A client in their early twenties who has informed the nurse that she would be taking antimalarial prophylaxis and going on a safari vacation for her honeymoon needs follow-up instruction from the nurse to persuade the client to use dependable contraception.
If the patient is taking the medication, they should notify their doctor immediately away if they develop significant chest discomfort, headaches, eye issues, or leg pain. These signs might indicate several dangerous illnesses, such as a heart attack, pulmonary embolism, stroke, liver, or gallbladder problems.
In the majority of malaria-endemic areas, atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone), doxycycline, & mefloquine are the medications of choice for malaria prophylaxis.
Mefloquine can be taken safely in the third and second trimesters of pregnancy, whereas chloroquine (Aralen) is safe to use throughout the whole pregnancy.
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A 4-year-old boy was seen two weeks ago by his pediatrician because his father was concerned about him being very clumsy lately. The boy also has a hard time running, climbing stairs and he walks on tiptoes. There is a strong family history of muscular dystrophy. They are here today to go over the results of a muscle biopsy and EMG results. A confirmed diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy was made. The pediatrician wrote a prescription for physical therapy, and leg braces.
The 2022 ICD-10-CM Diagnostic code for this type of disease involving the nervous system is G71.01.
What is ICD-10-CM code?This is known as morbidity classification which classifies diagnosis and reasons for visits to healthcare facilities.
The boy has muscular dystrophy as a result of defects in the nervous system with the diagnosis for such being G00-G99 thererby making G71.01 the most appropriate choice.
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when do you find out the gender of a baby in months?
Answer: 4-5 months
Explanation:
The gender of a baby can typically be determined through an ultrasound examination, which is often performed between 18 and 22 weeks of pregnancy (around 4-5 months).
At this stage, the development of the baby's genitalia is usually clear enough for a medical professional to identify whether the baby is male or female.
However, it's important to note that the accuracy of this determination may vary depending on factors such as the baby's position, the ultrasound technician's experience, and the quality of the ultrasound equipment.
In some cases, if the baby's gender cannot be determined during the initial ultrasound, a follow-up examination may be necessary.
Additionally, there are also prenatal DNA tests like Non-Invasive Prenatal Testing (NIPT) that can detect the baby's gender as early as 9-10 weeks into pregnancy, but these tests are typically reserved for specific situations where there may be a risk for genetic abnormalities.
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A nurse is preparing to administer lithium 300 mg PO every 8 hr. Available is lithium carbonate 150 mg capsules. How many capsules should the
nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
capsule(s)
2 capsules of lithium carbonate 150 mg should be administered instead of lithium 300 mg PO.
What are the uses of lithium carbonate 150 mg?The manic-depressive disorder is treated with this drug (bipolar disorder). Re-establishing the proper balance of specific natural compounds (neurotransmitters) in the brain helps to calm the mood and lessen excessive behavior.
Additionally, lithium promotes the growth of stem cells in the bone marrow as well as neural stem cells in the forebrain, striatum, and subventricular zone.
Lithium's ability to enhance brain cell volume and density in people with bipolar illnesses may be due to its ability to stimulate endogenous neural stem cells.
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Which nutrient is required to produce key neurotransmitters that regulate children's ability to pay attention
Zinc is the nutrient which is required to produce key neurotransmitters that
regulate children's ability to pay attention.
The main neurotransmitters in the body are known as serotonin and
dopamine . The element known as Zinc serves as a cofactor in their
production together with other substances.
Recent studies done have also linked zinc deficiency as the reason why
individuals have attention problems which makes it the right choice.
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What are the drivers of the healthcare industry's focus on patient satisfaction and on employing resources in an effective manner? Discuss various patient satisfaction evaluation tools, how they affect funding, and physician salaries. Discuss CMS's value on patient satisfaction and how it affects reimbursement. Summarize succinctly in a conclusion/summary paragraph.
Patient satisfaction is a key driver of quality care in the healthcare industry. Healthcare organizations must utilize various evaluation tools to measure and improve patient satisfaction scores to maintain financial stability and remain competitive.
The healthcare industry focuses on patient satisfaction and employing resources in an efficient manner to provide high-quality care and improve patient outcomes. The following are the drivers of this focus:
Changing Payment Models: Healthcare providers' reimbursement is increasingly tied to quality and patient satisfaction scores. This motivates providers to focus on improving patient satisfaction to maintain financial stability.Competition: Healthcare organizations must compete with one another to attract patients and maintain market share. Patients are more likely to choose providers who have a reputation for providing high-quality care and positive patient experiences.Patient-Centred Care: The healthcare industry is shifting towards a more patient-centred approach to care, which requires providers to focus on the individual needs and preferences of their patients. This approach involves involving patients in decision-making, providing education and support, and fostering trust and communication.Various patient satisfaction evaluation tools include surveys, focus groups, and direct feedback from patients. These tools allow healthcare organizations to gather data on patients' experiences and identify areas for improvement. The data is used to guide quality improvement initiatives, staff training, and resource allocation decisions.
Positive patient satisfaction scores may attract additional funding from investors or donors. Additionally, physicians with high patient satisfaction scores may receive bonuses or salary increases.
The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) ties reimbursement to patient satisfaction scores. CMS has implemented the Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS) survey, which measures patients' perceptions of their hospital experience. Hospitals must meet specific benchmarks to receive full reimbursement from Medicare. Therefore, organizations that perform poorly on the HCAHPS survey may receive lower reimbursement rates, which can impact their financial stability.
In conclusion, patient satisfaction is a key driver of quality care in the healthcare industry. Healthcare organizations must utilize various evaluation tools to measure and improve patient satisfaction scores to maintain financial stability and remain competitive. Additionally, CMS has implemented programs that tie reimbursement to patient satisfaction scores, which further incentivizes healthcare organizations to prioritize patient satisfaction.
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A system used to organize the many types of cancer, based on where the cancer first course is called the _______v
When is periodontal disease reversible?
Answer:
it's reversible
it is related to teeth
Put the following in the correct order of the process of inflammation:
Vasodilation → Adhesion → Emigration → Chemotaxis → Diapedesis → Phagocytosis.
Answer: Vasodilation, Adhesion, Emigration, Chemotaxis, Diapedesis. Phagocytosis.
dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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Which client statement indicates that termination of the therapeutic nurse-client relationship has been handled successfully?
The client statement that indicates that termination of the therapeutic nurse-client relationship has been handled successfully is reviewing the changes that have happened during our time together has helped me put things in perspective.
Termination should start during the orientation stage to reduce feelings of loss when the nurse-client relationship ends. When progress has been made in achieving mutually agreed-upon goals, the therapy partnership might be brought to an end.
The definition of a therapeutic nurse-client relationship is a helping relationship built on shared trust and respect, the encouragement of faith and hope, sensitivity to oneself and others, and assisting with the satisfaction of your patient's physical, emotional, and spiritual needs through your knowledge and skill.
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5. In Rutherford (1997), the California Supreme Court addressed the burden on a plaintiff in an asbestos-related cancer case to prove that the defendant's product was a legal cause of the plaintiff's (or the plaintiff's decedent's) injuries. The Supreme Cour held that sucl a plaintiff "nay prove causation... by demonstrating that the plaintiff's exposure to defendant's asbestos containing product in reasonable medical probability was a substantial factor in contributing to the aggregate dose of asbestos the plaintiff or decedent inhaled or ingested, and hence to the risk of developing asbestos related cancer." To meet this burden, many plaintiffs in asbestos cases (including the plaintiff in Rutherford) present testimony from medical experts who espouse the theory that exposure to even low doses of asbestos contributes to the development of mesothelioma, an asbestos-related cancer... [Plaintiff's expert opined "that each exposure, even a relatively small one, contributed to the occupational "dose' and hence to the risk of cancer," and therefore the plaintiff's exposure to Defendant's product, even if very small. was a substantial factor in contributing to the risk of developing cancer]. In this case, the plaintiff. Ms. Davis. presented such expert testimony at trial in support of her claim that her father's exposure to asbestos in Bendix brake linings that he used when performing brake jobs in the 1960s and 1970 s was a substantial factor in contributing to his risk of developing mesothelioma. In this appeal from the judgment entered on a jury verdict in plaintiff's favor, defendant Honeywell International Inc. (Honeywell) contends that this opinion testimony-which commonly is referred to as the "every exposure," "any exposure," or "any fiber" theory-should have been excluded because it is speculative and devoid of evidentiary and logical support. Having reviewed much of the commentary and scientific literature cited in support of and against the Page 270 "every exposure" theory, the appellate court concluded the theory is the subject of legitimate scientific debate. Because, in ruling on the admissibility of expert testimony, the trial court "does not resolve scientific controversies" we believe that processing the expert witness is a task for the jury. What would have had to have beei! true for the cout ro have decided in Honeywell's favor? [Davis v Honenwell International, Ine. (Cal App. 4th, 2016).]
In this particular case, the court did not decide in Honeywell's favor, and the "every exposure" theory was considered admissible for the jury to assess and weigh the evidence presented.
For the court to have decided in Honeywell's favor in the case of Davis v Honeywell International Inc., several factors would have had to be true:
The court would have had to determine that the "every exposure," "any exposure," or "any fiber" theory presented by the plaintiff's expert testimony is speculative and devoid of evidentiary and logical support.The court would have had to conclude that there is no legitimate scientific debate regarding the theory and that it lacks credibility.The court would have had to find that the plaintiff failed to meet the burden of proving that her father's exposure to asbestos in Bendix brake linings was a substantial factor in contributing to his risk of developing mesothelioma.The court would have had to exclude the plaintiff's expert testimony from the trial based on its determination that it lacks scientific validity.However, based on the information provided, it is mentioned that the appellate court reviewed the commentary and scientific literature supporting and opposing the "every exposure" theory and concluded that it is the subject of legitimate scientific debate. The appellate court also acknowledged that the task of processing the expert witness and determining the credibility of the theory is within the purview of the jury, rather than the court.
Therefore, in this particular case, the court did not decide in Honeywell's favor, and the "every exposure" theory was considered admissible for the jury to assess and weigh the evidence presented.
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Why does coding for laboratory testing change so frequently?
Answer:
As the designated standard for the electronic reporting of physician and other health care professional services under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), CPT codes are updated annually and effective for use on Jan. 1 of each year.
Explanation:
Codes for laboratory testing must change due to several reasons:
Codes for laboratory testing changes very frequently because they are updated as often as a new model is formed. When an existing model is modified, its codes must change as well. A lab code is generated when a new model is created and becomes part of that model's nomenclature.One example of a laboratory coding system that is universally accepted in the private practice circle of Medical practice in America is the CPT codes. CPT stands for Current Procedural Terminology.So about why the CPT could be revised often, In 2021, the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes were heavily revamped by the American Medical Association (AMA) in concert with the (CPT) Editorial Panel, the RVS Update Committee (RUC). The consortium stipulated that revisions to the CPT code will now be made annually. This move is the first of its kind in over 30 years of Americal Medical History.The primary purpose for the revision was to ensure the simplicity of requirements, restore clinical relevance to the codes, and trim down on the volume of documentation required per se.Another example of Laboratory test codes is the Logical Observation Identifiers Names and Codes (LOINC®). This is the preferred standard adopted by the U.S. Federal Government to ease the facilitation of the exchange of clinical health information electronically. It also serves the purpose of ensuring universality, reducing ambiguity concerning the identification of things that can be measured or observedLOINC is revised even more frequently than CPT. Revision of LOINC takes place every biannually in June and December.For more about laboratory codes, please see the following link:
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Romans developed surgical tools such as scalpels and retractors. Which of the following career fields evolved around the development of these devices?
A: Genetic medicine
B: Medical sales representative
C: Medical instrument engineering
D: Biochemistry
E: Pharmacy
The career that evolved for the development of these tools was medical instrument engineering (Option C). This field allows the development of different medical devices.
Medical instrument engineeringMedical instrument engineering refers to the techniques and strategies aimed at developing new tools in medicine.
Currently, this field (medical instrument engineering) is aimed at designing, developing and repairing electronic medical devices and medical tools.
The devices can be used for improving the overall health of patients in clinical settings, as well as for developing new medical strategies.
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Regarding transferases enzymes?
Select one:
a. They catalyse oxidation/reduction reactions
b. They transfer a functional
group
c. They catalyse the hydrolysis of various bonds
d. They catalyse isomerization changes within a single molecule
e. They join two molecules with covalent bonds
LDH1 and LDH2 isoenzymes of lactate dehydrogenase enzyme are elevat
Answer:
they catalyse the hydrolysis of various bonds
what is the purpose of formalized codes of ethics in the health care professions?
The purpose of formalized codes of ethics in the health care professions is to increase the competence within the profession.
Healthcare ethics is a set of principles that physicians, nurses, and other clinicians follow when delivering medical treatment. It blends moral ideas with a sense of one's responsibility to others. Healthcare ethics is concerned with how providers treat their patients.
Healthcare ethics are crucial because professionals must recognize healthcare quandaries, make excellent judgements and decisions based on their beliefs, and stay within the rules that regulate them. Using AHP to quantify the relative relevance of the numerous medical ethical principles for individuals, the most significant principle is, without ambiguity, "Non maleficence".
The CMA Code of Ethics and Professionalism articulates the medical profession's ethical and professional obligations and duties. It is based on and reinforces the profession's basic principles and commitments, and it emphasizes obligations connected to modern medical practice.
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sometimes you just want to yeet people out windows. How do you not do this.
1 go outside at 11:00 pm and scream and shout. draw them and draw how you feel then go to some form of lake/ river and let your feeling of hate drift away...
Help with a reflection piece on adult safeguarding in the United Kingdom
Adult safeguarding is the process of protecting adults who are at risk of abuse or neglect. Abuse can happen to anyone, regardless of age, gender, race, or social status.
What is adult safeguarding about?There are many different types of adult abuse, including physical abuse, emotional abuse, financial abuse, and sexual abuse. Physical abuse is any act that causes physical harm to an adult. Emotional abuse is any act that causes emotional harm to an adult, such as threats, insults, or isolation. Financial abuse is any act that takes advantage of an adult's financial resources, such as stealing money or property. Sexual abuse is any sexual act that is forced or unwanted.
In the United Kingdom, adult safeguarding is the responsibility of a number of different agencies, including local authorities, the NHS, and the police. These agencies work together to identify and protect adults who are at risk of abuse.
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The nurse is providing care for a client with acute myeloid leukemia. Which of the following nursing diagnoses are appropriate for this client? (Select all that apply)
Fluid volume excess
Imbalanced nutrition
Risk for autonomic dysreflexia
Ineffective protection
Acute confusion
The nurse is providing care for a client with acute myeloid leukemia. B. Imbalanced nutrition and D. Ineffective protection are nursing diagnoses that are appropriate for this client.
B. Imbalanced nutrition: Clients with acute myeloid leukemia often experience poor appetite, weight loss, and nutritional deficiencies due to the impact of the disease and its treatments on their nutritional status. This nursing diagnosis addresses the potential for inadequate intake or absorption of nutrients, which can lead to imbalanced nutrition.
D. Ineffective protection: Acute myeloid leukemia compromises the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections and impaired ability to fight off pathogens. This nursing diagnosis focuses on the increased risk of infection and the need for interventions to enhance the client's protection against potential harm.
These nursing diagnoses are appropriate for addressing the specific needs and risks associated with acute myeloid leukemia. However, it is important to perform a thorough assessment of the client's condition to identify any additional nursing diagnoses that may be relevant based on their individual circumstances.
Therefore, options B and D are correct.
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Mr. Lopez has heard that he can sign up for a product called “Medicare Advantage” but is not sure about what type of plan designs are available through this program. What should you tell him about the types of health plans that are available through the Medicare Advantage program?
I think it is pretty obvious, it is advantage over healthcare meaning, that ir probably has free health care, better medicine, and others
aviva experiences heavy and painful periods. her doctor finds, through an ultrasound, an abnormal growth of tissue outside the uterus. in this case, aviva is most likely to be suffering from
If Aviva's doctor finds, through an ultrasound, an abnormal growth of tissue outside the uterus, then Aviva is most likely to be suffering from a tumor.
What is a tumor?A tumor is a mass of cancerous cells that divide in an uncontrolled manner, which is due to the lack of a suitable cellular mechanisms that stop the growth in specific stages of the cell cycle such as the S stop point before DNA replication.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that tumors generate a mass of cells that may constraint adjacent organs and cause pain.
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A pharmacist is adding 1000 mg of pure codeine powder to 100 cc of tylenol with codeine elixir (120 mg/12 mg/5 cc). the resultant mixture should be classified as________.
The answer is CFR Title 21, Schedule III (clickable link for reference), which states, "No more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters, or no more than 90 milligrams of codeine per dosage unit, equal to or greater than ” is stated.
So 100ml is 240mg (12mg/5ml x 100ml) of codeine, and adding 1000mg of codeine to 100ml is 1240mg or 1.24g (1000mg + 240mg). = 1240 mg), which he has less than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 ml, so can be classified as Schedule III
Toronto Star, from five pharmacies he purchased 1,000 tablets. .
Codeine is an addictive narcotic and countries such as the United States, Sweden and Germany make pain relievers available only by prescription.
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the nurse is performing an initial assessment of a patient in labor. what is the appropriate terminology for the relationship of the fetal body parts to one another?
C. Attitude.
The relationship between the various fetal bodily parts is known as attitude. The relationship between the mother's and the fetus' long axes (or spines) is called a lie. The term "presentation" describes the area of a fetus that travels first into the birth canal and into the pelvic inlet during term labor. The position of the fetus refers to how it sits in relation to all four quadrants of a mother's pelvis.
Birth Canal- The route through which bodily fluid leaves when a woman is menstruating. Another name for it is "the birth canal." The upper portion of the uterus is connected by a small, tubular structure called the fallopian tube. The birth canal is made up of the cervix and vagina.
The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,
Q. The nurse is performing an initial assessment of a client in labor. What is the appropriate terminology for the relationship of the fetal body parts to one another?
A. Lie
B. Presentation
C. Attitude
D. Position
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Find the correct statement(s). 0 In high-cycle fatigue domain the stresses are relatively high and fatigue lives are relatively long. In low-cycle fatigue domain the stresses are relatively low and fatigue lives are relatively long. Fatigue crack growth rate is almost a constant from the crack initiation to the final failure. OD Cracks associated with fatigue almost always appear deep inside the material (opposite to the brittle fracture). E. Statements A)-D) are incorrect.
Answer:
Explanation:
E. Statements A)-D) are incorrect.
Explanation:
In the high-cycle fatigue domain, the stresses are relatively low and fatigue lives are relatively long. In contrast, in the low-cycle fatigue domain, the stresses are relatively high and fatigue lives are relatively short. Fatigue crack growth rate increases as the crack grows, leading to accelerated failure. Cracks associated with fatigue can appear on the surface or near the material's surface.
Hi :v.......,,.............
Answer:
hi
Explanation:
Answer:
heyyyyyyyyyy lol :)))))
If a person’s diet includes a lot of processed foods and not a lot of fresh fruits or vegetables, failing to meet recommended intakes of ______ is likely.
Answer:
potassium
Explanation:
Got it right on the test.
If a person's diet consists primarily of processed foods and not a lot of fresh fruit and vegetables, he or she is more likely to fall short of meeting recommended potassium intakes, as fresh foods are high in potassium.
What are the roles of the ions in the body?The ions' role is important for the body as they maintain equilibrium in the body and there are many ions such as sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, etc., and if an ionic imbalance is attained in the body, many diseases are seen and the body's homeostasis is affected. In general, eating green vegetables and natural foods balances the ions, whereas eating processed foods creates an imbalance due to the high sodium content of preservative products.
Hence, if a person's diet consists primarily of processed foods and not a lot of fresh fruit and vegetables, he or she is more likely to fall short of meeting recommended potassium intakes, as fresh foods are high in potassium.
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The question is incomplete; the complete question is below.
If a person's diet includes a lot of processed foods and not a lot of fresh fruits or vegetables, failing to meet recommended intakes of _____ is likely.
A. Sodium
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Calcium
How often does the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry recommend that radiographic imaging be performed for children at high risk for tooth decay
According to the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD), radiographic imaging should be performed for children at high risk for tooth decay every 6 to 12 months. This recommendation is based on individualized assessments of each child's dental health needs, taking into account factors such as their age, dental history, risk factors for tooth decay, and overall oral health. The AAPD also emphasizes the importance of using the lowest possible radiation exposure for radiographic imaging, as well as following appropriate safety guidelines and protocols to minimize risks to children.
The American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD) recommends that radiographic imaging be performed for children at high risk for tooth decay on an individualized basis, based on their specific risk factors and clinical presentation.
This means that there is no set frequency or timeline for radiographic imaging in these children. Rather, dental professionals should assess each child's risk factors, such as previous decay experience, oral hygiene habits, diet, and other factors, and use their clinical judgment to determine if and when radiographs are necessary.
The AAPD's guidelines stress the importance of personalized care and risk assessment, and recommend that dental professionals consider a variety of factors when making decisions about radiographic imaging in children at high risk for tooth decay.
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What does mixed-methods research include?
observational design
transformative design
distinctive design
directional design
Answer:
Quantitative research is statistical: it has numbers attached to it, like
averages, percentages or quotas. Qualitative research uses non-statistical
methods. For example, you might perform a study and find that 50% of a
district's students dislike their teachers.
Explanation:
Characteristics of Qualitative Research.
Findings are judged by whether they make sense and are consistent with
the collected data.
Results are validated externally by how well they might be applicable to
other situations. This is tough to do; rich, detailed descriptions can help to
bolster external validity.
Data is usually collected from small, specific and non-random samples.
Actions of the researcher that can compromise the integrity of the findings:
Intellectual honesty in proposing, performing, and reporting research refers
to honesty with respect to the meaning of one's research. It is expected
that researchers present proposals and data honestly and communicate
their best understanding of the work in writing and verbally.
When a researcher do not exemplify and transmit the values associated
with ethical scientific conduct” (NAS, 1995, preface).
2.
Ben visits his doctor because his wife notices that sometimes at night he stops breathing. It only lasts a
few seconds and then he seems to startle himself back into breathing again What medical terms would
you use to describe what Ben is experiencing? Break down the meaning of the terms. Then explain what is
happening in Ben's body to produce these symptoms.
In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
What is sleep apnea?
Sleep apnea has a serious health issue and in that case potential serious disorder of sleep has been breathing repeatedly that stops and starts at time. There are several risk factors that include the age as well as obesity and it has been the most common in the men.
The main problem of parents are that they are comparing their child with other children living nearby them but they have to understand that every child is unique and every child is special. God has given different talent as well as different personality to every child and comparing them with others is not at all a good symbol for their bright future.
Try to teach the children about their good and bright future, try to make them learn about living a good and valuable life. Teach them to learn not to memorize the things only given in books and give them some practical knowledge.
Therefore, In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
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Which best explains the role of a placebo taken during menstruation with birth control pills?
A. to counteract the adverse effect of medication in the nonplacebo pills
B. to administer smaller amounts of drug
C. to act as an antagonist to prevent activation of the cells
D. to help patients keep the habit of taking the pill at the same time every day
Answer:
Most packs of birth control pills come with a week of placebo pills that don't contain any hormones. They're just there to keep you in the habit of taking a pill every day. Usually, you'd get your period while taking these placebo pills.
i will choose
D. to help patients keep the habit of taking the pill at the same time every day
Hi... ~
I think- Your answer would be is:
D. to help patients keep the habit of taking the pill at the same time every day
E x p l a n t i o n : -Because when you are having a birth placebo taken pill, its helps the patients to for them when they are having their menstrual cycle, of the placebo pill as long if they take their pill every day.
Hope It Helps. .-.
Vampipe~
1. A study was conducted to investigate the prevalence and associated factors of intestinal parasitic infections (IPIs) among 320 inmates living in Arba Minch prison.The finding indicated that, hand washing habits after handling soil was independently associated with IPI. Of 154 who were infected,145 had good hand washing practice after handling soil , while 9 of 27 who had poor hand washing practice after handling soil were infected. A. Draw 2x2 table B. Calculate appropriate type of measure of association C. Interpret the findings
Answer:
measure of association
Explanation: