. The dietary aide-to educate the patient's family about dysphagia
Read more about health care here:
https://brainly.com/question/4784548
#SPJ1
I need help on my ethical dilemma paper about comfort care in terminally ill patients. Can someone help me?
WORKPLACE APPLICATIONS
In the following scenarios, what types of interview barriers are indicated? Explain how these statements are problem-
atic and may interfere with the patient interview.
1. Mrs. Miller is expressing her concern about a changing mole in her left axillary region. Chris, the medi-
cal assistant
nevus found
in the left axillary region looks as if it could be malignant. You haven't been using sunscreen, have
you?"
In this scenario, the medical assistant Chris is displaying a type of interview barrier known as “giving advice or expressing personal opinions.” By stating that the mole looks malignant and asking if Mrs. Miller has been using sunscreen, Chris is expressing a personal opinion and giving unsolicited advice. This can be problematic because it may make Mrs. Miller feel judged or defensive, and it may interfere with her ability to openly express her concerns and communicate effectively with the medical assistant. Instead of giving advice or expressing personal opinions, Chris should focus on actively listening to Mrs. Miller’s concerns and gathering information to help the healthcare provider make an accurate diagnosis.
Brent has been in a coma for three weeks. A doctor wanted to try a new drug to try and bring him out of the coma.
When Brent was given the drugs, he woke up front his coma. Which best describes what happened to Brent?
He experienced a positive incident.
He experienced a negative incident.
He experienced a positive accident.
He experienced a negative accident.
A(n) __________ scan maps brain activity over time.
A.
EEG
B.
CT
C.
MRI
D.
PET
Answer:
D. PET is the correct answer
Explanation:
Hope this helps and if it does please mark me the brainliest!
Peace and Love
Answer:
D) PET is the correct answer
Explanation:
edge 2023
how often is the accuracy of a ct scanner slice thicness tested
The accuracy of a CT scanner slice thickness is typically tested annually.
The testing frequency for a CT scanner's slice thickness accuracy may vary depending on the specific scanner, its usage, and the requirements of the governing body or institution overseeing its operation. However, it is generally recommended that these tests be conducted at least once a year to ensure optimal performance and accurate imaging results.
In addition to the annual testing, some institutions or governing bodies may require more frequent testing, especially for high-use scanners or when there are significant changes to the scanner's hardware or software. Ultimately, the testing frequency will depend on various factors, but adhering to the annual testing guideline is essential for maintaining the accuracy and reliability of the CT scanner.
To know more about CT scanner visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/31560149
#SPJ11
a 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving partial thickness and full thickness burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. lab results show a high hematocrit due to:
According to test results, fluid flow out of the vascular region is what causes the elevated hematocrit.
What do doctors do for tachycardia?A heartbeat that is more over 100 beats a minute at rest is referred to as tachycardia. It can begin in either the lower or upper chambers of the heart and can be anything from minor to fatal. Medicines, an ablation operation, and the installation of an implanted cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) are all forms of treatment.
What causes tachycardia most frequently?Tachycardia can be brought on by a number of illnesses that affect the heart, such as high blood pressure (hypertension), coronary artery diseases (atherosclerosis), heart valve illness, heart failure, cardiac muscle illness (cardiomyopathy), tumors, or infections.
To know more about Tachycardia visit:
https://brainly.com/question/12984938
#SPJ4
Albuterol 1.2mg po TID is ordered for a child weighing 27 lbs. The package insert
states the safe dose for children is no more than 0.3mg/kg/24 hours in 3 divided
doses. Available is albuterol syrup 2mg/mL. Determine the following:
Is the dosage safe
Answer:
The package insert states the safe dose for children is no more than 0.3mg/kg/24 hours in 3 divided doses. Available is albuterol syrup 2mg/mL.
Explanation:
a nurse is teaching a pt about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer, what statement should the nurse include in the teaching
Answer:
you should avoid eating red meat prior to testing
Explanation:
A fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) is a cost-effective, non-invasive method for colon cancer screening, which can be used in asymptomatic patients. The FOBT test is used to identify hidden blood in stool samples, which may be indicative of colon cancer and the presence of polyps in the colon/rectum. It has been shown that screening by FOBT can significantly reduce mortality from colorectal cancer. Two days before the FOBT test, it is imperative to avoid red meats and other foods (e.g., beets, carrots, cauliflower, cucumbers, grapefruit, broccoli, cantaloupe, etc), which might lead to false alarms.
I can't find the descriptions online. Whats epidermal acanthosis, papillary dermal fibrosis, and parakeratosis? It did say parakeratosis is from lack of zinc but it didn't describe what it WAS.
Answer:
Acanthosis (thick skin) in chronic eczema. Parakeratosis and a (usually superficial) perivascular lymphohistiocytic infiltrate. Excoriation and signs of rubbing (irregular acanthosis and perpendicular orientation of collagen in dermal papillae) in chronic cases (lichen simplex).Hope this helps you ❤️✌️Mark me as brainliest ❤️Mary has three little balls she throws 1999 of them away how many does mary have now?
Answer:
3-1999 gives you your answer
Explanation:
It is important to understand that the distinction between Response and Recovery is often a fuzzy one, and that the end of one phase and the beginning of another depends on the Incident Commander declaring it to be so.Explain why the Recovery phase can be considered as a "window of opportunity" for Risk Reduction, and describe some kinds of Risk Reduction measures that are easier to achieve during Recovery than at other times (and WHY are they easier?).
During the recovery phase, there is an opportunity to implement risk reduction measures. This phase is often considered a "window of opportunity" because it allows for a focused effort on reducing future risks.
Some kinds of risk reduction measures that are easier to achieve during the recovery phase include:
1. Infrastructure improvements: Repairing or upgrading damaged infrastructure can incorporate risk reduction measures. For example, reinforcing buildings or bridges can make them more resilient to future incidents.
2. Policy changes: The recovery phase provides an opportunity to review and update policies and regulations. This can include implementing stricter building codes or zoning regulations to mitigate future risks.
3. Community engagement and education: During recovery, there is often increased community involvement. This presents a chance to educate and raise awareness about potential risks. By educating residents about disaster preparedness and mitigation strategies, the community becomes more resilient.
4. Enhanced emergency response plans: The recovery phase allows for the evaluation and improvement of emergency response plans. This includes identifying weaknesses and incorporating risk reduction strategies to ensure a more effective response in the future.
These risk reduction measures are easier to achieve during the recovery phase because there is a heightened awareness of the impact of the incident and a collective effort to prevent similar events from occurring. Additionally, there is often increased funding and resources available for implementing these measures.
Learn more about recovery phase here :-
https://brainly.com/question/32217318
#SPJ11
The ratio 1:4 is mathematically equivalent to
6
As you check Mrs. Bailey's breathing, you look to see whether
her chest rises and falls, listen for escaping air and feel for breathing
against the side of your cheek. Is this the correct course of action?
Select the correct answer to this question.
Yes
No
Answer:
Yes
Explanation: