A client has been prescribed Rosuvastatin (Crestor). Three (3) adverse effects and lab values the nurse should monitor is checking lab values, monitoring liver function, and checking for creatine kinase level.
Uses of Rosuvastatin:
Rosuvastatin (Crestor) is a medication used to treat high cholesterol levels. While it can be an effective treatment, there are potential complications and risks associated with its use. In terms of adverse effects, there are several that the nurse should monitor for in a client prescribed Rosuvastatin. Three of these include nausea and vomiting, anorexia, and muscle aches and pain. Additionally, in some cases, jaundice may also occur.
What should be monitored by the nurse?
To monitor for potential complications, the nurse should regularly check the client's lab values. Two important values to monitor include the liver function test and creatine kinase level. The liver function test can help detect any potential liver damage or dysfunction that may occur as a result of the medication, while the creatine kinase level can help detect any muscle damage or breakdown that may occur. Regular monitoring of these lab values can help ensure that any potential complications are caught early and appropriate treatment can be initiated.
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A ____refers to a way of standing.
Fill in the blank
A. stability
B. lever
C. stance
D. angle
Answer: stance
Explanation:
Angelique is a high school sophomore. She has a busy schedule that is packed with athletic activities, a social life, and homework. Often her afternoons and evenings are split between sports and friends, so she stays up late to catch up on homework. Most nights she gets between five to six hours of sleep. As a result, she wakes up each morning feeling tired.
Based on Angelique’s busy lifestyle, which other consequences might she experience? Check all that apply.
Help!
How could knowledge of a person's hair and eye color help during bone analysis?
What difficulties do anthropologists encounter when analyzing skeletal remains?
Asthma can be treated with antibiotics.
Answer:
It depends, antibiotics aren't given to everyone who has asthma so I would go with true but I'm not so sure.
Explanation:
What kind of social effects are caused by malnutrition?
Answer:
poverty amplifier is the risk of malnutrition people who are poor and are more likely to be affected by different forms of malnutrition also malnutrition increases healthcare cost produces productivity and slows economic growth which can perprtuate cycle of poverty and ill health
Answer:
Undernutrition affects cognitive development and intellectual capacity, factors that contribute to poor educational performance. Nutrition related health problems can contribute to days missed from school and reduced school attendance. The social factors associated with malnutrition include lifestyle, loneliness, isolation, marital status, educational level, socioeconomic level, and place of residence.
Your patient had a sudden obstruction in their heart, but you were able to clear the
issue before any tissue died. You would enter this in an electronic medical record as:
125.5 ischemic cardiomyopathy.
121.41 myocardial infarction, type 2.
125.7 coronary atherosclerosis.
136.0 nonrheumatic tricuspid stenosis.
Answer:
A patient with a sudden blockage in his heart, but which can be corrected before any tissue dies, it must be entered into the electronic medical record as 125.5 ischemic cardiomyopathy.
Explanation:
Ischemic cardiomyopathy is a condition that affects the heart and its functions, due to decreased blood supply. The lack of blood in the heart tissue is known as ischemia, producing tissue injury and probably heart attack or tissue death.
Myocardial ischemic disease can produce a condition called angina pectoris, even before a heart attack occurs.
In the case of a patient with symptoms of myocardial ischemia, without an infarction, the corresponding ICD-10 code for electronic medical record is 125.5: ischemic cardiomyopathy.
The other options are not correct because:
121.41 Myocardial infarction, type 2, includes symptoms linked to tissue death or infarction. 125.7 Coronary atherosclerosis, is a condition that can be asymptomatic. 136.0 Non-rheumatic tricuspid stenosis, is not related to the blockage of coronary arteries.NEED ANSWER ASAP The practice of protecting and improving the health of people in a community is referred to as: Group of answer choices Privatized Medicine Public Health Health Insurance Social Health
Answer:
Public Health
Explanation:
Hope it helps.
In the context of a zoonotic threat, which of the following statements is/are correct concerning joint cross-sectoral heath risk assessments?
A. Joint cross-sectoral heath risk assessments involve primarily collaboration of the public health sector and animal health sector
B. Defining risk questions is a key step in the risk assessment and these questions should be as broad as possible to cover any unexpected circumstances during the health crisis
C. Governmental support and openness for collaboration between Ministries is key for joint cross-sectoral heath risk assessments at the national level
D. Joint cross-sectoral heath risk assessments rely on computer-based information sharing systems that are only available in the most developed countries
E. Joint cross-sectoral heath risk assessments can help to identify gaps in necessary information
In the context of a zoonotic threat, the statements that are correct concerning joint cross-sectoral heath risk assessments are:
Governmental support and collaboration between ministries are crucial for the success of joint cross-sectoral health risk assessments, and the assessments can help to identify gaps in necessary information and areas for improvement in response to zoonotic threats. Option C. and E. are correct answers.
What is heath risk assessments?This refers to a is a questionnaire that give information of a person's medical history, demographic characteristics and lifestyle. It is one of the most generally used screening tools in the aspect of health promotion and is often the first step in multi-component health promotion programs.
There are basically five types of Qualitative Risk Assessment.
The qualitative risk assessment .Quantitative Risk Assessment. Generic Risk Assessment.Site-Specific Risk Assessment. Dynamic Risk Assessment.Learn more about heath risk assessments on
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Many people do not seek treatment for mental illness because of the stigma associated with mental illness.
a. True
b. False
It is true that many people do not seek treatment for mental illness because of the stigma associated with mental illness.
Negative stereotypes of people with a mental health problem are referred to as social stigma, also known as public stigma. These preconceptions serve to categorize the individual, distinguish them as unique, and prevent them from being viewed as an individual. Discrimination is linked to social stigma.
The broader public's reaction to those who have mental illness is known as public stigma. The stigma that people with mental illness hold against themselves is known as self-stigma. Stereotypes, prejudice and discrimination are the three components that make up public stigma and self-stigma.
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What is considered both a renewable resource and a nonrenewable resource?
Water is a renewable and non-renewable resource due to the water cycle; a natural process that regularly replenishes water on earth periodically.
What resources are non-renewable but reusable?Iron is a recyclable, non-renewable resource.
Can a resource be both non-renewable and sustainable?If a resource is depleted faster than it can be regenerated, it will eventually be completely depleted despite its renewability. Conversely, non-renewable resources are sustainable when used in moderation. If you use them carelessly, they may run out in a short time.
Which are both non-renewable energy sources?Non-renewable energy sources include coal, natural gas, oil and nuclear power. Once these resources are depleted, they cannot be replaced that is a biggest problem for mankind as they are dependent on these resources for their needs of energy.
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Why is cyber bullying more psychologically harmful than other types of bullying?
Cyber bullying is considered to be more psychologically harmful than other types of bullying because of the following reasons.
Lack of face-to-face interaction: Cyberbullying is often anonymous and impersonal, which means there is a lack of face-to-face interaction. This can make it easier for the bully to engage in negative behaviors without seeing the emotional response of the victim. This lack of empathy can lead to the victim feeling helpless and alone.24/7 accessibility: Cyberbullying is accessible 24/7, which means that victims can be bullied at any time. This means that victims have no respite from the bullying and can be constantly targeted. This can lead to increased anxiety and stress.Wide audience: Cyberbullying can be seen by a wide audience, which can lead to feelings of embarrassment and shame. Once something is posted online, it can be difficult to remove it, which means that the victim can be reminded of the bullying for a long time. This can lead to long-lasting psychological effects.Permanent record: Cyberbullying can be recorded and shared, which means that it can have a long-lasting impact on the victim's life.For example, something posted online as a teenager could have an impact on the victim's job prospects later in life. This can cause anxiety and stress.Ability to bully from a distance: Cyberbullies can bully from a distance, which can make them feel invincible. This means that they may be more likely to engage in bullying behaviors because they do not see the impact it has on the victim. This can lead to increased levels of bullying and psychological harm to the victim.For such more questions on Cyberbullying
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Hiv, the virus that causes aids, is transferred through body fluids. People once thought that hiv infections were untreatable. Now, many people live relatively long and healthy lives despite being infected with hiv. This is possible because science helped develop new medicines. Treat inherited diseases. Change societal attitudes. Formulate new laws.
Many people live relatively long and healthy lives despite being infected with HIV which is possible because science helped develop new medicines and is therefore denoted as option A.
What is Medicine?This is also referred to as drugs and it is used to treat different types of diseases or sicknesses. There are different types of medicines with their unique properties and functions and should be taken in the right quantity.
Many people thought that HIV infections were untreatable which was dispelled due to advances in sciences. This led to the production of drugs which could treat and boost the immune system and made it possible for humans to live with the disease.
This is therefore the reason why option A was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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a pediatric patient has an increased risk of neck hyperextension or flexion until about age:
A pediatric patient has an increased risk of neck hyperextension or flexion until about age A. 8 years.
Pediatric patients have a higher risk of neck hyperextension or flexion due to the relative weakness and underdevelopment of their neck muscles. As children grow and develop, their neck muscles gradually strengthen, providing better support and stability to the head and neck.
By the age of 8 years, most children have developed sufficient neck muscle strength and control to minimize the risk of excessive hyperextension or flexion. Their neck muscles become more capable of maintaining proper alignment and protecting the cervical spine during movements and activities.
Therefore, it is important to consider the age-related developmental milestones when assessing the risk of neck hyperextension or flexion in pediatric patients. Close monitoring and appropriate precautions should be taken until the child reaches an age where their neck muscles have adequately matured to provide sufficient stability and protection.
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The complete question is:
A pediatric patient has an increased risk of neck hyperextension or flexion until about age:
A. 8 years.B. 5 years.C. 7 years.D. 6 years.What is the acronym for an imaging technique uses gamma rays to examine the body?
A.
SIDS
B.
SPECT
C.
TENS
D.
SOAP
E.
PET
Answer:
SPECT
Explanation:
single photon emission computed tomography
Answer:
B (Edmentum)
Explanation:
The answer is SPECT, which is abbreviated for single photon emission computed tomography. This is a method that uses gamma rays to create images of organs found in the body.
YO SOMEONE HELP ME
1. Obtain your maximum heart rate (MHR) 220 by subtracting your age from 220.
2. At what percent of maximum heart rate do you wish to train? The lower limit is 60% for training effect, and the safe upper limit is 90%.
3. Multiply Step 2 times the value of Step 1. HRR X 50% and HRR x 85%
4. A is results lower limit of target heart rate zone for training effect, and B is the safe upper limit.
Answer:1You can calculate your maximum heart rate by subtracting your age from 220. For example, if you're 45 years old, subtract 45 from 220 to get a maximum heart rate of 175. This is the average maximum number of times your heart should beat per minute during exercise.
2To be effective, exercise should be at the right intensity (about 60% to 70% of your maximum heart rate) for your age and fitness. In other words, it should not be too easy or too hard. You also must exercise long enough (20 minutes or more in your zone) to burn enough calories to lose weight.
3i dont know about this one
4It is possible to exceed the upper limit of your zone without any ill effects, as long as you do not have coronary artery disease or are at risk for a heart attack. What it may do, though, is leave you with a musculoskeletal injury. Exercising above 85% of your target heart rate could bring you sore joints and muscles.
Explanation:
How do nephrons help in purification of blood?
Answer:
The nephrons work through a two-step process: the glomerulus filters your blood, and the tubule returns needed substances to your blood and removes wastes. Each nephron has a glomerulus to filter your blood and a tubule that returns needed substances to your blood and pulls out additional wastes
Answer:
the glomerulus filters your blood, and the tubule returns needed substances to your blood and removes wastes.
Explanation:
Each nephron has a glomerulus to filter your blood and a tubule that returns needed substances to your blood and pulls out additional wastes.
pls mark brainliest!
List three appropriate ways of being intimate while still maintaining abstinence.
Answer:i have no clue
Explanation:
i’m sorry
fiber retains water, thus when adequate fiber and fluids are consumed, feces have a higher water content and are more easily passed. T/F?
Answer: True.
Explanation: Fiber is a type of carbohydrate that is not broken down or absorbed by the body and provides bulk to the feces. When fiber and fluids are consumed, they help to keep feces hydrated and soft, making them easier to pass. This can help prevent constipation and promote regular bowel movements.
the key aspect of dissociative disorders is the ____ of consciousness, memory, and identity.
The key aspect of dissociative disorders is the alteration of consciousness, memory, and identity.
Dissociative disorders are mental health conditions that involve disruptions or breakdowns of memory, identity, awareness, and/or perception. Dissociative disorders are believed to occur due to traumatic or stressful life events, especially during childhood, which cause a person to disconnect from their thoughts, feelings, memories, or sense of identity.
Dissociative disorders are classified into different types based on their symptoms and severity. The types include dissociative amnesia, dissociative identity disorder (DID), depersonalization/derealization disorder, and unspecified dissociative disorder. The symptoms of dissociative disorders vary, but some common symptoms include memory loss, feeling detached from oneself, feeling as if one is in a dream, and identity confusion. The dissociation of memory, identity, or consciousness can occur temporarily or permanently. It is essential to seek treatment for dissociative disorders, which may involve therapy, medication, or a combination of both.
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Based on your understanding of the scenario, how would the damage described by the diagnostic technician affect the cells? The cells would be unable to process energy The cells would be unable to clean waste products The cells would be unable to replicate correctly. The cells would be unable to absorb oxygen. JUST DID IT ON EDGE, ITS THE CELLS WOULD BE UNABLE TO REPLICATE CORRECTLY. Hope that helps
The damage described by the diagnostic technician affect and The cells would be unable to replicate correctly.
Diagnostic Technicians are tasked with maintaining, inspecting, repairing, and servicing vehicles. They use diagnostic system to hint and pick out the beginning of the hassle after which start with the vital restore procedure. A cytopathologist is an anatomic pathologist skilled withinside the prognosis of human sickness via the take a look at of cells acquired from frame secretions and fluids, through scraping, washing, or sponging the floor of a lesion, or through the aspiration of a tumor mass or frame organ with a satisfactory needle.
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when individuals lose weight quickly, most of the weight lost is from ___ (multiple choice)
a. fat, water, and glycogen. b. water, muscle tissue, and bone. c. water, glycogen, and muscle tissue. d. fat, water, and muscle tissue.
When individuals lose weight quickly, most of the weight lost is from option C: water, glycogen, and muscle tissue.
When individuals experience rapid weight loss, the initial weight loss primarily comes from water, followed by a depletion of glycogen stores (carbohydrate energy reserves) in the body. Additionally, some muscle tissue may also be lost during rapid weight loss.
Fat loss is not the primary component of quick weight loss because it takes more time and sustained efforts to burn significant amounts of body fat. Fat loss generally occurs over a longer period of time with a combination of proper diet, exercise, and a sustained calorie deficit.
It's important to note that sustainable and healthy weight loss strategies focus on gradual and steady progress, aiming to preserve muscle mass while primarily targeting fat loss. Rapid weight loss approaches, especially those that involve extreme calorie restriction or excessive exercise, can have adverse effects on overall health and may result in muscle loss and nutrient deficiencies.
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Can you take guacamole through airport security?
To take guacamole through airport security it must fulfill the liquid rule that it must be less than 3.4 ounces.
The avocado-based dish known as guacamole was invented in Mexico. It is used as a dip, condiment, and salad element in foreign cuisine in addition to modern Mexican cooking.
The avocado based dish is a delicacy sought after by many thus people love to carry it to there homes to share relish the dish even after their trip.
Avocado is highly sought-after in many marketplaces throughout the world due to its nutritional benefits and low caloric content. Since avocados are popular in many dishes, there is a high demand for them. If this demand is not met, there may be shortages and disputes in the markets.
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which political right is protected by the 15th and 19th amendments?
Added to the Constitution in 1870, the Fifteenth Amendment was the final of the three constitutional amendments enacted during Reconstruction in the aftermath of the Civil War. While the Thirteenth Amendment prohibited slavery, and the Fourteenth Amendment barred states from denying “equal protection of the laws,” the Fifteenth Amendment established that the right to vote could not be denied on the basis of race. Though its express terms prohibit all racial discrimination in voting qualifications, the Amendment was aimed at ensuring the enfranchisement of African-Americans. Section 2 of this short but momentous Amendment also gave Congress the power to enact legislation to enforce the right against race-based denials of the vote. The constitutional meaning of the Civil War was reflected in these three amendments; when the Fifteenth Amendment was passed, it represented the principle that African-American citizens—many of them former slaves—were now entitled to political equality.
Yet the most significant fact about the Fifteenth Amendment in American history is that it was essentially ignored and circumvented for nearly a century. This history illustrates that constitutional rights can be little more than words on paper unless institutions exist with the power to make sure those rights are actually enforced. For the first twenty to thirty years after the Amendment was adopted, black adult men (women were generally not permitted to vote at this time) were indeed permitted to vote—and did so in large numbers. Nearly 2,000 African-Americans were elected to public offices during this period. But starting in 1890, Southern states adopted an array of laws that made it extremely difficult for African-Americans (and many poor whites) to vote. This was the start of what is known as the era of disenfranchisement, and it lasted all the way up until 1965. These laws required people to demonstrate literacy, or prove their good character, or pay certain voting taxes, or overcome other hurdles, before they were permitted to vote. As a result of these laws, African-American voting in the South was kept at extremely low levels from 1890 to 1965, despite the Fifteenth Amendment.
Early on in this process of disenfranchisement, the Supreme Court was asked to hold these laws unconstitutional. But in a 1903 case called Giles v. Harris (1903), the Supreme Court refused to do so; the Court stated that it did not have the power to force Southern states to comply with the Fifteenth Amendment. Later that year, in James v. Bowman (1903), the Court held that the Amendment did not authorize Congress to punish private individuals who interfered to prevent African-Americans from voting.
The Supreme Court did eventually invoke the Amendment to hold unconstitutional a few of the specific laws that sought to block African-Americans from effective political participation. In 1944, for example, the Court held unconstitutional rules that in some Southern states prohibited black citizens from voting in political primary elections. Smith v. Allwright (1944). In a well-known case, Gomillion v. Lightfoot (1960), the Supreme Court held that that City of Tuskegee, Alabama, had violated the Fifteenth Amendment when it re-drew the city’s boundaries from a square to an “uncouth twenty-eight sided figure” that put the residences of nearly all black people outside the city’s boundaries. Yet as of 1965, it was still the case that in Mississippi, for example, only 6.3% of African Americans were able to register to vote.
Which factors may increase the likelihood of a person using drugs? select three options.
The three factors that may increase the likelihood of a person using drugs are:
Experiencing depressionFamily members using drugsFavorite celebrities using drugs. Options A, B, and C are correct.Experiencing depression can make individuals more vulnerable to turning to drugs as a means of self-medication or escape. Having family members who use drugs exposes individuals to a social environment where drug use is normalized or readily accessible.
Influential figures, such as favorite celebrities, using drugs can impact individuals' perceptions and behaviors, potentially leading them to experiment with drugs. Having a serious childhood illness and occasionally taking over the counter cold pills are not directly associated with an increased likelihood of drug use. While these factors can impact a person's health, they may not necessarily contribute to drug use tendencies. Options A, B, and C are correct.yo
The complete question is
Which factors may increase the likelihood of a person using drugs? Select three options.
A. Experiencing depression
B. Family members using drugs
C. Favorite celebrities using drugs
D. Having a serious childhood illness
E. Occasionally taking over the counter cold pills
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Summarize the three phases of alcoholism by describing what the person experiences in each phase.
Alcoholism is increasing day by day and with that the number of victims that are impacted by the crimes related to the alcoholism is increasing as well. The three phases of alcoholism are early , middle and the late stage.
What is the organ that is affected the most in alcoholism ?Liver is affected the most in alcoholism.
Early stage is the stage when a person has started seeing alcohol as an anti stress thing or is getting started to being habitual to the alcohol use. Along with that the person is getting into the habit of drinking as it has become obsession yet.
Middle stage is the stage when the person is getting addicted and is in the continuous use of alcohol where he is using alcohol much and much daily that is he is almost addicted and comes in the territory of beginning of addiction.
Third stage is the late stage that is the person has become addicted to alcohol and he eagerly wants it and he is not realising the good or bad in it but wants it desperately.
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What statement does the nurse determine is a medical diagnosis rather than a nursing diagnosis? fever of unknown origin sleep-pattern disturbances risk for falls fluid volume excess
Among the options provided, "fever of unknown origin" is the statement that the nurse determines as a medical diagnosis rather than a nursing diagnosis.
Medical diagnoses typically focus on identifying and classifying diseases or medical conditions based on signs, symptoms, and diagnostic tests. In this case, "fever of unknown origin" refers to a medical condition characterized by an elevated body temperature without a clear underlying cause. It requires medical investigation to determine the specific cause of the fever.
On the other hand, nursing diagnoses focus on identifying actual or potential health problems that can be addressed by nursing interventions. Examples of nursing diagnoses from the options provided include "sleep-pattern disturbances," "risk for falls," and "fluid volume excess." These diagnoses relate to nursing assessment and care planning and reflect the unique scope and expertise of nursing practice in addressing patient needs.
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Which of the following is responsible for monitoring conditions in the body?
Answer:
The brain the hearth because those are the most important things in the body and Brian send conditions of your body
Explanation:
A client with obesity is prescribed lorcaserin for weight loss. The client reports dry mouth. What is the nurse's best response?.
Answer:
"This is an expected finding with this medication."
ing.
What is stress? Explain how stress can be both
positive and negative.
Stress is an amount that describes the value of forces that purpose deformation. pressure is commonly defined as the force in keeping with the unit area. while forces pull on an item and cause its elongation, like the stretching of an elastic band, we call such stress tensile stress.
Stress is the force appearing on the unit location of a fabric. The effect of pressure on a frame is named stress. stress can deform the frame. How tons of force material enjoys can be measured by the use of pressure devices.
Stress can be fine or bad, depending on the state of affairs. fine stressors (known as eustress) may include an upcoming wedding, the holidays, or being pregnant. however, terrible strain (known as misery) consequences in the full-blown strain reaction.
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Body Composition Weight Management Proteins Carbohydrates Flexibility Is the relative amounts of fat and lean body tissue. Is the ability to maintain a proper balance of the calories you Intake and those you expend. are the building blocks of muscle and provide four calories for every gram. are e your body's main energy source and provide four calories for every gram. is the ability of your body to move through a full range of motion. ed.
Answer:
oi amorzinho tudo bem com VC bb vida te amo de mais meu chuchu te amo gostoso se que tu tem xerecão tu vai me dar deteção