The thing that makes kes73 interesting to astronomers is ; ( A ) A second star.
kes73 is believed by astronomers to have come from the explosion of dying stars in the supernova. The gases from the dying stars explode and scatter across forming a colorful cloud known as kes73.
At the center of the colorful cloud formed from the gases of the dying stars is a second star ( magnetar ) which is the most powerful star in the galaxy due to its magnetic force.
Hence we can conclude that the thing that makes kes73 interesting to astronomers is the presence of a second star
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How are the fluke larvae transferred from the snail (invertebrate host) to the vertebrate host?
Food going through the human digestive system (generally) only moves in one direction. However, In some animals, the food goes in two direction and come out of the same opening. In which animals does this happen? Why? Why would this not work for human?
Answer:
This is known as rumination and it takes place in ruminants like cow .this happens because they are herbivore which mostly eat grass and other plants so for easy digestion the food is mostly chewed by them. This would not work for humans because our diet concisest of more variety of our diet, and there intestines are built differently than ours in order to adapt.
Explanation:
Hope it helps! =D
How does the cold spring graph differ from the normal weather graph?
Normal weather graph shows gradual increase or decrease in the climate whereas cold spring graphs shows steep increase and then sudden decrease in the graph. It shows the bell-shaped graph.
What is a climate?Climate represents the average weather of a particular location over a particular period of time. Weather is subjective to changes whereas climate is considered as a stable parameter. Climate is accounted for a long term.
Topology of an area is known by the climate of that place. Other factors that influence climate is latitude, elevation, vegetation, winds, precipitation etc.
Every celestial object has its own climate. For example., earth has three main types of climate namely tropical, temperate and polar. Climate plays an important aspect of biosphere. Various life forms are supported by climate. It determines the environment for living organisms.
Thus, climate is important for sustainance of life in earth.
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Of the following adaptations, which apply to life in rocky intertidal environments? Choose all that apply.
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Some organisms can grow directly on top of other organisms.
Some organisms can survive for long periods of time out of water.
Having a soft, flexible body helps prevent organisms from drying out.
A thick exterior or exoskeleton helps protect creatures from being crushed.
Burrowing is one of the most common adaptations in rocky intertidal zones.
Rocky intertidal environments can be defined as the area that is found on the coast where tides rise and fall every day.
During low tide, rocky intertidal environments are exposed and become hot, dry, and saline. During high tide, it is submerged in seawater. In rocky intertidal environments, the following adaptations apply to life: Some organisms can survive for long periods of time out of water. Having a soft, flexible body helps prevent organisms from drying out. A thick exterior or exoskeleton helps protect creatures from being crushed. Burrowing is one of the most common adaptations in rocky intertidal zones. Organisms living in rocky intertidal environments have to be adapted to harsh living conditions due to the alternating conditions of water and air. The above options explain some of the adaptations required by these organisms in order to survive in rocky intertidal environments.
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Does crossing over decrease genetic variation?
Chromosome crossover increases genetic variability by giving offspring chromosomes that differ from those of their parents.
The degree of genetic variation in a population is significant because natural selection depends on different alleles to change their frequencies for the better or worse.
Crossover is a process that results in fresh allele combinations in the gametes (egg or sperm) produced, assuring genetic diversity in any offspring produced.
Meiosis, also known as crossing over or recombination, is a process in which nonsister chromatids swap chromosomal regions. Cross-pollination creates new gene combinations in the gametes that are not present in either parent, increasing genetic diversity.
A species' genetic diversity is largely a result of meiosis. Two processes—independent assortment and crossing over—are the main means by which it achieves this (recombination).
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(b) A girl has blue eyes. Explain what her genotype must be.
what are the 5 requirements for a mineral to be a mineral?
Answer:
To meet the definition of mineral used by most geologists, a substance must meet five requirements:
1. naturally occurring.
2. inorganic.
3. solid.
4. definite chemical composition.
5. ordered internal structure.
Explanation:
Brainliest Please? Hope it helps :)
Have a good day/night
The 5 requirements that makes a mineral a mineral are :
It must occur naturallyA mineral is inorganic It must an organized internal structure Its' chemical composition must be definedMineral occur in solid formMinerals are substances ( inorganic ) that occur naturally in nature and in a solid form with a well structured internal structure and a well defined chemical composition. Some examples of minerals are : Quartz, Feldspar and calcite.
Hence we can conclude that the 5 requirements/characteristics of a mineral are ; It must occur naturally, A mineral is inorganic, It must an organized internal structure, Its' chemical composition must be defined, Mineral occur in solid form.
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Which statement is FALSE about spontaneous generation theory? Group of answer choices When microbes grew in Needham's flask of broth, he proposed it was an example of spontaneous generation occurring in microorganisms. Spontaneous generation is a theory that life forms can be generated from non-living objects Redi proved spontaneous generation theory by showing that maggots come from meat, not from other flies. Louis Pasteur's swan-neck flask experiment demonstrated that spontaneous generation does not occur.
Answer:
Redi proved spontaneous generation theory by showing that maggots come from meat, not from other flies.
Explanation:
As rightly stated in the options of this question, the theory of Spontaneous generation is a theory that life forms can be generated from non-living or inanimate objects. Several scientists including Needham, Redi, Pasteur contributed to this theory experimentally by either proving or disproving it. Their contribution are as follows:
- John Needham boiled a broth containing living matter but noticed cloudy appearance representing microbial growth. Hence, when microbes grew in Needham's flask of broth, he proposed it was an example of spontaneous generation occurring in microorganisms.
- Francesco Redi, on the contrary, disproved the theory by conducting an experiment using meat. Redi DISPROVED the theory by concluding that flies were responsible for appearance of maggots on the meat. Hence, the statement that "Redi proved spontaneous generation theory by showing that maggots come from meat, not from other flies" is FALSE.
- Loius Pasteur also disproved the theory of spontaneous generation by using swan-necked flasks. His swan-neck flask experiment demonstrated that spontaneous generation does not occur
Answer:yo
Explanation:
How is energy and forces related
how does sexual reproduction increase variation within a species
Explanation:
The process of sexual reproduction introduces variation into the species because the alleles that the mother and the father carry are mixed together in the offspring. ... A mate must be found, the egg must be fertilised by sperm, and then the offspring develop.
Answer:
because it increases the gene pool
Explanation:
So sexual reproduction requires two organisms, a male and a female, and their offspring has a combination of both of the parents, this varies the gene pool. Then the offspring creates more offspring, further varying the gene pool.
hope this helps:)
This is sugar found in the side chains of DNA.
Answer:
It should be deoxyribose
Which statement about ATP and energy is true?
A: ATP releases energy when it is formed.
B: ADP releases energy as it makes ATP.
C: ATP releases energy when it converts to ADP.
D: ADPabsorbs energy when it breaks its bonds.
Answer:
A is correct
Explanation:
took the test
What process do scientists think explains the evolution of mitochondria and chloroplasts from bacteria
Scientists put their conclusions into this by creating th Endosymbiotic theory. The endosymbiotic theory describes how mitochondria and chloroplasts (cell organelles) came to exist in eukaryotic organisms. The endosymbiotic theory explains the evolution of mitochondria and chloroplasts. Before mitochondria and chloroplasts were organelles in a cell, they were free prokaryotic cells that were absorbed by eukaryotic cells.
The mitochondrion was originally a prokaryotic cell that could undergo aerobic respiration. After being absorbed by a eukaryotic cell, it developed a symbiotic relationship with its host cell.
The chloroplast was originally a prokaryotic cell that could undergo photosynthesis (eg. cyanobacteria). Like the mitochondria, the photosynthesizing bacteria became dependent on the host cell after being engulfed.
There is much evidence to support the endosymbiotic theory.
Both prokaryotes and chloroplasts/mitochondria have circular DNABoth have their own ribosomesBoth divide through binary fission (splitting into two)Both have their own cell membranesA researcher is studying the effects of caffeine on the rate of sunflower growth to determine if caffeine stimulates sunflower plants to grow taller. What is the null hypothesis for this experiment?
Answer:
A null hypothesis would be that caffeine doesn't stimulates sunflower plants to grow taller.
Explanation:
Null hypothesis: In research methods, the term "null hypothesis" is described as a type of hypothesis that proposes that there's no difference between specific characteristics of a particular data gathering process or population.
Function: The main aim of "null hypothesis" is to prove whether or not a specific test or study is supported and is separated from the researcher's own decisions and values. It is responsible for providing a way to a given study or test and is represented by H0.
1. You have isolated a long hydrophobic molecule that inserts itself within biological membranes. Specifically, it spans
both layers of the lipid bilayer after insertion. Would you expect this molecule to mimic the effect that some general
anesthetics have? Why or why not? Refer to the general anesthetic mechanism outlined in Figure 5 as a resource.
The hydrophilic heads face the water at each bilayer surface in this energetically most-favorable configuration, while the hydrophobic tails are protected from the water inside.
What kind of lipids have both hydrophilic and hydrophobic ends?Phospholipids are lipids with phosphate groups and are a crucial part of cell membranes. A phospholipid has a hydrophilic (loving water) head and a hydrophobic (hating water) tail (see figure below).
In the body's aqueous environment, what interactions lead to the creation of lipid bilayers?Hydrophobic interactions are the primary mechanism behind the development of the lipid bilayer. A phospholipid's hydrophobic domains are attempting to repel polar hydrophilic water molecules.
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how do you the strand below is RNA and not a strand of DNA
AGUCAAGGCACUGGAG
A. the strand is too short to be DNA
B. There is no way to distinguish the two strands
C. the strand contains a U
We can determine that the strand AGUCAAGGCACUGGAG is RNA and not a strand of DNA because C. the strand contains a U.
What is the main difference between a DNA strand and an RNA strand?The main difference between a DNA strand and a RNA strand is the presence of Uracil or U as a nitrogen base in the RNA instead of Thymine or T base which are replaced during transcription.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the major difference between DNA and RNA is the nitrogen base called Uracil in the first one.
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If several pea plants with the genotype TTyy are cross with pea plants with the genotype ttYy, What percent of the offspring will be expected to be tall? (Tall is dominant to short and Yellow is dominant to green)
Answer:
all the pea plants will be tall in phenotypically ....
Explanation:
all the pea plants will be tall phenotypically but genotype will be: TtYy, TtYy Ttyy ,Ttyy...
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does light need matter to travel
Answer:
Light travels as a wave. But unlike sound waves or water waves, it does not need any matter or material to carry its energy along. This means that light can travel through a vacuum—a completely airless space.
Someone help me with both of these pleaseee:((
Answer:
Clavical
Muscular and Integumentary
Explanation:
I had to make a skeleton for a school project. Weird I know
Which action reflects promotion of genomic care as part of comprehensive health care?
A.
Calculating the odds ratios and recurrence risks of common complex health problems for all people
B.
Ensuring that genomic issues potentially influencing a person's health are incorporated into routine care
C.
Encouraging all people to undergo genetic testing as part of a proactive health screening and prevention program
D.
Instructing patients who undergo genetic testing about their obligation to inform family members regarding test results
The action that reflects the promotion of genomic care as part of comprehensive health care is Ensuring that genomic issues potentially influencing a person's health are incorporated into routine care.
It involves the provision of genomic information and services that is integrated into the care of patients as part of their health care management. This helps to support the provision of personalized health care to individuals based on their specific genomic makeup. This action helps to provide opportunities for genomic health care to be integrated into general health care.
It involves the incorporation of genomic information and services into routine health care management. By doing this, health care providers can effectively manage and prevent genomic diseases. This has led to the development of genomic health care as a field of medicine. Genomic health care provides opportunities to integrate genomic health care into general health care. This helps to ensure that individuals have access to personalized health care based on their unique genomic makeup. By ensuring that genomic issues are incorporated into routine care, health care providers can better identify and manage genomic diseases.
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which of the mutations produces the greatest change in the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide coded for by this 21-base-pair gene?
The mutations produces the greatest change in the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide coded for by this 21-base-pair gene: Addition of T between positions 2 and three.
Mutations can end result from errors in DNA replication for the duration of mobile division, publicity to mutagens or a viral contamination. Germline mutations (that arise in eggs and sperm) may be exceeded on to offspring, whilst somatic mutations (that occur in body cells) aren't passed on.
Hereditary mutations include cystic fibrosis, hemophilia, and sickle cellular ailment. different mutations can occur on their own throughout a person's life. those are called sporadic, spontaneous, or new mutations. They have an effect on only some cells.
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How many gene pairs are involved in generating a typical 1:8:28:56:70:56:28:8:1 ratio in the f2 generation of an experimental cross? group of answer choices
In a typical 1:8:28:56:70:56:28:8:1 ratio in the F2 generation of an experimental cross, there are 9 gene pairs involved.
correct option is A.
This ratio follows the pattern of a binomial expansion of (a + b)^8, where "a" represents one allele and "b" represents another allele.
To calculate the number of gene pairs involved, we can use the binomial expansion formula. In this case, we have a total of 8 alleles, which means there are 8 gene pairs.
Each pair can have two possible alleles (one from each parent). Using the binomial expansion formula, we can calculate the number of gene pairs involved as follows:
Number of gene pairs = (8 choose 0) + (8 choose 1) + (8 choose 2) + (8 choose 3) + (8 choose 4) + (8 choose 5) + (8 choose 6) + (8 choose 7) + (8 choose 8)
Calculating each term of the equation:
(8 choose 0) = 1
(8 choose 1) = 8
(8 choose 2) = 28
(8 choose 3) = 56
(8 choose 4) = 70
(8 choose 5) = 56
(8 choose 6) = 28
(8 choose 7) = 8
(8 choose 8) = 1
Adding up all the terms:
1 + 8 + 28 + 56 + 70 + 56 + 28 + 8 + 1 = 256
Therefore, there are 9 gene pairs (i.e 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8) involved in generating the 1:8:28:56:70:56:28:8:1 ratio in the F2 generation of the experimental cross.
correct option is A.
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Correct question is :
How many gene pairs are involved in generating a typical 1:8:28:56:70:56:28:8:1 ratio in the f2 generation of an experimental cross?
A. nine pairs
B. three pairs
C. five pairs
D. None
Vibration and fine touch sensory impulses are carried by the anterolateral spinothalamic pathway. T/F?
False. Vibration and fine touch sensory impulses are not carried by the anterolateral spinothalamic pathway.
Instead, they are carried by the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway. The anterolateral spinothalamic pathway is responsible for transmitting pain, temperature, and crude touch sensations.
The transmission of pain, temperature, and rough touch sensations from the body to the brain is carried out by the anterolateral spinothalamic pathway, also referred to as the spinothalamic tract. It is a component of the somatosensory system, which enables us to perceive and comprehend sensory data coming from our internal organs, muscles, and skin. A network of neurons makes up the route, which carries sensory information from the periphery to higher brain centres. Sensory receptors in the skin initially take in sensory data, which is then sent to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. The signals then climb through the anterolateral columns and are sent to the spinal cord's contralateral side.
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Amoeba sisters video recap traveling molecules
Answer: The answer is facilitated diffusion, simple diffusion , facilitated diffusion , active transport and simple diffusion.
Explanation: Facilitated diffusion is the process of passive transport in which the ions or the molecules moce or trasported across the biological membrane via transmembrane integral protein or protein channels and they do not need the ATP as energy whereas in simple diffusion the movement of ions and the molecules takes place but without the help of any kind of proteins and it happens through the semi permeable membrane and lastly the active transport is the movement of ions and molecules against the concerntration gradient and requires energy by hydrolysis of ATP and uses it .
In first case the aquaporins are used which are transport channels or helper proteins so it a passive transport but facilitated by proteins so is facilitated diffusion.
In second case it is simple diffusion because due to the smaller size of water molecules the they move and doesn't require any kind of help while doing so.
In third case as the movement is down the gradient and the molecules are charged so is an example of facilitated diffusion.
In the fourth case as the inward movement of glucose is needed and to move from inside the cell to outside the cell it is against the concerntration gradient so it will require the ATP hence is active transport.
In the fifth case as glucose is already in high amount so can easily diffuse inside the cell hence is simple diffussion.
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Kingdom of life mix-n-match game
The example of the mix-n-match game with the kingdoms of life is given below.
What is the Kingdom of life?A game mixing and matching kingdoms of life: match organisms from various kingdoms.
Rules: given list of organisms. Match organisms with kingdoms using biology knowledge. Once matched, submit answers for feedback. Let's begin with the organisms:
A. Human
B. Oak tree
C. Mushroom
D. Paramecium
Below are the kingdoms of life:
AnimaliaPlantaeFungiProtistaMoneraTherefore, Match all of the organism to its corresponding kingdom. An Example: Human - Animalia.
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in drought conditions, many plants aren't able to survive because they do not have enough water to photosynthesize. which step in photosynthesis would be blocked by drought conditions?
In drought conditions, the step of photosynthesis that would be blocked is the light-dependent reactions which take place in the thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast.
Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants and some other organisms utilize sunlight to synthesize foods with the aid of chlorophyll pigments, carbon dioxide, and water. Photosynthesis in plants is carried out by organelles called chloroplasts, which contain chlorophyll pigment. Chloroplasts convert light energy into chemical energy in the form of ATP by using photosystems 1 and 2, which are complex arrangements of pigments and proteins.
The ATP produced is used in the dark reactions of photosynthesis (also known as the Calvin cycle), which occur in the stroma of the chloroplasts. The dark reactions take carbon dioxide and water to make sugars, with oxygen gas as a by-product. The process of photosynthesis can be divided into two parts: light-dependent reactions and light-independent reactions.
Light-dependent reactions: During light-dependent reactions, energy is obtained from sunlight and converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP, which is used in light-independent reactions. This process takes place in the thylakoid membrane of the chloroplasts. It is during this process that water is split into oxygen and hydrogen ions.
Light-independent reactions: During light-independent reactions, chemical energy in the form of ATP is used to convert carbon dioxide to glucose. This process takes place in the stroma of the chloroplasts.
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The landscape of the Amazon rain forest has become more fragmented over the past half century. Thus, we would say that its _______ has changed.
Answer:
Structure.
Explanation:
It has changed its structure. Structure is the correct answer.
what is the definition of an oncofetal tumor antigen? a.an antigen found in a nonviable pregnancy. b.all of the answers are correct. c.an antigen derived from a reactivated fetal gene. d.an antigen which is not immunogenic. e.an oncogene fused to a fetal gene.
Definition - While fetal tissues and cancers both produce oncofetal antigens, adult tissues only produce them in very small amounts. An examination is done of the recognized oncofetal antigens.
Oncofetal antigens are chemicals that are produced by tumors as well as by fetal cells, however they are produced by adult tissues at much lower levels.
The oncofetal antigen alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is helpful in keeping track of individuals with nonseminomatous testicular cancer and specific kinds of ovarian cancer.
stage 4 - commonly referred to as "secondary" or "metastatic" cancer, is when the disease has progressed to at least one additional body organ from the initial site.
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Which of the following are NOT considered biohazards? Select one: A. Infectious or invasive organisms B. Non-toxic proteins purified from rabbit blood C. Biological toxins D. Human cells
The answer is B. Non-toxic proteins purified from rabbit blood are not considered biohazards.
Biohazards refer to biological substances that have the potential to harm living organisms, including humans.
They can be infectious agents, biological toxins, or invasive organisms.
In this case, non-toxic proteins purified from rabbit blood do not pose a threat to human health or the environment.
These proteins are derived from a non-infectious source (rabbit blood) and do not have inherent toxic properties.
Therefore, they are not considered biohazards.
It is important to properly handle and dispose of biohazardous materials to prevent the spread of infectious diseases and ensure safety in laboratory or healthcare settings.
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- Choose the statement that is most correct about membrane potential.
A) Voltage is measured by placing two electrodes on the exterior of the axon.
B) Voltage is measured by placing one electrode inside the membrane and another outside the membrane.
C) Voltage is measured by placing one electrode on one end of the axon and another electrode on the other end.
D) Voltage is measured by placing one electrode on the axon and grounding the other electrode.
I think this one is B but my friend put D, thoughts?
- Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular gates open?
A) Sodium
B) Chloride
C) Calcium
D) Potassium
Is this one Sodium or potassium, cannot remember lol.
1) For the first question regarding membrane potential: The most correct statement about membrane potential is: B) Voltage is measured by placing one electrode inside the membrane and another outside the membrane.
2) After an action potential has peaked, the cellular gates that open are: D) Potassium
When measuring membrane potential, typically referred to as voltage, one electrode is placed inside the cell (intracellular) and another electrode is placed outside the cell (extracellular). This setup allows for the measurement of the potential difference across the cell membrane.
Regarding the second question about the gates opening immediately after an action potential has peaked:
During an action potential, sodium channels initially open to depolarize the cell membrane and initiate the action potential. As the action potential peaks, potassium channels open, allowing the efflux of potassium ions from the cell, resulting in repolarization and the restoration of the resting membrane potential. Therefore, after the action potential peaks, it is the potassium gates that open.
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