All her offspring had green pods, so yellow is recessive. The progeny of this cross are green and exhibit dominant traits because only one dominant allele is required for dominant traits to emerge.
Why is it called Mendelian genetics? The inheritance pattern of monogenic disorders is often referred to as Mendelian inheritance. It refers to specific patterns in which traits are passed from parent to offspring. This is because Gregor Mendel, an Austrian monk, was the first to observe different patterns of gene segregation for selected traits in peas and was able to determine the probability of the trait reappearing in subsequent generations.What are dominant and recessive traits?Simply put, traits that are expressed and observed more frequently within a population are called dominant traits.Recessive trait is expressed by a recessive gene. A recessive gene is a gene whose expression is suppressed by a dominant gene.To learn more about mendelian genetics visit:
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Why does DNA have to relocate
Answer:
chromosomes are made up of a DNA protein complex called chromatin that is organized into subunits called nuclesomes...
One living thing a group of them makes up a population
Answer:
True
Explanation:
A population is a group of living organisms of the same kind living in the same place at the same time. All of the plant and animal populations living in a habitat interact and form a community. The community of living ( biotic) things interacts with the nonliving (abiotic) world around it to form the ecosystem.
Answer:
true
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Explanation:
4. what are the major steps that occur during cellular respiration? what happens in each step (summarize briefly the key point(s))?
Cellular respiration is the process of breaking down food molecules to obtain energy. Three major steps that occur during cellular respiration are Glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the Electron transport chain.
The following are the three major steps that occur during cellular respiration:
1. Glycolysis
The first stage of cellular respiration is glycolysis. In glycolysis, glucose is broken down into pyruvate in the cytoplasm of the cell. This process releases a small amount of energy, which is stored in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate).
2. Krebs cycle
After glycolysis, the pyruvate molecules are transported to the mitochondria for the Krebs cycle. In the Krebs cycle, the pyruvate molecules are broken down into carbon dioxide, releasing more energy, which is stored in ATP.
3. Electron transport chain
The final stage of cellular respiration is the electron transport chain. In this stage, energy is transferred from the NADH and FADH₂ molecules produced in glycolysis and the Krebs cycle to create a proton gradient across the mitochondrial membrane. This gradient drives the synthesis of ATP through a process called chemiosmosis.
Overall, the process of cellular respiration involves breaking down food molecules to obtain energy in the form of ATP. Glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain are the three major steps involved in this process.
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A ribosome bound to the endoplasmic reticulum is involved in translating a new protein. the final destination of that new protein may be:________
A ribosome bound to the endoplasmic reticulum is involved in translating a new protein. the final destination of that new protein may be Lysosome.
Ribosomes, which are tiny, elongated organelles with a round shape, are found on the rough endoplasmic reticulum and are responsible for producing those proteins. When such proteins are produced incorrectly, they can occasionally remain inside the endoplasmic reticulum. While fixed ribosomes are anchored to the rER, free ribosomes are found in the cytosol and can roam around the cell. Proteins created by free ribosomes are released into the cytosol and utilized by the cell.
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An eagle carries a fish up 50 m into the sky using 90 N of force. How much work did the eagle do on the fish?
(Work: W = Fd)
40 J
59 J
140 J
4500 J
Answer:
4500J
Explanation:
As the formula stated above:
work=force×distance
=90×50
=4500J
2
How does Mike's mom compare the cell membrane and the nuclear
membrane?
A
Both the cell membrane and nuclear membrane are coverings.
B Both the cell membrane and the nuclear membrane controls the cell's
activities,
Both the cell membrane and the nuclear membrane let out waste.
D Both the cell membrane and the nuclear membrane allow substances to
enter the cell.
Answer:
A, they are both coverings. The cell membrane for the entire cell and nuclear membrane surrounds the nucleus.
Heyyyy guys pls help will make brainliest for best answer :D
Answer:
C
Explanation:
The light- independent reactions are also called the _____.
Answer: The light-independent reactions are also called the dark reactions or the Calvin cycle.
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Why do scientists think the Pillars of Creation are where stars are forming?
Answer:
They are so named because the gas and dust are in the process of creating new stars, while also being eroded by the light from nearby stars that have recently formed.
Explanation:
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the populations of some endangered animal species have stabilized or increased in numbers after human intervention. an example of a species that is still endangered and needs further assistance to recover is the
A species that are still endangered and needs further assistance to recover is the snow leopard.
An endangered species is one that "is in risk of extinction over all or a considerable part of its range," according to the Endangered Species Act (ESA). Under Section 9 of the ESA, any sort of "take," such as injury, harassment, collection, or death, are automatically prohibited in order to conserve endangered species. These regulations include a few limited exceptions that are detailed in Section 10 of the ESA. The Gulf of Mexico and the whole U.S. Atlantic coast are home to Kemp's ridley turtle, which is regarded as the smallest marine turtle in the entire world.
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Which of the following statements about beta diversity is TRUE? Beta diversity is the number of species found in one location at one time. Areas with high alpha diversity might not have high beta diversity. Mountainous regions with variable habitats tend to have lower beta diversity. Beta diversity does not change when you measure it at a different spatial scale
Beta diversity is the change in species number and composition between multiple environments or communities in a geographic region. The correct statement from the following about beta diversity is that areas with high alpha diversity might not have high beta diversity.
Beta diversity is the diversity of species between different environments or habitats. It measures the species composition differences between different locations, habitats, or ecological communities. The variation of biodiversity in different habitats in a region or across different regions can be calculated using beta diversity.
Alpha diversity is the diversity of species within a particular environment or habitat. Alpha diversity measures the number of species or species richness and the proportional abundance of each species in a single community or ecosystem. It's commonly used to evaluate the diversity of a specific area of interest in conservation biology, ecology, and biogeography.
The statement "areas with high alpha diversity might not have high beta diversity" is the correct one. Alpha diversity is usually more concentrated or specific to individual sites, and beta diversity describes the variations of species composition between distinct sites or habitats.
As a result, beta diversity might not be the highest in the most species-rich areas, such as the tropical rainforest. In the same way, areas with high beta diversity may have lower alpha diversity, such as the Arctic, where numerous species are adapted to the extreme conditions and high levels of stress.
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what is the correct classification of the symbiotic relationship?
F - Predator/Prey
G - Mutualism
H - Commensalism
J - Parasite/Host
write any two method for identification of fossils?
Traces of the dead bodies present on the sedimentary rocks are fossils identification parts. By the physical appearance as well we can see the fossils and the types.
What are the ways by which fossils form ?Molds and the casts are the ways by through the fossils are formed out.
Something becomes fossil then it is mineralized or later becomes is made of the minerals. This is usually meaning an increase in the weight. A fossil bone is just heavier than the normal bone that is noticeably so. So if object is heavy then it just might be the fossil. Sediment might fill mould and later form cast fossil.
Have an eye that looks for the detail Look for the regular lines along with the marks or the patterns on the pebbles just like ridges or the growth lines in the shell. Looking for the tiny pieces that are among the beach pebbles and not only the big stones. Often the crinoid stems or the belemnites can also be small as the little fingernail.
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According to the Hertzsprung-Russell Diagram what is the luminosity of the sun
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d)4
The Sun, which has a luminosity of 1 and a temperature of around 5,400 Kelvin, is located on the main sequence. The correct option is A.
How do you read an H-R diagram?So, the H-R diagram may be used to compare the Sun to any other star on the diagram. Outside of the main sequence, there are two distinct groups of stars that are interesting in and of themselves. Many very brilliant but relatively cold stars may be seen in the diagram's upper right corner.
A Hertzsprung Russell H-R diagram displays what?Astronomical graph in which the actual magnitudes (intrinsic brightness) of stars are plotted against distinct spectral types is known as a Hertzsprung-Russell diagram, or H-R diagram (temperatures).
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The pedigree shows the phenotypes for hair color in a family over four generations. In this pedigree, light hair color is the recessive allele, and dark hair color is the dominant allele.
The pedigree shows that over the four generations, there are both dominant and recessive alleles present.
What is an Allele?
An allele is a genetic variety. Alleles can be either dominant or recessive, and they determine a person's hereditary characteristics such as eye color, hair color, and other physical traits. Every gene has at least two alleles, which are inherited from one's parents. Alleles can be the same or different, and the presence of certain alleles can affect the expression of a trait.
In the first generation, both the father and mother have dark hair color, showing a dominant allele. In the second generation, two of the children have dark hair color, again showing a dominant allele, while the other two children have light hair color, showing a recessive allele. In the third generation, two of the children have dark hair color, again showing a dominant allele, while the other two children have light hair color, showing a recessive allele. Finally, in the fourth generation, two of the children have dark hair color, again showing a dominant allele, while the other two children have light hair color, showing a recessive allele.
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Defining Populations
List three scales at which populations can be defined, from largest to smallest. Population groups
The diagram below shows the steps of DNA replication.
2
Which of the following is the correct sequence of replication?
2,1,4,3
3, 4, 1, 2
3, 4, 2, 1
3, 1, 4, 2
Answer:
A
Explanation:
a template strand of dna has the sequence acggtactc. it codes for a sequence of mrna during transcription. during translation, the trna that will bind to the first mrna codon in the sequence will have the anticodon sequence . group of answer choices
The template strand of DNA has the sequence ACGGTACTC. During transcription, this sequence is used as a template to create an mRNA molecule with a complementary sequence. In the mRNA molecule, the sequence would be UGCCAUAGA.
During translation, the mRNA codons are read by tRNA molecules, which have anticodons that are complementary to the mRNA codons. The first mRNA codon in the sequence is UGC, which codes for the amino acid cysteine.
The tRNA anticodon that will bind to this mRNA codon is ACG, as it is complementary. So, the anticodon sequence of the tRNA that will bind to the first mRNA codon in the sequence is ACG.
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Which of the following did you include in your response?
predator-prey relationships
competition
new habitat
increased food source
new situations allow a variety of traits to be favorable
The main point of environmental habitual life depends on the area an organism lives in.
Answer:
environmental habitual life depends on the area an organism lives in.
Explanation:
Which could increase the amount of greenhouse gases in
the atmosphere?
O A. planting trees in areas that have been deforested
B. reducing the use of gasoline-powered vehicles
C. burning coal to produce electricity
O D. creating wind farms in desert areas
Answer:
C. Burning coal to produce electricity
burning coal to produce electricity
It is commonly believed that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is 98.6∘F. You are not entirely convinced. You believe that it is not 98.6∘F. You collected data using 54 healthy people and found that they had a mean body temperature of 98.26∘F with a standard deviation of 1.16∘F. Use a 0.05 significance level to test the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F. a) Identify the null and alternative hypotheses? H0: ?
H1: ? b) What type of hypothesis test should you conduct (left-, right-, or two-tailed)? i. left-tailed ii. right-tailed
iii. two-tailed c) Identify the appropriate significance level. d) Calculate your test statistic. Write the result below, and be sure to round your final answer to two decimal places. e) Calculate your p-value. Write the result below, and be sure to round your final answer to four decimal places. f) Do you reject the null hypothesis? 1. We reject the null hypothesis, since the p-value is less than the significance level.
2. We reject the null hypothesis, since the p-value is not less than the significance level. 3. We fail to reject the null hypothesis, since the p-value is less than the significance level. 4. We fail to reject the null hypothesis, since the p-value is not less than the significance level. g) Select the statement below that best represents the conclusion that can be made. 1. There is sufficient evidence to warrant rejection of the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F. 2. There is not sufficient evidence to warrant rejection of the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F. 3. The sample data support the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F.
4. There is not sufficient sample evidence to support the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F.
The conclusion of the hypothesis test regarding the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is sufficient evidence to warrant rejection of the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F.
What is the conclusion of the hypothesis test regarding the mean body temperature of a healthy adult?a) Null Hypothesis (H0): The mean body temperature of a healthy adult is 98.6∘F.
Alternative Hypothesis (H1): The mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6∘F.
b) The hypothesis test should be two-tailed.
c) The appropriate significance level is 0.05.
d) The test statistic is calculated using the formula: (sample mean - hypothesized mean) / (sample standard deviation / sqrt(sample size)). The result is -5.86.
e) The p-value is calculated by finding the probability of obtaining a test statistic as extreme or more extreme than the observed value under the null hypothesis. The p-value is 0.0000.
f) We reject the null hypothesis, since the p-value is less than the significance level.
g) The phrase "There is sufficient evidence to warrant rejection of the claim that the mean body temperature of a healthy adult is not 98.6F" best summarises the finding.
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Five percent of all individuals in a certain population are carriers of a particular disease. A diagnostic blood test for this disease has a 90% detection rate (that is, positive) for carriers and 5% detection rate for non-carriers. Suppose the test is made for a randomly selected individual. (a) What is the probability that the test is positive? (b) If the test is positive, what is the probability that the selected individual is a carrier?
(a) The probability that the test is positive is 0.14 or 0.15 or 0.16 or 0.17. (b) If the test is positive, the probability that the selected individual is a carrier is 0.692 or 0.933.
a)The probability is 0.15.The probability of a positive test can be found by multiplying the probability that the person is a carrier by the probability that the test is positive given the person is a carrier, then adding the probability that the person is not a carrier times the probability that the test is positive given the person is not a carrier.
In symbols, P(positive) = P(carrier)P(positive|carrier) + P(not carrier)P(positive|not carrier)P(positive)
= (0.05)(0.90) + (0.95)(0.05)P(positive)
= 0.075 + 0.0475P(positive)
= 0.1225 or 0.123 (rounded to three decimal places)
≈0.15
(b) If the test is positive, The probability that the selected individual is a carrier given that the test is positive is found using Bayes' theorem:
P(carrier|positive) = P(carrier and positive)P(positive)
P(carrier and positive) = P(carrier)P(positive|carrier)
= (0.05)(0.90)
P(positive)= 0.075 + 0.0475
= 0.1225
P(carrier and positive) = (0.05)(0.90)(0.1225)
= 0.0055125
P(carrier|positive) = 0.00551250.1225
P(carrier|positive) = 0.45 or 0.692 (rounded to three decimal places) or approximately 0.7, to the nearest tenth.
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(d) which curve best represents the change that would occur if the resources of this society doubled?
The exponential growth curve best represents the change that would occur if the resources of this society doubled.
The population will increase in an exponential manner under perfect circumstances with an endless supply of food and resources. Consider a population of size N, with the birth and death rates denoted as b and d, respectively. The equation can be used to calculate the rate of change of N.
dN/dt = (b-d) x N
If, (b – d) = r,
dN/dt = rN
Where r = intrinsic rate of natural increase. This equation can be represented with a graph which has a J shaped curve.
Hence, presence of resources defines type of growth curve will be formed.
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Suppose you have monohybrid pea plants in your garden and find that they produce round seed to wrinkled seeds in the ratio of 3:1. If the allele are designated (R & r) respectively, what is the probable Phenotype of the parents?
Answer:
The parents are probably both phenotypically round-seeded with genotypes (Rr) each.
Explanation:
According to the question, a monohybrid cross involving a single gene coding for seed shape in pea plants is the case here. The allele for round seeds is R while allele for wrinkled seeds is r. The "R" allele is dominant over the "r" allele i.e. the phenotypic expression of r will be masked by R in a heterozygous state.
In order to get a ratio 3:1 of round seeds to wrinkled seeds offsprings, the parents will probably both have an Rr genotype, which is phenotypically round-seeded considering that round seeds (R) is dominant over wrinked seeds (r).
As seen in the punnet square attached as an image, four possible offsprings will be produced from a cross between parents Rr × Rr. The possible offsprings will have genotypes: RR, Rr, Rr, and rr.
RR, Rr, Rr are phenotypically round-seeded (3)
rr is phenotypically wrinkled-seeded (1).
Hence, the ratio 3 round seeds : 1 wrinkled seeds will be probably produced by parents with round seeds (Rr).
describe how the terms "tornado alley" and "tornado season" are related to the analysis of data about tornadoes
Because they offer crucial details regarding the frequency and distribution of tornadoes in the United States, the terms "Tornado Alley" and "tornado season" are associated with the analysis of tornado statistics.
In the central United States, a region known as Tornado Alley is where tornadoes most frequently occur. Parts of Texas, Oklahoma, Kansas, Nebraska, and other neighbouring states are included in this region. Tornado Alley has been identified, allowing academics and meteorologists to concentrate their research there in order to gain insight into the conditions that lead to tornado development as well as the variables that influence tornado frequency and severity.
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what would this represent?
a) multicellular, eukaryote, autotroph
b) unicellular, eukaryote, autotroph
c) multicellular, prokaryotic, heterotroph
d) unicellular, prokaryotic, autotroph
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Which of the following is a true statement regarding sebaceous glands? Check all that apply1. Sebaceous glands are a form of sudoriferous gland2. Sebaceous glands secrete an oily substance called sebum.3. Sebaceous glands are modified mammary glands4. Sebaceous glands are found at the base of eyelash hairs5. Sebaceous glands are responsible for the oil that coats the hair on your scalp
According to the given information the true statements regarding sebaceous glands are: 2. Sebaceous glands secrete an oily substance called sebum. 4. Sebaceous glands are found at the base of eyelash hairs. 5. Sebaceous glands are responsible for the oil that coats the hair on your scalp.
Sebaceous glands are not a form of sudoriferous gland and they are not modified mammary glands.Sebaceous glands are small, oil-producing glands located within the skin. They are found all over the body, with the exception of the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. Sebaceous glands are most numerous on the face and scalp.The sebum, or oil, produced by sebaceous glands helps to keep the skin moisturized and healthy. Sebum also plays a role in protecting the skin by forming a barrier that helps to prevent the entry of harmful bacteria and other substances.Sebaceous glands can sometimes become overactive, leading to excess oil production and the development of oily skin and acne. In some cases, sebaceous glands can become blocked, leading to the formation of a comedo, or a whitehead or blackhead. If bacteria enters the blocked gland, it can become infected, leading to the development of a pimple or cyst.There are a variety of factors that can affect sebaceous gland activity, including hormonal changes, stress, and certain medications. Proper skin care, such as gentle cleansing and avoiding harsh or irritating products, can help to keep sebaceous gland activity in check and prevent the development of acne and other skin conditions.
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how can fuel arrangement affect the behavior of a wildland fire?
Which substance is secreted primarily by the stomach cells and promotes eating and weight gain by increasing smell sensitivity, stimulating appetite, and promoting efficient energy storage?.
Answer:
Ghrelin
Explanation:
The first branch onan evolutionary treeis... A. the most complex. B. The most recently evolved.D. the common ancestor
Evolutionary tree
The first branch on an evolutionary tree is the common ancestor of all the lineages that stem from it, it is the furthest temporarily from the present.
Therefore, the correct answer to this question is option D.