A child is playing soccer and is involved in a head-to-head collision with another player. Which assessment findings should the nurse be alert to that may indicate a concussion? Select all that apply.A. HeadacheB. FeverC. DrowsinessD. VomitingE. Increased thirst

Answers

Answer 1

The assessment findings that may indicate a concussion after a head-to-head collision in a child playing soccer include A. Headache, C. Drowsiness, and D. Vomiting.

When assessing a child for a possible concussion, the nurse should be alert to the following symptoms:

1. Headache: A common symptom of a concussion, as the impact can cause the brain to move within the skull, leading to pain.
2. Drowsiness: Feeling excessively tired or drowsy may indicate that the brain is not functioning optimally due to the injury.
3. Vomiting: Nausea and vomiting may occur as a result of the concussion disrupting the brain's normal function, particularly in the areas responsible for balance and coordination.

It is essential for the nurse to monitor the child closely and seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are present or worsen, as they may indicate a concussion that requires further evaluation and treatment.

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Related Questions

Cycloidal gears; interchangeable set; 3 diametral pitch; radial flanks
on a 15-tooth gear. Addendum equals 1 in. ÷ diametral pitch.
Clearance equals
one-eighth of the addendum.
An 18-tooth pinion drives a 39-tooth annular.
show path of contact. How many teeth would there be in the smallest annular
that would gear with the 18-tooth pinion? Show path of contact.

Answers

There will be a minimum of 28 teeth in the annular gear that can gear with the 18-tooth pinion.

Given that the gears are Cycloidal gears; interchangeable set; 3 diametral pitch; radial flanks on a 15-tooth gear. Addendum equals 1 in. ÷ diametral pitch.

Clearance equals one-eighth of the addendum.

An 18-tooth pinion drives a 39-tooth annular. We are required to find the path of contact.

Path of contact in Cycloidal gears is a curve generated by a point on a circle rolling along a straight line.

The path of contact is represented by an arc of the pitch circle of each gear.

Cycloidal gears are a type of gear where the teeth have a rounded shape, in contrast to involute gears, which have a tooth profile that is involute in shape.

The rounded teeth allow for smoother engagement and less noise.

The addendum equals 1 in. ÷ diametral pitch, the clearance equals one-eighth of the addendum.

The diametral pitch is given to be 3.

Therefore, the addendum of the gear = 1/3 in

The clearance of the gear = 1/8 * (1/3) = 1/24 in

The base circle diameter = pitch circle diameter - 2 × (1/3) = 5/3 in.

The radius of the base circle = 5/6 in.

The radius of the addendum circle = 5/6 + 1/3 = 7/6 in.

The radius of the dedendum circle = 5/6 - 1/24 = 19/24 in.

The pitch circle diameter of the 15-tooth gear = 15/3 in = 5 in.

Now, to find the path of contact, we need to determine the value of the backlash.

Backlash is the amount by which the width of a tooth space exceeds the thickness of the engaging tooth.

The recommended value of backlash for a cycloidal gear drive is 1% to 2% of the module.

For Cycloidal gears, the recommended backlash is 0.25 x modulus of the gear.

To find the minimum annular tooth that will gear with the 18-tooth pinion, we need to use the formula:

(N1 + N2)/P = (P1 + P2)/P = k,

where P = Diametral Pitch

k = 2 for Cycloidal gears,

N1 and N2 are the number of teeth on the gears 1 and 2 respectively,

and P1 and P2 are their respective pitch circles.

Substituting the values:N1 = 18, N2 = 39P = 3k = 2

Diameter of the pitch circle of the pinion = 18/3 in = 6 in

Diameter of the pitch circle of the annular = 39/3 in = 13 in

Using the formula above:(18 + N2)/6 = (13 + N2)/13

Solving the above equation gives us the value of N2 as 28 teeth.

The path of contact for the above problem is shown in the attached image.

Therefore, there will be a minimum of 28 teeth in the annular gear that can gear with the 18-tooth pinion.

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The base circle diameter of the smallest annular gear is calculated as, BD' = PD' - 2a' = 0.9 - 2/20 = 0.8 in

Given that 15-tooth gear has an addendum of 1 in/DP and clearance equals one-eighth of the addendum,

Addendum,

a = 1 in/DP => 1/3 in

Clearance, c = 1/8 * 1/DP => 1/24 in

Therefore, the outside diameter of the 15-tooth gear would be,

OD = PD + 2a = 15/3 + 2(1/3) = 7 in

Also, the pitch diameter of the gear is given as,

PD = N/DP = 15/3 = 5 in.

Now, the base circle diameter of the gear is calculated as,

BD = PD - 2a = 5 - 2/3 = 13/3 in

The path of contact between the mating gears is cycloidal in nature.

It is shown as follows:

Given that 18-tooth pinion drives a 39-tooth annular,

The diametral pitch, DP = 3

For minimum number of teeth, DP should be maximum, say DP' = 20For DP' = 20,

Number of teeth, N = PD' * DP' = 360/20 = 18

Now, the outside diameter of the smallest annular gear would be,

OD = PD' + 2a' = 18/20 + 2(1/20) = 0.95 in

Also, the pitch diameter of the gear is given as,

PD' = N/DP' = 18/20 = 0.9 in.

The base circle diameter of the smallest annular gear is calculated as,

BD' = PD' - 2a' = 0.9 - 2/20 = 0.8 in

The path of contact between the mating gears is shown below: 

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A condition in which excess cerebrospinal fluid accumulates in the ventricles of the brain.

Answers

Hydrocephalus is an abnormal buildup of fluid in the ventricles (cavities) deep within the brain. This excess fluid causes the ventricles to widen, putting pressure on the brain's tissues. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is the clear, colorless fluid that protects and cushions the brain and spine.

A nurse is teaching a client who is at least 10 weeks of gestation about nutrition during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
~A. "I should increase my protein intake of 60 grams each day."
~"B. I should drink 2 liters of water each day."
~"C. I should increase my overall daily caloric intake by 300 calories."
~"D. I should take 600 micrograms of folic acid each day."

Answers

A nurse is teaching a client who is at least 10 weeks of gestation about nutrition during pregnancy, following statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching : C. "I should increase my overall daily caloric intake by 300 calories." Hence, option C) is the correct answer.

During pregnancy, it is important to maintain a balanced and nutritious diet to support the growth and development of the fetus. Adequate intake of protein, water, and folic acid are also important during pregnancy, but the statement that best indicates an understanding of the teaching is the need to increase overall daily caloric intake by 300 calories.

This is because during pregnancy, the body needs additional energy to support the growth and development of the fetus, as well as the increased demands on the mother's body. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) recommends that pregnant women increase their daily caloric intake by approximately 300-450 calories in the second and third trimesters, depending on their pre-pregnancy weight and level of physical activity.

Increasing protein intake is also important during pregnancy as it helps in the development of the fetus, but the amount of protein needed varies depending on the individual and their pre-pregnancy weight. A general guideline is to aim for an additional 25 grams of protein per day during pregnancy.

Drinking adequate water is also important during pregnancy to maintain hydration and support the increased blood volume in the body. The recommendation is to aim for 8-10 glasses of water per day.

Lastly, taking folic acid is important during pregnancy as it helps in the development of the neural tube and reduces the risk of certain birth defects. The recommended daily intake of folic acid during pregnancy is 600-800 micrograms.

In summary, while all of the statements are important for a pregnant woman to understand, the best answer that indicates an understanding of the teaching is the need to increase overall daily caloric intake by 300 calories.

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According to the book, to build basic cardio-respiratory fitness you should exercise ______ per week\

Answers

Answer:

I think it 3- 7 days per week

Explanation:

Conjunto de características que distinguen a un individuo de sus congéneres, dentro de una colectividad estudiada

Answers

Answer:

Estilo de aprendizaje, aptitud, personalidad e inteligencia emocional.

Explicación:

El estilo de aprendizaje, la aptitud, la personalidad y la inteligencia emocional son el conjunto de características que distinguen a un individuo de sus compañeros. Cada individuo ha utilizado un método diferente para aprender. Algunos estudiantes memorizan cosas a través de la escritura, mientras que otros de forma oral. También son diferentes en sus habilidades naturales para hacer algo. Tienen una personalidad diferente entre sí. Algunas personas son muy emocionales, mientras que otras tienen un corazón duro.

4. Sometimes there is an additional step "D" that follows DRSABC. What is this step? What happens during this step?
What is needed to perform this step?

Answers

Sometimes there is an additional step "D" that follows DRSABC which is known as defibrillation and it involves delivering electric shock to the heart and the defibrillator is needed for this step.

What is a Defibrillator?

This is referred to as a device which is used to deliver high energy electric shock to the heart of someone who is in cardiac arrest and is also a lifesaving technique.

This step helps to jumpstart the heart functions to make it work and in a scenario where the individual is still unconscious then compressions should be given in an attempt to resuscitate the individual.

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janice understands that demographic trends have a significant impact on the health priorities of global health organizations. which of the following trends is currently creating the greatest underlying pressure on the global community?

Answers

Increasing life expectancy. With increasing life expectancy there is an increase in chronic disease, increased need for specialized workers, need for long-term care, and increase health costs.

What results from a longer life expectancy?

The risk of disease, disability, dementia, and advanced aging before death has generally increased with longer life expectancies.

What impact does chronic illness have on life expectancy?

A recent study from John Hopkins found that having numerous chronic diseases worsens the impact, costing a person an additional 1.8 years of life on average.

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Consider a hormone with the half-life of twenty minutes. If secretion were to stop, its concentration would drop by

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If the secretion of a hormone with a half-life of twenty minutes were to stop, its concentration would drop by 50% in the next twenty minutes. In other words, the concentration of the hormone will be halved in twenty minutes. After another twenty minutes, the concentration will be halved again, i.e., 25% of the original concentration.

This process continues every twenty minutes until the hormone is no longer present in detectable amounts in the body. A hormone's half-life is defined as the time it takes for half of the hormone in the body to be cleared. Therefore, the shorter the half-life, the faster the hormone is removed from the body.

In addition, the hormone's elimination rate is inversely related to the half-life: the faster the elimination rate, the shorter the half-life.

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The concentration of the hormone would decrease by approximately half every twenty minutes if its secretion were to stop.

1. A hormone with a half-life of twenty minutes means that it takes twenty minutes for half of the hormone to be eliminated from the body.  

2. When secretion of the hormone stops, there is no additional supply of the hormone being produced or added to the body.  

3. Initially, the concentration of the hormone remains constant because the elimination rate is balanced by the secretion rate.  

4. After twenty minutes, half of the hormone present in the body would have been eliminated, and the concentration would have decreased by half.  

5. After another twenty minutes (a total of forty minutes since secretion stopped), half of the remaining hormone would be eliminated, resulting in a quarter of the original concentration.

6. This process continues every twenty minutes, with each subsequent interval reducing the concentration by half.

7. The concentration decrease follows an exponential decay pattern, where the amount of hormone remaining is halved every twenty minutes.

8. It is important to note that the actual concentration values may vary depending on individual factors, but the general trend is a continuous decrease by approximately half every twenty minutes.

In summary, if the secretion of a hormone with a half-life of twenty minutes were to stop, its concentration would decrease by approximately half every twenty minutes, following an exponential decay pattern.

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Chris is a 5-year-old male who presents today to have four stitches removed from his forehead. Ten days ago he was playing on his swing set and fell off the slide, hitting his head on the side of the slide and lacerating the site. He was taken to the emergency room, where four stitches were placed. He is here in the office now to have the wound checked and sutures removed.


The wound is 2.5 cm long and healed nicely. No redness, infection, or drainage is noticed. The 4 sutures were removed without a problem.


ICD-10-PCS Code Assignment:

Answers

After the stitches are removed, the wound will continue to heal, and it is important to keep it clean and dry to prevent infection.

Chris is a 5-year-old boy who is having four stitches removed from his forehead. This is because ten days ago he had an accident while playing on his swing set and hit his head on the side of the slide, causing a laceration. He was taken to the emergency room where he received four stitches. Today, his wound is 2.5 cm long and has healed nicely. There is no evidence of infection, redness, or drainage. Removing the stitches is a simple and straightforward procedure that can be done in the office without any problems.

It is essential to have stitches removed in a timely manner to avoid any complications. Leaving them in for too long can cause scarring, infection, and delayed healing. The length of time stitches remain in place will vary depending on the location and size of the wound. In Chris's case, ten days was an appropriate amount of time.

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40. the nurse is caring for a client three hours after having a bowel resection of the large intestine. patient has a urinary catheter in situ, and a jackson pratt drain, with o2 40% via face mask. which manifestation may indicate that a complication from the operation has occurred? a. urine output of 30 ml b. lack of bowel sounds or flatus c. temperature of 98.2 f d. severe pain at the wound site

Answers

Option B, the absence of bowel noises or flatus, is a symptom that may point to an operation-related problem.

What you should know about complication from the operation like bowel resection of the large intestine?

The restoration of gut function following a colon resection is a key sign of healing. A blockage or obstruction in the gastrointestinal tract may be indicated by the absence of bowel sounds or flatus and may cause major problems such bowel perforation or sepsis.

Options a, c, and d do not always point to bowel resection-related problems. A urine output of 30 ml may signify dehydration but does not always mean postoperative problems. A fever of 98.2 degrees Fahrenheit falls within the usual range and is not always a sign of an infection or other problem.

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The chemical messengers which travel from the presynaptic to the postsynaptic neurons
are called
A. Glia
B. Neurotransmitters
C. Myelin
D. DNA

Answers

Answer:

Neurotransmitters

Explanation:

Like the name suggest, these chemicals transmit among the neurons. Thus, the name neurotransmitter.

hey there!

The chemical messengers which travel from the presynaptic to the postsynaptic neurons are called \(NUEROTRANSMITTERS\).

What does the flu do to your body? (It's due in 20 minutes!!!!!!!!!)

Answers

fight blood cells i think
The flu fights anti bodies, and the immune system. Most likely, if u recover from the flu, ur immune system defeated the flu! say for instance someone dies from the flu, their immune system wasn’t strong enough to fight it off completely

Splinting is used to immobilize the injured area, so that it cannot move. The splint should be
A- directly on the injured area
B- taped above and below the injury
C- taped above but on the injured area
D- taped below and on the injured area

Answers

The splint should be above and below the injury. For example, if the lower leg is broken, the splint should immobilize both the ankle and the knee. So the answer is B. Hope this helps

Primary union is also called?

Answers

Answer:

healing by first intention. I hope you will get it right

38. In a deployed environment you are authorized to administer Ertapenem (antibiotic) to a patient who is at risk for
infection and unable to swallow (e.g. right leg amputation and unconscious). In your aid bag you are carrying a vial of
Ertapenem 1 g, a 50 mL IV bag of 0.9% Sodium Chloride (NS) solution, and a 10 drop rate IV set. The recommended
IV dose to be administered is 1 g Ertapenem reconstituted in 10 mL NS then transferred to 50 mL NS infused over
30 minutes. What would the drip rate be for this patient? Round to the nearest hole.
Q) A. 17 gtts/min
B. 16 gtts/min
C. 18 gtts/min
D. 10 gtts/min

Answers

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Telomerase is a potential drug target for treating cancer. Therapies in development focus on telomerase inhibition. What is a possible concern if a telomerase inhibitor is administered systemically to a cancer patient?.

Answers

The possible concern if a telomerase inhibitor is administered systemically to a cancer patient is: if the patient is a child. Because most of their normal cells would likely be affected by telomerase.

What is telomerase?

Telomerase is a structure made from DNA sequences that are in the ribonucleoprotein group. Telomerase caps and protects the end of chromosomes. It is also required for cell divisions, which is why telomerase is classified as a potential drug target for treating cancer.

However, too much use of telomerase is dangerous because it helps cancer cells confer immortality and increase the likelihood of cancer. Whereas, too little telomerase also increase cancer by depleting the healthy regenerative of the patient's body.

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2. Hard boiled eggs can be left out of refrigeration for only 3-4 hours.

True or false

Answers

Answer:false

Explanation: this is because the bacteria in the egg has to stay at a certain temperature to stay good so therefore they will go bad

hope this helped

True but only if they have plastic wrap or something to keep them from rotting

A 39-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Room for a second time this week. She suffers from fatal familial insomnia and is currently prescribed Ambien (zolpidem) 10mg at bedtime. The patient is being seen for the second time this week after accidental poisoning/ overdosing on this medication

Answers

Fatal familial insomnia (FFI) is a rare inherited disorder characterized by the progressive degeneration of the thalamus, the region of the brain responsible for regulating sleep.

How does a refill limitation help doctors who have prescribed medication to patients?It is a fatal condition that results in the inability to sleep, and ultimately causes death.Patients with FFI are often prescribed medication to help manage symptoms, such as Ambien (zolpidem), a sedative-hypnotic medication that is used to treat insomnia. However, due to the rarity of FFI, it is important for health care providers to be aware of the potential for accidental poisoning or overdose when prescribing these medications.In this case, the patient is a 39-year-old female who has been prescribed Ambien (zolpidem) 10mg at bedtime and has presented to the Emergency Room for the second time this week after accidental poisoning/overdosing on this medication. This highlights the importance of close monitoring and careful dosing when treating patients with rare conditions like FFI.

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I want to become a doctor. What should I study first?

Answers

Answer:

science okayyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyy

Answer:

you should start by watching videos on depending on what type of doctor you want to be right flash cards test your self and go from there

Explanation:

hope this helps

A cell lacking mitochondria would be incapable of what?
Question 47 options:

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Lactic acid fermentation

c)

Aerobic metabolism

d)

Hydrolysis

Answers

Answer:

A cell lacking mitochondria would be incapable of aerobic metabolism. Aerobic metabolism is the process by which cells use oxygen to produce energy. This process takes place in the mitochondria, so a cell without mitochondria would not be able to produce energy through aerobic metabolism.

Glycolysis and lactic acid fermentation are both anaerobic processes, meaning they do not require oxygen. Hydrolysis is a chemical reaction that breaks down molecules using water. None of these processes require mitochondria, so a cell lacking mitochondria would still be capable of glycolysis, lactic acid fermentation, and hydrolysis.

So the answer is (c).

What is the mechanism by which increased intake of solutes, such as the excess salt in a tasty bag of potato chips, increases blood pressure

Answers

The mechanism by which increased intake of solutes, such as excess salt in a tasty bag of potato chips, increases blood pressure is through the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). When the body senses an increase in salt intake, it responds by retaining water to maintain a balance of salt and water in the body. This leads to an increase in blood volume, which in turn increases blood pressure.

The RAAS is a complex hormonal system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. When blood volume and pressure decrease, the kidneys release an enzyme called renin, which converts angiotensinogen (a protein produced by the liver) into angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is then converted to angiotensin II by the enzyme angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), which is found in the lungs. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, meaning it causes blood vessels to narrow and increases blood pressure.

In addition, angiotensin II stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal glands, which promotes the retention of salt and water in the body. This further increases blood volume and blood pressure.

Overall, the increase in blood pressure due to excess salt intake is mediated by the RAAS, which responds to changes in blood volume and pressure by regulating fluid and electrolyte balance in the body.

Increased intake of solutes such as excess salt in potato chips can increase blood pressure by increasing the osmotic pressure of plasma, leading to an increase in extracellular fluid volume and subsequently increasing the cardiac output and peripheral resistance.

The mechanism by which increased intake of solutes, such as the excess salt in a tasty bag of potato chips, increases blood pressure is as follows:

1. When you consume a high amount of solutes like salt from potato chips, the sodium concentration in your blood increases.


2. In response to the increased sodium concentration, your body tries to balance it by retaining more water to dilute the excess solutes.


3. The increased water retention leads to a higher blood volume in your circulatory system.


4. The higher blood volume puts more pressure on your blood vessel walls, resulting in increased blood pressure.

This mechanism demonstrates how an increased intake of solutes, like salt in potato chips, can lead to higher blood pressure.

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Huntington’s disease is a condition that causes problems of the brain and muscle coordination in some humans. What would most likely be observed in humans who inherit this genetic disease?.

Answers

Huntington's disease is a genetic disorder that affects the brain and results in progressive motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms.

Huntington's disease can affect the basal ganglia, which are structures deep in the brain that are responsible for regulating movement. As a result, individuals with Huntington's disease may experience involuntary movements,These movements can interfere with normal activities and make it difficult to perform everyday tasks, such as walking, dressing, or eating.Involuntary refers to actions or movements that are not under conscious control. They are typically automatic and occur without intentional effort or conscious thought. Involuntary actions are often controlled by the autonomic nervous system, which regulates bodily functions such as breathing, heartbeat, and digestion.Examples of involuntary actions include the contraction of smooth muscles in the digestive tract, which helps move food through the system, the dilation and contraction of blood vessels, which regulates blood pressure, and the reflexive blinking of the eyes in response to bright light or other stimuli. Other examples of involuntary movements include shivering, goosebumps, and yawning.

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A(n) is an electronic data-sharing system that limits data sharing to a single facility, such as one particular hospital or clinic

Answers

A local health information exchange (HIE) is an electronic data-sharing system that limits data sharing to a single facility, such as one particular hospital or clinic.

Local HIEs allow health care providers within a specific geographic area to share patient's data and coordinate care.

They are often used to improve communication and collaboration among providers, reduce medical errors, and improve patient outcomes.

Local HIEs are different from regional or statewide HIEs, which allow for data sharing across multiple facilities such as hospitals or clinics, and organizations within a larger geographic area.

One of the key advantages of local HIEs is that they allow healthcare providers to share patient's data quickly and easily, without the need for paper records or time-consuming phone calls.

This can be especially important in emergency situations or when a patient is seen by multiple providers within a short period of time.

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During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should:
Select one:
A. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed.
B. immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level.
C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations.
D. ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke.

Answers

During the primary assessment of a 70 year old subconscious female, it is important to ensure a patient’s airway and support ventilation as needed.

This should be done in order to check for signs of stroke to check breathing and circulation of blood to the brain. When blood flow to the brain is obstructed, it leads to losing consciousness and partial paralysis which is a symptom of stroke. When blood flow to the brain is cut-off, it prevents the tissues in the brain from taking up nutrients and oxygen which results in the death of brain cells, which further causes brain death. Fast diagnosis is important for patients in such critical conditions. This may be caused due to high blood pressure or high glucose levels in the patient’s blood.

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(K12) Question 1 (1 point)
How does a fungus get food?
Question 1 options:

A. both autotroph and heterotroph

B. autotroph

C. Neither. It doesn't need food!

D. heterotroph

Answers

Answer:

D. Heterotroph

Explanation:

Fungi can't make their own food/energy like plants, they must extract energy from other living or dead things.

I believe the answer is c

A group of researchers want to conduct a clinical trial to determine whether a new cholesterol-lowering agent is useful in preventing coronary heart disease (CHD). They identified 12,327 potential participants for the trial. Upon initial exam, 309 were found to have CHD. The remaining subjects entered the trial and were divided equally into the treatment and placebo groups. Of those in treatment group, 505 developed CHD after 5 years of follow-up, while 477 developed CHD during the same period in the placebo group. What is the incidence during the 5-year study?

Answers

Answer:

The incidence during the 5-year study is 982.

Explanation:

The incidence refers to the number of those who newly developed the CHD during the 5-year study period.  This number includes the 505, who developed CHD after 5 years of follow-up and the 477, who developed CHD during the same period in the placebo group.  The incidence does not include the 309, who were found to have CHD upon the initial examination.  When this number (982) is compared with the total of 12,327 potential participants in the study, the incidence rate is obtained.

what is best way to avoid e coli

Answers

Answer:

Thoroughly wash hands, counters, cutting boards, and utensils after they touch raw meat. Avoid raw milk, unpasteurized dairy products, and unpasteurized juices (such as fresh apple cider). Don't swallow water when swimming and when playing in lakes, ponds, streams, swimming pools, and backyard “kiddie” pools.

Explanation:

Don’t eat raw chicken

If digoxin has a half life of 35 hours, how long will it take for a toxic plasma concentration of 8 ng/ml to decline to a therapeutic plasma concentration of 2 ng.ml?

Answers

Answer:

It will take seventy hours

Anthrax can infect an individual through which of the following routes of​ exposure?
skin
ingestion
inhalation

Answers

Anthrax can infect an individual through the following routes of exposure: skin, ingestion, and inhalation. Anthrax is a serious bacterial infection caused by the spore-forming bacterium Bacillus anthracis. It can enter the body through different routes.

Skin exposure occurs when spores come into direct contact with an open wound or abrasion, resulting in a localized form of anthrax known as cutaneous anthrax. Ingestion of contaminated meat from infected animals can lead to gastrointestinal anthrax if the spores survive the digestive process and germinate within the body. Finally, the most severe form of anthrax is inhalation anthrax, which occurs when spores are inhaled into the lungs. This form can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention. Implementing proper preventive measures and being aware of potential exposure sources are crucial in minimizing the risk of anthrax infection.

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how to treat patients with TB

Answers

When treating patients with TB (tuberculosis), healthcare professionals should follow a multidisciplinary approach that involves accurate diagnosis, appropriate medication, and ongoing support. Initially, a physician should confirm the diagnosis using tests such as sputum smear microscopy, chest X-ray, and culture examination. Once TB is confirmed, patients are prescribed a combination of first-line anti-TB drugs, including Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Ethambutol, and Pyrazinamide, for a minimum of 6 months. The treatment consists of two phases: an intensive phase lasting 2 months, and a continuation phase lasting 4 months.

Adherence to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial to ensure successful treatment and prevent the development of drug-resistant TB. Healthcare providers can utilize Directly Observed Treatment, Short-course (DOTS) to monitor patients and enhance adherence. This method involves a healthcare worker or trained volunteer observing the patient take their medication, ensuring consistent intake.

Additionally, healthcare professionals should educate patients on TB transmission and provide guidance on preventive measures, such as wearing masks and maintaining good ventilation in living spaces. Patients should also be encouraged to seek timely follow-ups and report any side effects to their healthcare provider. Proper nutrition, emotional support, and addressing any social barriers are essential in promoting a patient's overall well-being during TB treatment.

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Other Questions
When making a long trip, you should stop for a rest: which of the following will result in accelerated eutrophication when introduced into streams, lakes, and bays? responses bacteria and viruses bacteria and viruses pesticides pesticides herbicides herbicides phosphates phosphates acid wastes and salts The nurse observes a prescription written for a client for a medication that does not correlate with the client's diagnosis or comorbid factors. what is the best action for the nurse to take? Compare the events in the life of the Sun with those of a star that starts with lessmass than the Sun. when Dallas committed to work one morning his average speed was 45 mph. On the return trip he average only 35 mph. Due to congestion on the highway if the total traveling time for the round-trip is 50 minutes 5/6 of an hour find the distance between Dallass workplace and home Which factor that affects income is out of a worker's personal control?Group of answer choicesEducationLocationProductivityPolitics PLS I WILL GIVE BRAINLY How do the number of violence electrons of the light metals compared to those heavier than boron what are the major environmental challenges to the conifers growing in these parts of the world? What formal command would you use to ask the mayor to speak at a fundraising event for the localanimal shelter?Sr. Alcalde,_______(hablar) del refugio de animales, por favor. O hable O hablaO decirO hablen What was the Pantheon originally built for? The mass of a piece of silver is 21 g and it has a volume of 2 cm. What is its density? A. 9 g/cm B. 5.5 g/cm C. 42 g/cm D. 10.5 g/cm Joe drove 215 miles in 3 hours. Moe drove 240 miles in 4 hours. Who drove at the fastest rate of speed all animals share features of major importance and are therefore A solid lies between planes perpendicular to the x-axis at x=-5 and x=5. The cross-sections perpendicular to the x-axis between these planes are squares whose bases run from the semicircle y=-(25-x)to the semicircle y=(25-x). Find the volume of the solid.The volume of the solid is cubic units.(Simplify your answer.) The company formed in 1917 through a forced merger of German production, distribution and exhibition companies wasA. none of these: B. Auterenfilm;C. Decla-Bioskop;D. Parafamet Who is from ComptonA. Kendrick LamarB. Kanye WestC. Jermaine ColeD. Chris Brown Find a pair of integers whose product is-36 and whose diffence is 15. Mark purchased a 20 foot long sub for a party he cuts the sandwich into 5/12 foot sections into how many pieces does he cut the sandwich The software that a companys it department makes, builds, and develops is called _____. supreme court justice william o. douglas once said "i dont follow precedents; i make em." this statement reflects: